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EOG Review - Hydrosphere and Chemistry

Total questions: 153

Worksheet time: 2hrs 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The pH of water is an indicator of its

a)

acidity

b)

saltiness

c)

color

d)

cloudiness

2.

Homes that are not connected to sewers dispose of household waste by using a(n)

a)

aquifer

b)

well

c)

septic system

d)

reservoir

3.

A particular source of identifiable water pollution is called

a)

runoff

b)

point source

c)

nonpoint source

d)

sewage

4.

Which of the followings is NOT a common source of fresh drinking water?

a)

rivers

b)

glaciers

c)

reservoirs

d)

aquifers

5.

Pure drinking water has a pH of

a)

0

b)

14

c)

7

d)

10

6.

An area of contamination within an aquifer is called a

a)

point

b)

nonpoint

c)

well

d)

plume

7.

What effect does temperature have on water's ability to hold oxygen?

a)

high temp = high oxygen

b)

no effect

c)

low temp = low oxygen

d)

high temp = low oxygen

8.

What bioindicators are present in a healthy water system?

a)

very few species of living organisms

b)

many different species of living organisms

c)

no species of living organisms

d)

water health is unrelated to living organisms

9.

How do excess nitrates and phosphates affect North Carolina water?

a)

algae growth is high

b)

algae growth is low

c)

algae growth is unaffected

d)

algae won't grow at all

10.

Which is the most accessible source of fresh water for North Carolinians?

a)

an estuary

b)

an ice cap

c)

an intertidal zone

d)

an aquifer

11.

Why is it safe to bathe in certain water, but it is not safe to drink that water?

a)

the water is potable, but not safe

b)

the water is both safe and potable

c)

the water is safe, but not potable

d)

the water is neither safe nor potable

12.

_____ turbidity increases the absorption of sunlight, making water warmer.

a)

High

b)

Low

c)

Medium

d)

all of the above

13.

_____ is/are often used to describe the variety of life found in an ecosystem.

a)

Biodiversity

b)

Animals

c)

Organisms

d)

Life forms

14.

The algal bloom in the farm pond is a result of the _____ from the fertilizer.

a)

acid

b)

contaminants

c)

phosphates

d)

nitrates

15.

What obstacles do deep ocean explorers have to overcome?

a)

extreme heat and pressure

b)

high pressure and high temperatures

c)

high pressure and cold temperatures

d)

high temperatures and low pressure

16.

What process brings deep ocean nutrients to the surface?

a)

tidal changes

b)

upwelling

c)

waves

d)

downwelling

17.

What two gases found in the ocean are required for life?

a)

oxygen and carbon dioxide

b)

hydrogen and carbon dioxide

c)

oxygen and carbon monoxide

d)

hydrogen and carbon monoxide

18.

Most waves are caused by the _____.

a)

tides

b)

currents

c)

wind

d)

coriolis effect

19.

_____ use(s) sound waves to calculate distance and map the ocean floor.

a)

SONAR

b)

radar

c)

x-rays

d)

thermal imaging

20.

Which ocean zone is closest to shore?

a)

neritic

b)

intertidal

c)

benthic

d)

abyssal

21.

The _____ zone makes up the top 200 meters of water in the ocean.

a)

aphotic

b)

benthic

c)

neritic

d)

photic

22.

_____ _____ is the most abundant type of salt in the ocean.

a)

Potassium sulfate

b)

Calcium carbonate

c)

Sodium chloride

d)

Sodium sulfate

23.

Approximately what percentage of the Earth's water is fresh?

a)

3%

b)

71%

c)

80%

d)

10%

24.

A body of water that serves as storage for human consumption is called a _____.

a)

stream

b)

river

c)

septic system

d)

reservoir

25.

Most deep ocean currents are caused by _____.

a)

tidal cycles

b)

ocean life

c)

differences in density

d)

wind

26.

The greatest amount of fresh water on the Earth is located in ____.

a)

glaciers and ice caps

b)

the Great Lakes

c)

aquifers

d)

the Amazon River

27.

