Worksheets2nd Semester Test Review
Total questions: 161
Worksheet time: 1hrs 21mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Which material allows messages to travel down the neurons much faster?
a)
myelin
b)
astrocytes
c)
glia
d)
grey matter
2.
The cerebellum
a)
sorts out sensory information and sends it to the cerebrum
b)
maintains consciousness
c)
is important to homeostasis
d)
regulates coordination and equilibrium
3.
What area of the brain is probably affected if a person stops breathing?
a)
midbrain
b)
medulla oblongata
c)
pons
d)
cerebellum
4.
What areas of the brain is affected if a person feels cold all the time?
a)
thalamus
b)
cerebrum
c)
midbrain
d)
hypothalamus
5.
Where are the meninges found?
a)
brains and spinal cord
b)
axons
c)
dendrites
d)
nerve cells
6.
The reflex arc involves all of the following except which one?
a)
sensory neurons
b)
motor neurons
c)
interneurons
d)
brain
7.
When neurons of the cerebral cortex die and the cortex shrinks it is characteristic of which disease?
a)
Alzheimer’s Disease
b)
Parkinson’s Disease
c)
Stroke
d)
Encephalitis
8.
When blood vessels become blocked and brain tissue dies it is called
a)
Alzheimer’s Disease
b)
Parkinson’s Disease
c)
Stroke
d)
Encephalitis
9.
Irregular bursts of electrical activity in the brain occur with which condition?
a)
Alzheimer’s Disease
b)
Parkinson’s Disease
c)
Stroke
d)
Epilepsy
10.
When not enough dopamine is produced in the brain the resulting condition is called…
a)
Alzheimer’s Disease
b)
Parkinson’s Disease
c)
Stroke
d)
Encephalitis
11.
Fibers that carry information from the skin, joints, and skeletal muscles to the CNS are:
a)
motor
b)
visceral sensory
c)
somatic sensory
d)
interneurons
12.
The neuron processes that normally receive incoming stimuli are called:
a)
axons
b)
dendrites
c)
neurolemmas
d)
satellite cells
13.
Impulse conduction is fastest in neurons that are:
a)
myelinated
b)
unmyelinated
c)
sensory
d)
motor
14.
The gap between two communicating neurons is called:
a)
synaptic cleft
b)
cell body
c)
effector
d)
Schwann cell
15.
The substance released at axonal endings to propagate a nervous impulse is called:
a)
an ion
b)
nerve glue
c)
a neurotransmitter
d)
an action potential
16.
The elevated ridges of tissue on the surface of the cerebral hemispheres are known as ___ while the shallow grooves are termed____:
a)
sulci; gyri
b)
gyri; sulci
c)
ganglia; gyri
d)
tracts; ganglia
17.
A stroke in the primary motor area has caused Don to lose control over his skeletal muscles on the right side of his body. What lobe of his brain was damaged:
a)
occipital lobe
b)
temporal lobe
c)
frontal lobe
d)
parietal lobe
18.
The midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata are housed in the:
a)
diencephalon
b)
hypothalamus
c)
brain stem
d)
cerebellum
19.
Which lobe contains the primary motor area and enables voluntary control of skeletal muscles:
a)
parietal lobe
b)
temporal lobe
c)
occipital lobe
d)
frontal lobe
20.
The pituitary gland is most closely associated with the:
a)
hypothalamus
b)
thalamus
c)
pineal gland
d)
midbrain
21.
Control of temperature, endocrine activity, metabolism, and thirst are functions associated with the:
a)
medulla oblongata
b)
cerebellum
c)
hypothalamus
d)
thalamus
22.
The vital centers for the control of visceral activities such as heart rate, breathing, blood pressure, swallowing, and vomiting are located in the:
a)
pons
b)
medulla oblongata
c)
midbrain
d)
hypothalamus
23.
The function of the olfactory nerve concerns:
a)
hearing
b)
vision
c)
chewing
d)
smell
24.
