Free Printable COMPLETE EOC REVIEW

1.

What is made up of a deoxyribose sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogenous base?

a)

amino acid

b)

monosaccharide

c)

nucleotide

d)

fatty acids & glycerol

2.

The variable changed by the scientist is called the..

a)

control

b)

constant

c)

independent

d)

dependent

3.

What is a dependent variable?

a)

the variable changed by the scientist

b)

the component of the experiment that remains unchanged

c)

the experiment set up that is used for comparison

d)

the variable being measured

4.

What is a control?

a)

the variable being measured

b)

the experiment set up that is used for comparison

c)

the variable changed by the scientist

d)

the variable that might change because of the independent

5.

True or False -- experiments should be repeated multiple times to test the conclusion

a)

true

b)

false

6.

A group of students wants to know if playing music to plants helps them grow faster. They believe that country music will make a plant grow the fastest. They have one plant listening to country music, one plant listening to pop music, one plant listening to rap music, and one plant not listening to anything. They give the plants the same amount of water and sunlight each day. After 1 week they find that the plant listening to rap music grew the tallest. What is the control in this experiment?

a)

the type of music being played

b)

the growth of the plant

c)

the plant not listening to music

d)

the amount of water and sunlight the plants receive

7.

Which order is correct for the steps of the scientific method?

a)

1. analyze 2. report 3. hypothesize 4. experiment 5. observe/research

b)

1. observe/research 2. hypothesize 3. experiment 4. analyze 5. report

c)

1. observe/research 2. experiment 3. hypothesize 4. report 5. analyze

d)

1. experiment 2. observe/research 3. hypothesize 4. analyze 5. report

8.

A group of students wants to know if playing music to plants helps them grow faster. They believe that country music will make a plant grow the fastest. They have one plant listening to country music, one plant listening to pop music, one plant listening to rap music, and one plant not listening to anything. They give the plants the same amount of water and sunlight each day. After 1 week they find that the plant listening to rap music grew the tallest. What is the independent variable in this experiment?

a)

the type of music being played

b)

the growth of the plant

c)

the plant not listening to music

d)

the amount of water and sunlight the plants receive

9.

A group of students wants to know if playing music to plants helps them grow faster. They believe that country music will make a plant grow the fastest. They have one plant listening to country music, one plant listening to pop music, one plant listening to rap music, and one plant not listening to anything. They give the plants the same amount of water and sunlight each day. After 1 week they find that the plant listening to rap music grew the tallest. What is the dependent variable in this experiment?

a)

the type of music being played

b)

the growth of the plant

c)

the plant not listening to music

d)

the amount of water and sunlight the plants receive

10.

A group of students wants to know if playing music to plants helps them grow faster. They believe that country music will make a plant grow the fastest. They have one plant listening to country music, one plant listening to pop music, one plant listening to rap music, and one plant not listening to anything. They give the plants the same amount of water and sunlight each day. After 1 week they find that the plant listening to rap music grew the tallest. What is the constant in this experiment?

a)

the type of music being played

b)

the growth of the plant

c)

the plant not listening to music

d)

the amount of water and sunlight the plants receive

11.

What does Buriet's solution turn when proteins are present?

a)

purple

b)

blue-black

c)

green

d)

2 layers, red on top

12.

What does Lugol's iodine solution turn when starches are present?

a)

purple

b)

blue-black

c)

green

d)

2 layers, red on top

13.

What does Sudan Red solution turn when lipids are present?

a)

purple

b)

blue-black

c)

green

d)

2 layers, red on top

14.

What does Benedict's solution turn when sugars are present?

a)

purple

b)

blue-black

c)

green

d)

2 layers, red on top

15.

What is the monomer of a nucleic acid?

a)

nucleotide

b)

amino acid

c)

fatty acids & glycerol

d)

monosaccharide

16.

What is the monomer of a polypeptide?

a)

nucleotide

b)

amino acid

c)

fatty acids & glycerol

d)

monosaccharide

17.