Worldwide, where is most water wasted?

a)

industry

b)

agriculture

c)

towns and cities

d)

power plants

28.

_____ has the greatest effect on the temperature of the water.

a)

pH

b)

dissolved oxygen

c)

turbidity

d)

carbon dioxide levels

29.

What percentage of the Earth's surface is covered with water?

a)

75%

b)

70%

c)

80%

d)

90%

30.

By mass, what percentage of ocean water is salt?

a)

3.50%

b)

1.50%

c)

2.50%

d)

10%

31.

Which of the following is the best example of point source pollution?

a)

runoff from farms and fields

b)

pesticides sprayed into the air

c)

chemical company dumping waste into the river

d)

smoke from tire factories

32.

What chemical is used during water treatment to kill bacteria?

a)

chloride

b)

fluorine

c)

fluoride

d)

chlorine

33.

What is the purpose of a pH meter?

a)

monitors the temperature of water

b)

monitors the salinity of water

c)

monitors the turbidity of water

d)

monitors acid levels of water

34.

_____ do not have a definite shape, but they do have a definite volume.

a)

gases

b)

solids

c)

liquids

35.

A physical property of metals is they are ductile. This means metals

a)

are shiny.

b)

can be made into wire.

c)

conduct electricity.

d)

can be made into thin sheets.

36.

During the process of sublimation,

a)

a solid turns directly into a gas

b)

a solid turns into a liquid.

c)

a gas turns into a solid.

d)

a liquid turns into a gas.

37.

If you describe methane as a gas that easily catches fire, you are describing a

a)

state of matter.

b)

physical property.

c)

chemical formula.

d)

chemical property.

38.

An example of a chemical change is

a)

filtering liquids

b)

burning wood

c)

tearing paper

d)

crushing a can

39.

One example of a physical change is

a)

burning paper

b)

baking cookies

c)

salt dissolving in water

d)

metal rusting

40.

The elements in a column on the periodic table

a)

have the same atomic mass

b)

are in the same period

c)

have similar chemical symbols

d)

have similar properties

41.

On the periodic table, what indicates the number of protons in an atom?

a)

the element's atomic number

b)

the position of the element in the column

c)

the element's atomic mass

d)

the element's chemical symbol

42.

Which elements share characteristics of metals and nonmetals?

a)

salts

b)

metalloids

c)

halogens

d)

alloys

43.

The elements that do not ordinarily form compounds (LEAST reactive) are elements in the

a)

carbon family

b)

metal group

c)

halogens

d)

noble gases

44.

Which of the following elements is MOST reactive?

a)

alkali metals

b)

alkaline earth metals

c)

noble gases

d)

transition metals

45.

Which statement is TRUE about the formula 4CO?

a)

There are 4 molecules of CO

b)

There are 4 atoms of CO

c)

There is 1 molecule of CO

d)

We cannot tell from this formula

46.

The substances listed on the left side of a chemical equation are called

a)

products

b)

coefficients

c)

precipitates

d)

reactants

47.

If 20g of sodium combine with 20g of chlorine to form sodium chloride, how much sodium chloride will be in the product?

a)

10g sodium chloride

b)

20g sodium chloride

c)

40g sodium chloride

d)

not enough information

48.

Where are the metals found on the periodic table?

a)

to the left of the stair step line

b)

to the right of the stair step line

c)

in the center of the periodic table

d)

along the bottom of the periodic table

49.

Which describes an exothermic reaction?

a)

There is no change in energy.

b)

Energy is absorbed.

c)

Energy is released.

50.

J.B. is conducting an experiment inside a flask, with a balloon on top to keep the gases in. Which of these is true about his experiment?

a)

It is an example of a closed system.

b)

It is an example of an open system.

c)

It is an example of an isolated system.

d)

It is an example of a loop system.

51.

The Law of Conservation of Matter states that

a)

matter can be created and destroyed in a chemical reaction.

b)

matter cannot be created or destroyed in a chemical reaction.

c)

matter can only be created in a chemical reaction.

d)

matter can only be destroyed in a chemical reaction.