Which one of the following is the correct sequences in connective tissue sheaths, going from outermost to innermost layer:
1) epineurium
2) endoneurium
3) perineurium
1) epineurium
2) endoneurium
3) perineurium
a)
1, 3, 2
b)
3, 1, 2
c)
2, 3, 1
d)
2, 1, 3
25.
The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems are subdivisions of the:
a)
central nervous system
b)
autonomic nervous system
c)
somatic nervous system
d)
peripheral nervous system
26.
Which one of these effectors is NOT directly controlled by the autonomic nervous system:
a)
smooth muscle
b)
cardiac muscle
c)
skeletal muscle
d)
most glands
27.
Preparing the body for the "fight-or-flight" response during threatening situations os the role of the:
a)
sympathetic nervous system
b)
cerebrum
c)
parasympathetic nervous system
d)
somatic nervous system
28.
Which of the following effects is characteristic of the parasympathetic nervous system:
a)
decreases the activity of the digestive system
b)
decreases urine output
c)
increases metabolic rate
d)
decreases heart rate
29.
The effects of the sympathetic nervous system are essentially opposite of the:
a)
central nervous system
b)
parasympathetic nervous system
c)
autonomic nervous system
d)
motor division
30.
Which subdivision of the autonomic nervous system operates using the neurotransmitters norepinephrine and epinephrine:
a)
parasympathetic
b)
somatic
c)
sympathetic
d)
peripheral
31.
Equilibrium receptors are located in the:
a)
ossicles
b)
external ear
c)
middle ear
d)
inner ear
32.
Which one of the following is NOT a primary taste sensation:
a)
sweet
b)
pungent
c)
bitter
d)
umami
33.
Fast fibers are often referred to as ___ while the slow fibers are called ____.
a)
white, red
b)
white, whiter
c)
red, white
d)
red, redder
34.
When tissues start to break down and the sarcoplasmic reticulum releases calcium ions, this causes:
a)
rigor morpheus
b)
rug or marteus
c)
rigor mortis
d)
rick moranis
35.
What changes occur in the muscle when people "train"?
a)
more mitochondria
b)
more capillaries
c)
more lactic acid
d)
both a and b
36.
Which of the following correctly sums up muscle contraction?
a)
Actin cross bridges bind and reattach as they pull on the myosin filament.
b)
Actin filaments are crossed with myosin filaments and they pull on each other.
c)
Myosin filaments have cross bridges that pull on the other myosin filaments.
d)
Myosin cross bridges bind to actin filaments and pull the actin inward.
37.
Which of the following statements is false?
a)
ATP can be made through 3 ways in the body.
b)
Aerobic respiration can supply energy for hours.
c)
Direct phosphorylation requires oxygen.
d)
Anaerobic glycolysis causes lactic acid build up.
38.
What type of contraction causes actual shortening of the muscle?
a)
isometric
b)
isotoner
c)
isotonic
d)
isometer
39.
Where does acetylcholinesterase come from?
a)
It is always present in the neuromuscular junction.
b)
The neuron releases it.
c)
The muscle releases it.
d)
None of the above
40.
What object/chemical carries the contraction signal from the neuron to the muscle fiber?
a)
Ach
b)
ATP
c)
Ca2+
d)
Na1+
41.
What object/chemical activates each myosin head to release from the actin binding sites?
a)
Ach
b)
ATP
c)
Ca2+
d)
Na1+
42.
What object/chemical binds to the troponin on the actin which causes the exposure of the binding sites for the myosin cross bridges?
a)
Ach
b)
ATP
c)
Ca2+
d)
Na1+
43.
The outermost layer of connective tissue surrounding a skeletal muscle is called:
a)
epimysium
b)
perimysium
c)
endomysium
d)
actin
44.
Myofibrils are composed primarily of:
a)
actin and myosin
b)
sarcoplasmic reticulum
c)
muscle fibers
d)
fascicles
45.