What is the monomer of a lipid?

a)

nucleotide

b)

amino acid

c)

fatty acids & glycerol

d)

monosaccharide

18.

What is the monomer of a carbohydrate?

a)

nucleotide

b)

amino acid

c)

fatty acids & glycerol

d)

monosaccharide

19.

What atoms make up carbohydrates?

a)

Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen in a 1:2:1 ratio

b)

Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Calcium

c)

Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen

d)

Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen, Phosphorous

20.

What atoms make up lipids?

a)

Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen

b)

Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Calcium

c)

Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen

d)

Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen, Phosphorous

21.

What atoms make up proteins?

a)

Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen in a 1:2:1 ratio

b)

Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Calcium

c)

Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen

d)

Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen, Phosphorous

22.

What atoms make up nucleic acids?

a)

Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen in a 1:2:1 ratio

b)

Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Calcium

c)

Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen

d)

Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen, Phosphorous

23.

___________________ are proteins that act as biological catalysts; they speed up chemical reactions that take place in cells by lowering the activation energy.

a)

enzyme

b)

substrate

c)

regulatory gene

d)

buffer

24.

If a cell does not have a nucleus, the organism is a(n)..

a)

plant

b)

eukaryote

c)

prokaryote

d)

animal

25.

What type of transport requires energy from ATP to move substances across membranes?

a)

active

b)

passive

c)

reactive

d)

progressive

26.

Which molecule is a protein?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

27.

Which molecule is a lipid?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

28.

Which molecule is a carbohydrate?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

29.

Which molecule is a nucleic acid?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

30.

Which is a type of active transport in which the cell membrane folds inward to bring substances into the cell?

a)

Diffusion

b)

Facilitated diffusion

c)

exocytosis

d)

endocytosis

31.

Which illustration represents a cell in a hypotonic solution?

a)

a. (normal red blood cell)

b)

b. (swollen red blood cell)

c)

c. (shrunken red blood cell)

d)

d. none of the above

32.

Which illustration represents a cell in a hypertonic solution?

a)

a. (normal red blood cell)

b)

b. (swollen red blood cell)

c)

c. (shrunken red blood cell)

d)

d. none of the above

33.

Which illustration represents a cell in a isotonic solution?

a)

a. (normal red blood cell)

b)

b. (swollen red blood cell)

c)

c. (shrunken red blood cell)

d)

d. none of the above

34.

Which organelle synthesizes proteins?

a)

Golgi apparatus

b)

Ribosomes

c)

Vesicles

d)

Microtubules

35.

Which organelle modifies, sorts, and packages proteins, lipids, and other materials from the endoplasmic reticulum for storage in the cell or secretion outside of the cell?

a)

Golgi apparatus

b)

Ribosomes

c)

Vesicles

d)

Microtubules

36.

Which organelle contains the DNA?

a)

#2- nucleus

b)

#7- cell membrane

c)

#10- centrioles

d)

#4- ribosomes

37.

Which organelle produces the spindle fibers to separate the chromosomes during mitosis?

a)

#2- nucleus

b)

#7- cell membrane

c)

#10- centrioles

d)

#4- ribosomes

38.

Which organelle acts as a barrier by controlling what enters and leaves the cell?

a)

#2- nucleus

b)

#7- cell membrane

c)

#10- centrioles

d)

#4- ribosomes

39.

Which of the following structures is found in all prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

a)

nucleus

b)

chloroplast

c)

ribosome

d)

cell wall

40.

During diffusion, molecules move..

a)

from lower concentrations to higher concentration

b)

from higher concentration to lower concentrations

41.

The organelle, sometimes referred to as the recycler or garbage collector of the cell, that contains digestive enzymes that break down materials with the cell is known as the _____

a)

lysosome

b)

ribosome

c)

chloroplast

d)

nucleus

42.

A process of active transport in which material is ejected through the cell membrane by a vesicle

a)

diffusion

b)

facilitated diffusion

c)

exocytosis

d)

endocytosis

43.

Molecules move from an area of high concentration to low BETWEEN the phospholipids

a)

diffusion

b)

facilitated diffusion

c)

exocytosis

d)

endocytosis

44.