52.

Which type of matter can be separated by physical means?

a)

atoms

b)

elements

c)

compounds

d)

mixtures

53.

An element is identified by

a)

the number of protons.

b)

the atomic mass.

c)

its isotopes.

d)

its valence electrons.

54.

Which of the following is an example of a compound?

a)

iron

b)

water

c)

chlorine

d)

sodium

55.

Which best describes a heterogeneous mixture?

a)

it only contains one type of atom

b)

it is composed of two or more elements

c)

it contains two or more particles, which are easily distinguished

d)

it is composed of two or more particles, which are evenly blended

56.

Which is a substance that is held together by chemical bonds?

a)

element

b)

compound

c)

mixture

d)

solution

57.

Which of these are considered pure substances?

a)

elements and compounds

b)

mixtures and solutions

c)

mixtures and compounds

d)

elements and solutions

58.

According to the Law of Conservation of Matter, the number of _____ is NOT changed by a chemical reaction.

a)

bonds

b)

molecules

c)

atoms

d)

charges

59.

What is the role of a catalyst during a chemical reaction?

a)

increases the rate

b)

decreases the rate

c)

does not affect the rate

d)

increases the temperature

60.

What determines how elements combine with other elements to form compounds?

a)

malleability of the element

b)

origin of the element

c)

the number and arrangement of protons in an atom

d)

the number and arrangement of valence electrons in an atom

61.

To calculate the atomic mass of an element, you must

a)

add protons and electrons

b)

add neutrons and electrons

c)

add protons and neutrons

d)

subtract protons from neutrons

62.

Which subatomic particles are found in the nucleus of an atom?

a)

electrons and protons

b)

electrons and neutrons

c)

protons and neutrons

d)

protons, neutrons, and electrons

63.

Which of the following is not considered a subatomic particle that composes an atom?

a)

Proton

b)

Neutron

c)

Molecule

d)

Electron

64.

Which is the best description of the Periodic Table of Elements?

a)

Elements are grouped in columns based on their properties

b)

Elements are randomly placed into columns

c)

Elements are listed in descending order of their atomic mass

d)

The Periodic Table constantly changes

65.

Which gives an accurate description of the varying states of matter?

a)

Solids are tightly packed with fast moving atoms whereas gases are loosely packed with slow moving atoms

b)

Solids are loosely packed with fast moving atoms whereas gases are tightly packed with slow moving atoms

c)

Solids are tightly packed with slow moving atoms whereas gases are loosely packed with fast moving atoms

d)

Solids are loosely packed with slow moving atoms whereas gases are tightly packed with fast moving atoms

66.

Homogeneous mixtures are best classified as

a)

Mixtures that are composed of many differently sized parts

b)

Mixtures that are uniform throughout

c)

Mixtures that have changed chemical properties

d)

Mixtures that can never be separated

67.

Which best describes the relationship of elements and compounds?

a)

Compounds are made up of varying elements

b)

Elements are made up of varying compounds

c)

Sometimes elements make up compounds and sometimes compounds make up elements

d)

There is no relationship between elements and compounds

68.

Which of the following would most likely be identified as a base?

a)

A substance that is sour and has a pH of less than 7

b)

A substance that is sour and has a pH of greater than 7

c)

A substance that is bitter and has a pH of less than 7

d)

A substance that is bitter and has a pH of greater than 7

69.

The Law of Conservation of Matter states that

a)

Matter cannot be created or destroyed in a chemical reaction

b)

Matter can only be destroyed in a chemical reaction if it involves combustion

c)

Matter usually will not be destroyed in a chemical reaction

d)

The number of atoms of each element is always different in the products than in the reactants

70.

Which two elements most likely share the same physical properties?

a)

F and Fe

b)

Ne and Xe

c)

Au and K

d)

H and He

71.

Which is the best example of a pure substance?

a)

Ag

b)

Salt water

c)

Air

d)

Salad dressing

72.