In order for a muscle to relax, what must happen?
a)
Acetylcholinesterase must break down Ach.
b)
Calcium must leave the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
c)
Myosin must link onto the actin.
d)
None of the above
46.
The all-or-none response indicates that:
a)
all the muscles in a region contract together
b)
all the muscle fibers within a motor unit contract together
c)
when a muscle fiber contracts, it contracts completely
d)
when a muscle fiber contracts, all the ATP is utilized
47.
The striated appearance of skeletal muscle is due to:
a)
transverse tubule pattern
b)
cisternae placement
c)
actin and myosin overlap
d)
sarcoplasmic reticulum network
48.
Which of the following is NOT true when comparing fast twitch and slow twitch muscle types?
a)
red muscle fibers are better suited for endurance activities
b)
red muscle fibers have a large amount of blood supply
c)
red muscle fibers depend on anaerobic respiration
d)
red muscle fibers fatigue slower than white
49.
How does the motor neuron communicate with the muscle?
a)
sign language
b)
neurotransmitters
c)
neurotransports
d)
neuromoto enzymes
50.
Which of the following events in muscle contraction is stated correctly?
a)
ATP is utilized to release the actin head from the myosin.
b)
Ach diffuses across the synaptic cleft.
c)
Calcium is released from the transverse tubules.
d)
Troponin covers the myosin cross bridges.
51.
A tendon is characterized by being ____, whereas an aponeurosis is characterized by being ____.
a)
cordlike and connects bones to bones; a broad, fibrous sheet of connective tissue that connects muscle to muscle
b)
a broad, fibrous sheet of connective tissue that connects muscles to muscles; cordlike and connects bone to bone
c)
cordlike and connects muscle to bone; a broad, fibrous sheet of connective tissue connecting muscle to muscle
d)
none of the above
52.
Are muscles organs?
a)
Yes
b)
No
c)
Depends on the muscle
53.
Which type of muscle has the best developed transverse tubules and sarcoplasmic reticulum?
a)
white, fast twitch muscles
b)
red, slow twitch muscles
c)
pink, medium twitch muscles
d)
they have equally developed sarcoplasmic reticulum and transverse tubules
54.
Muscle fatigue can occur because the muscle is short on oxygen.
a)
True
b)
False
55.
Which group identifies a muscle's level of organization from largest to smallest?
a)
entire muscle, fascicle, muscle fiber, myofibril, actin/myosin
b)
entire muscle, motor unit, muscle fiber, actin/myosin, myofibril
c)
muscle fiber, entire muscle, myofibril, fasicle
d)
entire muscle, myofibril, motor unit, actin/myosin
56.
What is the role of acetylcholinesterase?
a)
breakdown Ach
b)
cause muscle to relax
c)
stop single impulse from continuously contracting muscle
d)
all of the above
57.
What can be said about the muscles of a world class sprinter?
a)
The person has substantially more red muscle fibers than white muscle fibers.
b)
The person has all white muscle fibers.
c)
The person has all red muscle fibers.
d)
The person has substantially more white muscle fibers than red muscle fibers.
58.
During a short sprint or any short explosive activity less than 15 seconds, the muscle will get most of its energy from which process?
a)
anaerobic glycolysis
b)
aerobic respiration
c)
direct phosphorylation
d)
both b and c
59.
A person with a lot of dexterity (fine motor control) will have ____ muscle fibers per motor unit than a person with little dexterity.
a)
more
b)
less
c)
exactly the same
d)
there are no such things as motor units
60.
During muscle hypertrophy, the number of muscle fibers increases.
a)
True
b)
False
61.
Which filament is thinner?
a)
actin
b)
myofibril
c)
myosin
d)
they are all the same
62.
During contraction of a muscle, the ___ moves closer to the ___.
a)
origin; action
b)
origin; insertion
c)
insertion; origin
d)
insertion; action
63.