Molecules move from an area of high concentration to low through a protein CHANNEL

a)

diffusion

b)

facilitated diffusion

c)

exocytosis

d)

endocytosis

45.

In which organelle does photosynthesis take place?

a)

mitochondria

b)

ribosome

c)

chloroplast

d)

vacuole

46.

Type of cell that lacks a nucleus.

a)

prokaryote

b)

eukaryote

c)

ribosome

d)

endoplasmic reticulum

47.

Provides a barrier and structure to prokaryotic cells and plant cells; composed of carbohydrates

a)

cell membrane

b)

rough endoplasmic reticulum

c)

cell wall

d)

smooth endoplasmic reticulum

48.

Provides a barrier to all cell types; composed of phospholipids

a)

cell membrane

b)

rough endoplasmic reticulum

c)

cell wall

d)

smooth endoplasmic reticulum

49.

Synthesizes lipids

a)

cell membrane

b)

rough endoplasmic reticulum

c)

cell wall

d)

smooth endoplasmic reticulum

50.

Stores water and other molecules in the cell; a large central one provides support in plant cells

a)

cell membrane

b)

rough endoplasmic reticulum

c)

vacuole

d)

smooth endoplasmic reticulum

51.

What are the products of cellular respiration?

a)

oxygen & glucose

b)

water & oxygen

c)

sunlight & water

d)

ATP & carbon dioxide & water

52.

What are the products of photosynthesis?

a)

oxygen & glucose

b)

water & oxygen

c)

sunlight & water

d)

ATP & carbon dioxide & water

53.

What are the reactants of photosynthesis?

a)

oxygen & glucose

b)

water & carbon dioxide

c)

water & oxygen

d)

ATP & carbon dioxide

54.

What are the reactants of cellular respiration?

a)

oxygen & glucose

b)

water & oxygen

c)

sunlight & oxygen

d)

ATP & carbon dioxide & water

55.

Which step of respiration is found in both aerobic and anaerobic respiration?

a)

glycolysis

b)

fermentation

c)

krebs cycle

d)

electron transport chain

56.

What are the steps of anaerobic respiration, in order?

a)

1. glycolysis 2. fermentation

b)

1. fermentation 2. krebs cycle

c)

1. glycolysis 2. Krebs cycle 3. electron transport chain

d)

1. electron transport chain 2. glycolysis 3. Krebs cycle

57.

What are the steps of aerobic respiration, in order?

a)

1. glycolysis 2. fermentation

b)

1. fermentation 2. krebs cycle

c)

1. glycolysis 2. Krebs cycle 3. electron transport chain

d)

1. electron transport chain 2. glycolysis 3. Krebs cycle

58.

Where does aerobic respiration occur?

a)

chloroplast

b)

cytoplasm

c)

mitochondria

d)

vacuole

59.

How many ATP does anaerobic respiration produce?

a)

10

b)

2

c)

36

d)

32

60.

How many ATP does aerobic respiration produce?

a)

10

b)

2

c)

36

d)

32

61.

What are the reactions of photosynthesis, in order?

a)

1. light-dependent reactions 2. Calvin cycle

b)

1. Krebs cycle 2. electron transport chain

c)

1. aerobic reactions 2. anaerobic reactions

d)

1. glucose reactions 2. water reactions

62.

What process can produce energy in oxygen-free environments?

a)

mitosis

b)

photosynthesis

c)

aerobic respiration

d)

anaerobic respiration

63.

What describes the interdependence of photosynthesis and cellular respiration?

a)

the reactants of photosynthesis are the products of cellular respiration

b)

the products of photosynthesis are carbon dioxide and water to be used in cellular respiration

c)

the reactants of photosynthesis are sugar and oxygen to be used in cellular respiration

d)

the products of photosynthesis are the same as the products of cellular respiration

64.

The cell cycle is shown in the diagram. In which stage of the cell cycle does the amount of DNA double?

a)

G₁ Phase

b)

G₂ Phase

c)

M Phase

d)

S Phase

65.