Which is the best example of a heterogeneous mixture?

a)

Ag

b)

Salt water

c)

Air

d)

Salad

73.

Sodium and chlorine combine to form table salt, or NaCl. Which best describes the role of NaCl?

a)

NaCl is a product of that reaction

b)

NaCl is a reactant of that reaction

c)

NaCl is the catalyst that allows the reaction to occur

d)

NaCl is simply a mixture of Na and Cl that can be physically separated

74.

Which best describes a physical property?

a)

Can be observed only by changing the kind of matter studied

b)

Can be observed without changing the kind of matter studied

c)

Can only be observed during a chemical reaction

d)

Can only be observed after a chemical reaction

75.

Which best describes a chemical bond?

a)

Electrons are shared or transferred between atoms in a solution

b)

Protons are shared or transferred between atoms in a solution

c)

Electrons are shared or transferred between atoms in a compound

d)

Protons are shared or transferred between atoms in a compound

76.

Which is the correct formula for glucose?

a)

H2O2

b)

NaCl

c)

C6H12O6

d)

C12H22O11

77.

The atomic number of an element is equal to its number of

a)

Electrons

b)

Protons

c)

Neutrons

d)

Nuclei

78.

Which is the best example of a chemical property?

a)

Ability to react with oxygen

b)

Melting point

c)

Density

d)

Color

79.

Which is the best example of a physical property?

a)

Ability to react with oxygen

b)

Ability to react with an acid

c)

Boiling point

d)

None of the above

80.

Is a combustion reaction reversible?

a)

Yes, because the molecules can be rearranged

b)

Yes, because it is a physical change

c)

No, because it is a chemical change in which the atoms have been rearranged

d)

No, because it is a physical change only

81.

A solution has a pH of 7. Which best describes that solution?

a)

Acidic

b)

Basic

c)

Heterogeneous

d)

Neutral

82.

Which best explains a balanced equation?

a)

The number of atoms of elements in the products should equal that of the reactants

b)

The number of compounds in the products should equal that of the reactants

c)

The number of molecules in the products should equal that of the reactants

d)

Equations are nearly impossible to balance

83.

Which state of matter is capable of infinite expansion?

a)

Solid

b)

Liquid

c)

Gas

d)

None of the above

84.

Which of the following best describes a molecule?

a)

The smallest unit of an element

b)

A unit of a compound composed of 2 or more atoms of an element

c)

The smallest unit of life

d)

A physical mixture of two atoms

85.

Density is best defined as

a)

Amount of mass per unit volume

b)

An object’s weight

c)

Ability to react with an acid

d)

A chemical property

86.

A substance has a pH of 5. Which is the most accurate statement about that substance?

a)

It is a strong base

b)

It is a weak base

c)

It is a strong acid

d)

It is a weak acid

87.

A chemical reaction gives off heat. How can it be classified?

a)

Basic

b)

Acidic

c)

Endothermic

d)