Which of the following is NOT a function of the skeletal muscle system?
a)
produce heat
b)
maintain posture
c)
stabilize joints
d)
produce calcium ions
64.
Which of the following is a by-product of anaerobic respiration?
a)
lactic acid
b)
carbon dioxide
c)
glucose
d)
both a and b
65.
Contractions that shorten the muscle length are also known as what?
a)
isotoner contractions
b)
isometric contractions
c)
isomotoring contractions
d)
none of the above
66.
ATP is required for muscle relaxation.
a)
True
b)
False
67.
After strenuous exercise, why does a person continue to breathe hard for several minutes?
a)
to repay the oxygen debt
b)
to breakdown the lactic acid
c)
to allow time for calcium ions to return to the sarcoplasmic reticulum
d)
to allow time for the acetylcholinesterase to break down Ach
68.
What is muscle atrophy?
a)
muscles increasing in size
b)
muscles decreasing in size
c)
muscles decreasing in the number of nuclei
d)
muscles decreasing in ATP
69.
Muscle can only ____, they cannot ____.
a)
push, pull
b)
pull, push
c)
stretch, tear
d)
move multiple bones, move one
70.
Which of the following is NOT included in a motor unit?
a)
motor neuron
b)
muscle fiber
c)
synaptic cleft
d)
all of the above are part of a motor unit
71.
What is a possible reason for muscle fatigue?
a)
too much oxygen
b)
too little ATP
c)
lack of lactic acid
d)
all of the above
72.
What is the role of a tendon?
a)
connect muscle to muscle
b)
connect a muscle to a bone
c)
bundle fibers together
d)
bundle multiple muscles together
73.
What is a membranous channel extending inward from the muscle fiber membrane?
a)
sarcoplasmic reticulum
b)
transverse tubule
c)
aponeurosis
d)
sarcolemma
74.
What is the cytoplasm of a muscle fiber?
a)
sarcoplasmic reticulum
b)
sarcolemma
c)
sarcoplasm
d)
aponeurosis
75.
What is a broad sheet of connective tissue that attaches coverings of adjacent muscles?
a)
sarcolemma
b)
transverse tubule
c)
epimysium
d)
aponeurosis
76.
What is the cell membrane of a muscle fiber?
a)
endomysium
b)
sarcomere
c)
sarcolemma
d)
aponeurosis
77.
What is the layer of connective tissue that surrounds a skeletal muscle?
a)
epimysium
b)
endomysium
c)
aponeurosis
d)
sarcoplasm
78.
What is a unit of alternating light and dark striations between Z lines?
a)
fascicle
b)
sarcolemma
c)
sarcomere
d)
transverse tubule
79.
What is a layer of connective tissue that surrounds an individual muscle fiber?
a)
perimysium
b)
endomysium
c)
epimysium
d)
aponeurosis
80.
What is the cellular organelle in muscle fiber corresponding to the endoplasmic reticulum?
a)
sarcolemma
b)
endomysium
c)
sarcomere
d)
sarcoplasmic reticulum
81.
Which of the following is not associated with the mouth?
a)
Vestibule
b)
Frenulum
c)
Rugae
d)
All of the above are associated with the mouth
82.
The maxilla makes up what structure in the mouth?
a)
Anchor for the tongue
b)
Palate
c)
Lower Jaw
d)
Uvula
83.
What is the movement called that pushes food down the esophagus?
a)
Peristalsis
b)
Gravity
c)
Paralysis
84.
Mucus and amylase are found in...
a)
stomach acid
b)
saliva
c)
snot
d)
bile
85.
When food goes down the wrong pipe, what structure is not working properly?
a)
epiphysis
b)
epidermis
c)
epiglottis
86.
Which of the following are salivary glands in humans?
a)
Parotid
b)
Submandibular
c)
Sublingual
d)
All of the above are salivary glands
87.
What substance covers and protects your teeth?
(This is the hardest substance in the body!)
(This is the hardest substance in the body!)
a)
Enamel
b)
Dentin
c)
Bone
d)
Cartilage
88.