The cell cycle is shown in the diagram. In which stage of the cell cycle is the cell growing and carrying out its normal functions?

a)

G₁ Phase

b)

G₂ Phase

c)

M Phase

d)

S Phase

66.

The cell cycle is shown in the diagram. Which phase indicates the part of the cell cycle in which the cell is preparing for mitosis?

a)

G₁ Phase

b)

S Phase

c)

G₂ Phase

d)

M Phase

67.

When are gametes produced in organisms?

a)

during meiosis

b)

during mitosis

c)

during replication

d)

during transcription

68.

What is the division of the cytoplasm of a cell?

a)

Interphase

b)

S Phase

c)

Cytokinesis

d)

mitosis

69.

How many cells does meiosis produce?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

23

d)

46

70.

How many cells does mitosis produce?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

23

d)

46

71.

The cells meiosis produces are...

a)

diploid

b)

haploid

72.

The cells mitosis produces are...

a)

diploid

b)

haploid

73.

What is meiosis used for?

a)

growth & repair

b)

production of gametes

74.

The cells mitosis produces are...

a)

genetically unique

b)

genetically identical

75.

What is mitosis used for?

a)

growth & repair

b)

production of gametes

76.

The cells meiosis produces are...

a)

genetically unique

b)

genetically identical

77.

What occurs during Prophase I of meiosis to contribute to genetic variation?

a)

crossing over

b)

mutations

c)

DNA replication

d)

separating chromosomes

78.

Which of the following is an example of a homozygous dominant genotype?

a)

DD

b)

aa

c)

Tt

d)

Rr

79.

Which of the following is an example of a homozygous recessive genotype?

a)

DD

b)

aa

c)

Tt

d)

Rr

80.

Which of the following is an example of a heterozygous genotype?

a)

DD

b)

aa

c)

Tt

d)

RR

81.

What is the the physical expression of a trait?

a)

phenotype

b)

genotype

c)

homozygous

d)

heterozygous

82.

Hemophilia is a sex-linked genetic disease. If a male with hemophilia (X^hY) and a homozygous normal female (X^HX^H) have a female child, what is the probability that the child will be a carrier for hemophilia?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

100%

83.

In humans, the allele for having a straight thumb is dominant to the allele for having a curved thumb. A male is homozygous dominant for straight thumbs, and a female has curved thumbs. What is the probability that their offspring has curved thumbs?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

100%

84.

In snapdragons, if white flowers are crossed with red flowers, all the offspring have pink flowers. When two pink snapdragons are crossed, some offspring have white flowers, some have red flowers, and some have pink flowers. Which inheritance pattern do snapdragon flowers exhibit?

a)

sex-linked trait

b)

polygenic trait

c)

incomplete dominance

d)

codominance

85.

Baldness is the loss of human hair on the head and is a recessive sex-linked trait. A male with the recessive genotype and a female heterozygous for the genotype have children. What is the probability that a child will inherit the baldness trait?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

100%

86.

The gene for flower color in some plants displays incomplete dominance. In one plant species, the genotypes (RR) yield red petals, (WW) yield white petals, and (RW) yield pink flowers. What is the probability a cross between two plants heterozygous for flower color produce pink-flowering offspring?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

87.

What pattern of inheritance is shown in this pedigree?

a)

polygenic

b)

codominance

c)

autosomal dominant

d)

sex-linked recessive

88.

What type of inheritance pattern does the pedigree display?

a)

autosomal dominant

b)

autosomal recessive

c)

sex-linked dominant

d)

sex-linked recessive

89.

What type of inheritance pattern does the pedigree display?

a)

autosomal dominant

b)

autosomal recessive

c)

sex-linked dominant

d)

sex-linked recessive

90.

A guinea pig breeder owns a pure-breeding black male (BB) and a pure-breeding white female (WW). Guinea pig fur color is determined by codominance. What is the probability that the offspring from these two guinea pigs will be spotted black and white?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

91.

What type of inheritance is displayed in the pedigree?

a)

autosomal recessive

b)

autosomal dominance

c)

sex-linked recessive

d)

sex-linked dominant

92.