Exothermic

88.
 Which would most likely result in an unhealthy aquatic habitat?
a)
a decrease in turbidity
b)
a decrease in nitrates levels
c)
an increase in water temperature
d)
an increase in dissolved oxygen levels
89.
 Which would most likely result in an unhealthy aquatic habitat?
a)
a decrease in turbidity
b)
a decrease in nitrates levels
c)
an increase in water temperature
d)
an increase in dissolved oxygen levels
90.
In which part of the ocean do the greatest number of organisms live?
a)
in the deep zone to escape predators
b)
 near the shore to burrow in the sand
c)
close to the surface to be near the largest food source
d)
in the open ocean to regulate their bodies in cooler temperatures
91.
Which technological tool uses a sound echo to measure distance?
a)
sonar 
b)
submarine 
c)
ocean buoy
d)
robotic probe
92.
Why might countries bordering the Pacific ocean have problems getting enough water to meet the needs of their citizens?
a)
The water is too cold to use. 
b)
Removing salt from the water is too expensive and impractical.
c)
There are more people in the countries than the water can nourish.
93.
Which is the best way to conserve water?
a)
Take a daily bath rather than a shower. 
b)
Wash several small loads of clothing rather than a few large ones
c)
Use the dishwasher only for small loads rather than for large loads.
d)
Install low-flow toilets that reduce the amount of water being flushed. 
94.
Why do large numbers of ocean life-forms live near areas of upwelling?
a)
Upwelling brings nutrients to the surface.
b)
Upwelling brings warm water to the surface
c)
Upwelling helps push small fish up toward the surface
d)
D. Upwelling keeps large predator fish away from the surface
95.
Which of the following could occur as the result of runoff of high nitrogen fertilizers from farmlands near a lake?
a)
an increase in algae growth resulting in low oxygen levels in the lake
b)
a decrease in mineral storage reducing carbon levels of the lake
c)
a decrease in pollution resulting in lower ozone levels in the lake area 
d)
an increase in deforestation reducing animal populations in the lake area
96.
Where does most fresh water exist? 
a)
ice caps, lakes, and streams 
b)
glaciers, rivers, and oceans 
c)
aquifers, ice caps, and glaciers
97.
Which is the main source of dissolved oxygen in a body of water? 
a)
erosion 
b)
the atmosphere
c)
volcanic eruptions
98.
Which can households do to help the local wastewater treatment facility function properly? 
a)
put food waste in a composter instead of in the trash
b)
dispose of cooking oil and grease in the kitchen sink 
c)
. flush only human waste and toilet paper down the toilet
d)
volunteer to help operate the treatment plant once a month 
99.
Which would most likely cause a sudden increase of nitrates in a waterway?
a)
spill from an oil tanker
b)
runoff from a boat yard
c)
runoff from a golf course
d)
discharge from a chemical plant
100.
Which is an unlikely source of water for a river basin?
a)
melting snow 
b)
ocean water 
c)
melting ice 
101.
Of the 74% of Earth’s surface that is covered in water, which contains the most water? 
a)
lakes 
b)
rivers 
c)
oceans 
d)
streams 
102.
Which is Earth’s largest source of drinkable water?
a)
lakes 
b)
rivers 
c)
oceans 
d)
aquifers 
103.
If a large amount of fertilizer enters a lake, which will most likely happen?
a)
The fish population in the lake will increase. 
b)
The temperature of the lake water will increase. 
c)
The number of fish dying in the lake will increase. 
d)
The available food supply for the fish in the lake will increase. 
104.
Which most likely has the highest number of contaminants in the water?
a)
a water system with moderate turbidity
b)
a water system with high turbidity
c)
a water system with low turbidity
d)
a water system with no turbidity
105.
Fish tank owners will often add ammonia to the tank to increase the nitrate levels. If too much ammonia is added, what might occur?
a)
Algae growth will stop, and oxygen will not be produced. 
b)
Algae growth will increase, causing oxygen levels to increase. 
c)
Algae growth will increase, causing oxygen levels to decrease. 
d)
Algae growth will decrease, causing oxygen levels to decrease. 
106.
How does the use of a pH meter help monitor the hydrosphere? 
a)
by indicating whether the water is too acidic or basic
b)
by indicating if there is too much sediment in the water 
c)
by indicating whether microorganisms are living in the water
d)
by indicating if there is enough dissolved oxygen in the water
107.
Which best describes the water in an estuary?
a)
brackish 
b)
frozen 
c)
fresh 
d)
salt 
108.
Which would result if annual rainfall amounts were reduced by 50%? 
a)
a flood
b)
a surplus 
c)
a drought 
d)
a monsoon
109.
Which is the most likely result of an increase in the level of nitrates in a body of water?