The tongue is a smooth muscle.
a)
True! It is a smooth muscle.
b)
False, it is a cardiac muscle.
c)
False, it is a skeletal muscle.
d)
False, the tongue is not a muscle.
89.
What is a possible reason for being unable to break down starch in the mouth?
a)
Tumor in the parotid gland
b)
Being born with a cleft palate
c)
The lingual frenulum is too tight (short)
d)
Nothing- starch broken down in the stomach
90.
These are functions of what structure?
-blocks off nasal passage during swallowing
-make room for food to pass down throat
-pushes saliva down
-blocks off nasal passage during swallowing
-make room for food to pass down throat
-pushes saliva down
a)
Epiphysis
b)
Tongue
c)
Epiglottis
d)
Uvula
91.
What is the correct order of the small intestine?
a)
Duodenum, Ileum, Jejunum
b)
Jejunum, Duodenum, Ileum
c)
Duodenum, Jejunum, Ileum
d)
Ileum, Jejunum, Duodenum
92.
What layer is affected by a peptic ulcer?
a)
Muscle
b)
Mucosa
c)
Submucosa
d)
Serosa
93.
When your ______ is too short (tight) you have less freedom to move your tongue.
a)
labial frenulum
b)
papillae
c)
lingual frenulum
d)
uvula
94.
Tearing/ripping into food is the function of what?
a)
Incisors
b)
Cuspids
c)
Bicuspids
d)
Molars
95.
Which of the following is not part of the alimentary canal?
a)
Pancreas
b)
Pharynx
c)
Small Intestine
d)
Mouth
96.
What is feces?
a)
Material absorbed from chyme in the small intestine
b)
food when it enters the stomach and mixes with gastric juices
c)
Food when it enters your mouth and mixes with saliva
d)
The residue and leftovers of chyme after it has gone through digestive system
97.
_____ increases contact with food and increases absorption in the small intestine.
a)
Villi
b)
Ileum
c)
Jejunum
d)
Papillae
98.
Into where do the liver, pancreas and gall bladder secrete their substances?
a)
Jejunum
b)
Ileum
c)
Duodenum
d)
Cecum
99.
Which part of gastric juice has a digestive component?
a)
Pepsin
b)
Mucus
c)
Hydrochloric Acid
d)
Pepsinogen
100.
A person having trouble with closing their cardioesophageal sphincter would experience what?
a)
Pain in the upper abdominal and thoracic cavity
b)
A peptic ulcer in the stomach
c)
Trouble controlling bowel movements
d)
The inability to empty the stomach
101.
Mechanical breakdown of food occurs where?
a)
Small Intestine
b)
Large Intestine
c)
Mouth
d)
Stomach
102.
_______ muscles are located throughout the alimentary canal?
a)
Longitudinal
b)
Smooth
c)
Circular
d)
All of the above
103.
What is the function of bile salts?
a)
Breaking down protiens
b)
Breaking down nucleic acids
c)
Breaking down of lipids
104.
Why does the anus have two sphincters?
a)
There are two exits to the large intestine
b)
It does not have two sphincters
c)
One to let you know you have to go, and one to control when you go
d)
One empties the large intestine, the other empties the bladder
105.
Emesis is also known as what?
a)
Tonsillitis
b)
Vomiting
c)
Constipation
d)
Heartburn
106.
If you have jaundice, what pigment is responsible for turning your skin yellow?
a)
Bile
b)
Biliverdin
c)
Bilirubin
107.
Wisdom teeth are also known as ______.
a)
2nd biscuspids
b)
3rd biscuspids
c)
2nd molars
d)
3rd molars
108.
What is the largest salivary gland in the body?
a)
Sublingual
b)
Submandibular
c)
Parotid
d)
Submaxillary
109.
The 4 functions of the digestive system are: Ingest, Digest, Absorb, Defecate
a)
True
b)
False
110.