What is the genetic makeup for a trait?

a)

probability

b)

genotype

c)

phenotype

d)

dominance

93.

A black feathered chicken and a white feathered chicken mate. The gene for coloring of chickens is inherited via codominance. What color will the heterozygous offspring be?

a)

white

b)

black

c)

grey

d)

black & white speckled

94.

If one strand of DNA has the following sequence, what will the sequence of the complimentary DNA strand be?

ATC GCA CGT

a)

TAG CGT GCA

b)

ATC GCA CGT

c)

UAG CGU GCA

d)

GCT ATG TAC

95.

If one strand of DNA has the following sequence, what will the sequence of the mRNA strand be?

ATC GCA CGT

a)

TAG CGT GCA

b)

ATC GCA CGT

c)

UAG CGU GCA

d)

GCT ATG TAC

96.

What do the arrows in a food chain or food web represent?

a)

the flow of energy

b)

common ancestors

c)

populations

d)

neighboring species

97.

Which trophic level receives the least amount of original energy found in the producers?

a)

primary consumer- trophic level 2

b)

secondary consumer- trophic level 3

c)

tertiary consumer- trophic level 3

d)

quaternary consumer- trophic level 4

98.

Which trophic level receives the greatest amount of original energy found in the producers?

a)

primary consumer- trophic level 2

b)

secondary consumer- trophic level 3

c)

tertiary consumer- trophic level 3

d)

quaternary consumer- trophic level 4

99.

What percent of energy is transferred from one trophic level to the next?

a)

100%

b)

20%

c)

90%

d)

10%

100.

How does phosphate get added into the phosphorous cycle (where the greatest amount of phosphorous is found)?

a)

by the atmosphere

b)

by oceans

c)

by rock

d)

by plants

101.

Where does nitrogen fixation (a process by which nitrogen in the Earth's atmosphere is converted into ammonia, nitrates, or nitrites) in the nitrogen cycle?

a)

in the atmosphere

b)

by bacteria in the soil

c)

through digestion

d)

in the leaves of plants

102.

Humans burn fossil fuels, which causes the greatest amount of impact on which biogeochemical cycle?

a)

phosphorus cycle

b)

water cycle

c)

nitrogen cycle

d)

carbon cycle

103.

What is an organism that has to consume other organisms to obtain energy?

a)

producer

b)

heterotroph

c)

autotroph

d)

species

104.

What type of organism can automatically produce its own food and thus energy from sunlight or chemical energy?

a)

heterotroph

b)

consumer

c)

autotroph

d)

carnivore

105.

What types of organisms are found at trophic level 1?

a)

producers

b)

primary consumers

c)

secondary consumers

d)

tertiary consumers

106.

Why does only 10% of energy transfer from one trophic level to the next?

a)

the remainder is lost as heat

b)

the organism keeps some of it for itself

c)

the predator only eats 10% of the prey

d)

because Ms. Gleason said so

107.

What type of substrate does primary succession start with?

a)

rock

b)

soil

108.

What type of substrate does secondary succession start with?

a)

rock

b)

soil

109.

What pioneer species is found in primary succession?

a)

evergreen trees

b)

wildflowers

c)

lichen

d)

shrubs & bushes

110.

What would happen if the harvester ants became extinct?

a)

the mesquite bush would increase and the horned lizard would decrease

b)

the horned lizard would increase and the mesquite bush would decrease

c)

the snake would increase and the hawk would decrease

d)

the hawk would increase and the mesquite bush would decrease

111.

What shared derived characteristic do amphibians and crocodiles have in common?

a)

four limbs

b)

amniotic egg

c)

hair

d)

pre-orbital fenestra

112.

What form of evolution occurs when one species diverges into multiple descendant species?

a)

divergent evolution

b)

convergent evolution

113.

What form of evolution occurs when species have different ancestral origins but have developed similar features?

a)

divergent evolution

b)

convergent evolution

114.