Why is it important that pancreatic juice is secreted where it is?
a)
Neutralize the chyme
b)
Contains enzymes to finish digestion
c)
Both of these
d)
Neither of these
111.
Cutting into food is the function of what?
a)
Incisors
b)
Cuspids
c)
Bicuspids
d)
Molars
112.
Grinding is a function of what type of teeth that also include the wisdom teeth?
a)
Incisors
b)
Cuspids
c)
Bicuspids
d)
Molars
113.
What part of the mouth separates the nasal cavity from the oral cavity?
a)
Palate
b)
Tongue
c)
Uvula
d)
Tonsils
114.
Amylase helps break down what?
a)
Fats
b)
Starches
c)
Nucleic acids
d)
Protein
115.
______ helps moisten and bind food to make bolus and is primarily secreted by the sublingual gland.
a)
Amylase
b)
Dentin
c)
Mucus
d)
Bile
116.
The pharynx contains the ______.
a)
parotid gland
b)
cardioesophageal sphincter
c)
epiglottis
d)
sublingual gland
117.
The outermost layer of the wall structure that secretes serous fluid.
a)
Mucosa
b)
Submucosa
c)
Muscular Layer
d)
Serosa
118.
The layer of the wall structure that contains circular and longitudinal muscles.
a)
Mucosa
b)
Submucosa
c)
Muscular Layer
d)
Serosa
119.
The layer of the wall structure that contains the blood vessels and carries nutrients.
a)
Mucosa
b)
Submucosa
c)
Muscular Layer
d)
Serosa
120.
The inner most layer of the wall structure that secretes mucus and enzymes.
a)
Mucosa
b)
Submucosa
c)
Muscular Layer
d)
Serosa
121.
This structure ends at the cardioesophageal sphincter.
a)
Stomach
b)
Esophagus
c)
Small Intestine
d)
Large Intestine
122.
______ unfolds giving the stomach a greater surface area.
a)
Villi
b)
Microvilli
c)
Rugae
d)
Serous
123.
Pancreatic juices...
a)
neutralize acidic chyme from the stomach
b)
help digest fats, carbs, and nucleic acids
c)
are secreted into the duodenum
d)
all of these
124.
If waste passes through the large intestine too quickly, it becomes what?
a)
constipation
b)
diarrhea
c)
ulcerative colitis
d)
diverticulitis
125.
What does the term "emesis" mean?
a)
diarrhea
b)
heart burn
c)
constipation
d)
vomiting
126.
What is it called when acid leaves the stomach into the esophagus?
a)
heartburn
b)
ulcer
c)
diverticulosis
d)
emesis
127.
What is caused by elevated levels of bilirubin in the blood?
a)
emesis
b)
peptic ulcers
c)
diverticulosis
d)
jaundice
128.
What are sores in the mucosa lining or duodenum called?
a)
jaundice
b)
diverticulosis
c)
stomach ulcers
d)
emesis
129.
What is an immune reaction in the small intestine from eating gluten?
a)
crohn's disease
b)
diarrhea
c)
celiac disease
d)
lactose intolerance
130.
What can be found in the large intestine that can change into cancer?
a)
ulcer
b)
polyp
c)
hemorrhoid
d)
divericulosis
131.
What are swollen veins in the lower part of the anus or rectum?
a)
hemorrhoids
b)
ulcers
c)
heartburn
d)
diverticulosis
132.
Thinking about the contents of the stomach, what might happen to a person with a cardioesophageal sphincter that does not close completely?
a)
diarrhea
b)
ulcers
c)
small intestine issues
d)
heartburn
133.
What would result if a person did not produce much mucus in the stomach?
a)
crohn's disease
b)
celiac disease
c)
ulcers
d)
diverticulosis
134.
Why would it be a problem if a person’s intestinal walls were completely flat?
a)
can cause diarrhea
b)
can cause constipation
c)
can cause nutrients to not be absorbed
d)
can lead to ulcers
135.