What is an effect of evolution in which a new species is produced?

a)

speciation

b)

genetic drift

c)

nonrandom mating

d)

natural selection

115.

What is a mechanism of evolution where organisms better adapted to their environment tend to survive and produce more offspring?

a)

speciation

b)

genetic drift

c)

nonrandom mating

d)

natural selection

116.

What is a mechanism of evolution in which allele frequencies of a population change over generations due to chance?

a)

speciation

b)

genetic drift

c)

nonrandom mating

d)

natural selection

117.

Which species is most closely related?

a)

1 & 3

b)

2 &4

c)

2 & 3

d)

1 & 4

118.

What is a copying process by which a cell duplicates its DNA?

a)

Translation

b)

DNA replication

c)

Base pairing

d)

Transcription

119.

What is the primary function of DNA in organisms?

a)

binds to specific active sites

b)

stores genetic information

c)

transports amino acids to the ribosomes

d)

divides the chromosomes in mitosis

120.

What is the purpose of transcription?

a)

to make a copy of DNA for cellular division

b)

to copy DNA into mRNA

c)

to remove unnecessary information from DNA

d)

to build a protein from a long chain of amino acids

121.

What is the purpose of translation?

a)

to make a copy of DNA for cellular division

b)

to copy DNA into mRNA

c)

to remove unnecessary information from DNA

d)

to build a protein from a long chain of amino acids

122.

In what stage of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur?

a)

G1

b)

G2

c)

M

d)

S

123.

What is the function of messenger RNA?

a)

copies DNA's code in the nucleus and carries the genetic information to the ribosomes

b)

transfers amino acids to the ribosomes to help synthesize proteins

c)

makes up the ribosome

d)

holds the genetic information of a eukaryotic organism in the nucleus of all cells

124.

What is the function of transfer RNA?

a)

copies DNA's code in the nucleus and carries the genetic information to the ribosomes

b)

transfers amino acids to the ribosomes to help synthesize proteins

c)

makes up the ribosome

d)

holds the genetic information of a eukaryotic organism in the nucleus of all cells

125.

If the mRNA reads AUG CAG UGA what is the amino acid sequence?

a)

Methionine, Glutamine, Stop

b)

Methionine, Threonine, Stop

c)

Methionine, Histidine, Tryptophan

d)

Leucine, Histidine, Tryptophan

126.

What is a chromosomal duplication?

a)

involves the loss of all or part of a chromosome

b)

produces extra copies of all or part of a chromosome

c)

a reversal of the direction of parts of chromosomes

d)

part of one chromosome breaks off and attaches to another

127.

What is a chromosomal deletion?

a)

involves the loss of all or part of a chromosome

b)

produces extra copies of all or part of a chromosome

c)

a reversal of the direction of parts of chromosomes

d)

part of one chromosome breaks off and attaches to another

128.

What is a chromosomal inversion?

a)

involves the loss of all or part of a chromosome

b)

produces extra copies of all or part of a chromosome

c)

a reversal of the direction of parts of chromosomes

d)

part of one chromosome breaks off and attaches to another

129.

What is a chromosomal translocation?

a)

involves the loss of all or part of a chromosome

b)

produces extra copies of all or part of a chromosome

c)

a reversal of the direction of parts of chromosomes

d)

part of one chromosome breaks off and attaches to another

130.

What is a deletion point mutation?

a)

one base replaces another in a base sequence

b)

an extra base is inserted into a base sequence

c)

a single base is lost in a base sequence

d)

part of one chromosome breaks off and attaches to another

131.

What is an insertion point mutation?

a)

one base replaces another in a base sequence

b)

an extra base is inserted into a base sequence

c)

a single base is lost in a base sequence

d)

part of one chromosome breaks off and attaches to another

132.

What is a substitution point mutation?

a)

one base replaces another in a base sequence

b)

an extra base is inserted into a base sequence

c)

a single base is lost in a base sequence

d)

part of one chromosome breaks off and attaches to another

COMPLETE EOC REVIEW

Total questions: 132

Worksheet time: 1hrs 7mins

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