If a person had a condition which limited their ability to produce hydrochloric acid in the stomach, what might this cause?
a)
increase in ulcers
b)
increase in diarrhea
c)
increase in heartburn
d)
decrease in digestion
136.
What could possibly block the common bile duct?
a)
kidney stones
b)
gallstones
c)
feces
d)
overgrown villi
137.
Why does the gallbladder reabsorb water?
a)
it doesn't
b)
to reabsorb electrolytes
c)
to eliminate bilirubin from the blood
d)
to concentrate bile
138.
Which of the following has little digestive function?
a)
liver
b)
stomach
c)
pancreas
d)
large intestine
139.
Which type of tonsil is removed when you have tonsilitis?
a)
lingual
b)
submandibular
c)
submaxillary
d)
palatine
140.
What is another name for the canine teeth?
a)
cuspids
b)
incisors
c)
bicuspids
d)
vampire fangs
141.
What is the species name for the specimen we dissected most of this semester?
a)
felis domesticus
b)
panthera catus
c)
panthera domensticus
d)
puma panthera
142.
What are the tori on the cat?
a)
ears
b)
pads on the feet
c)
whiskers
d)
nasal openings
143.
What are the pinnae on the cat?
a)
ears
b)
pads on the foot
c)
whiskers
d)
nasal openings
144.
Which muscle is responsible for opening the mouth on the cat?
a)
digastric
b)
sternohyoid
c)
masseter
d)
sternomastoid
145.
Which triceps brachii muscle was underneath the other two?
a)
long head
b)
medial head
c)
lateral head
d)
inferior head
146.
Which was the deepest layer of the abdominal muscles?
a)
rectus abdominus
b)
internal oblique
c)
external oblique
d)
tranversus abdominus
147.
In the human, the serratus ventralis is known by what name?
a)
serratus posterior
b)
serratus anterior
c)
extensor ventralis
d)
flexor ventralis
148.
When removing the forelimb of a cat, how many bones must be cut through?
a)
0
b)
1
c)
2
d)
3
149.
What large nerve was found underneath the biceps femoris?
a)
vagus nerve
b)
hypoglossal nerve
c)
accesory nerve
d)
sciatic nerve
150.
What cranial nerve is X and has autonomic control as its function?
a)
vagus
b)
accessory
c)
optic
d)
olfactory
151.
What cranial nerve is VII and used for fascle movements and taste?
a)
facial
b)
optic
c)
oculomotor
d)
trochlear
152.
What is the cranial nerve number for the optic nerve used for sight?
a)
I
b)
II
c)
X
d)
XII
153.
What is the cranial nerve number for the trochlear nerve used in eye movements?
a)
IV
b)
VI
c)
V
d)
XI
154.
What is cranial nerve number VI used in eye movements?
a)
abducens
b)
facial
c)
vestibulocochlear
d)
vagus
155.
What is the function of the olfactory nerve (number I)?
a)
smell
b)
sight
c)
hearing, balance
d)
eye movements
156.
What is the function AND number of the vestibulocochlear nerve?
a)
VIII; hearing & balance
b)
VII; facial movements, balance
c)
VIII; eye movements
d)
IX; hearing & facial sensation
157.
What cranial nerve is number XI and used for trapezius movements & sternocleidomastoid motion?
a)
accessory
b)
hypoglossal
c)
glossopharyngeal
d)
facial
158.
What is the function of the oculomotor cranial nerve?
a)
eye movement
b)
vision
c)
facial sensation
d)
taste
159.
What is the name of cranial nerve number XII used for tongue movement?
a)
hypoglossal
b)
accessory
c)
facial
d)
trigeminal
160.
What is the number of the trigeminal nerve used for facial sensation and jaw motion?
a)
V
b)
VI
c)
IV
d)
III
161.
What is the name of nerve number IX used for throat muscle movements and taste?
a)
glossopharyngeal
b)
facial
c)
abducens
d)
accessory
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