a)
increase in turbidity
b)
increase in plant growth 
c)
. increase in fish population 
d)
increase in water temperature
110.
Which chemical elements in fertilizers pollute stormwater runoff and contribute to excessive plant growth in a water system?
a)
iron and lead
b)
copper and zinc 
c)
calcium and magnesium 
d)
phosphorous and nitrogen
111.
Which is most likely indicated by the presence of many dead fish on a coastal shoreline? 
a)
higher tides 
b)
ocean pollution 
c)
stronger currents
d)
heavy inland winds 
112.
Which is the most important reason for maintaining clean water?
a)
Energy cannot be generated without water.
b)
Organisms cannot live and grow without water. 
c)
 Goods cannot be transported easily without water.
d)
People cannot maintain proper hygiene without water. 
113.
Which is one way people can help prevent the pollution of lakes and rivers?
a)
by controlling soil erosion around lakes and rivers 
b)
by clearing land around lakes and rivers to build homes
c)
by limiting the amount of fish caught in lakes and rivers
d)
by creating hiking and biking trails along lakes and rivers
114.
Which will most likely happen to a biological indicator species if there is a sudden increase in pollution? 
a)
There will be a significant increase in the population numbers and the quality of the individuals. 
b)
There will be a significant decrease in the population numbers and the quality of the individuals. 
c)
The biological indicator species will reproduce at lower rates, which will maintain population numbers.
d)
The biological indicator species will reproduce at higher rates, which will maintain population numbers. 
115.
 Which best describes the importance of an aquifer?
a)
 It holds uncontaminated ground water for human consumption. 
b)
It supplies all water for lakes and rivers. 
c)
It provides water for oceans. 
116.
 Which is an incorrect order of the water cycle? 
a)
evaporation condensation precipitation
b)
evaporation precipitation condensation
c)
 precipitation evaporation condensation
117.
How might fertilizer runoff from a soybean field affect the quality of water in the farm pond? 
a)
It increases the pH level.
b)
It decreases the overall water temperature. 
c)
It promotes algae growth, which lowers the oxygen level in the pond
d)
It decreases the turbidity, which lowers the amount of particles in the pond. 
118.
What would most likely happen to the entire ocean food web if plankton were not available?
a)
All organisms that live in the ocean would not survive.
b)
The organisms would adapt and find another source of food. 
c)
Only whales and other large ocean mammals would be affected.
119.
Why are upwellings in the ocean essential for some organisms to survive? 
a)
because many animals need low-tide conditions each day
b)
because currents carry predators away from the surface
c)
because the warm water kills bacteria before it can harm plankton
d)
because needed nutrients and dissolved gases are brought into new areas 
120.
The EPA (Environmental Protection Agency) regulates the level of turbidity in drinking water to protect public health. The EPA sets the limit at 0.3 NTU (Nephelometric Turbidity Units). The data below shows the turbidity level of four samples taken from the same location over four consecutive days. 
Based on the data, which best explains the quality of the drinking water?
a)
The drinking water is safe because the first two samples are belowthe recommended limit.
b)
The drinking water is unsafe because the last two samples are above the recommended limit.
c)
The drinking water is unsafe because the last two samples are below the recommended limit. 
d)
The drinking water is safe because the average of the samples is below the recommended limit. 
121.
The water cycle describes the movement of the water of Earth. About 96% of the water of Earth is the salt water found in the oceans while the remaining 4% is fresh water. Where would the majority of the freshwater on Earth be found? 
a)
groundwater and aquifers 
b)
swamps and wetlands
c)
ice caps and glaciers
d)
lakes and rivers
122.
 Where is the majority of Earth’s freshwater found? 
a)
polar ice caps
b)
rivers 
c)
ponds 
d)
lakes 
123.
 Which best explains why a scientist would use nets to capture and count organisms in a river? 
a)
to measure pH 
b)
to measure turbidity
c)
to measure biodiversity
d)
to measure temperature 
124.
Which is most likely an example of point source pollution?
a)
fertilizer sprayed onto a field
b)
water runoff from a city street
c)
a pipe flowing into a river
125.
 In many communities, a network of pipes called sanitary sewers carries sewage away to
a)
wastewater treatment plants
b)
desalination plants
c)
irrigation systems. 
d)
hydroelectric power plants
126.
 An example of how living things can help clean up polluted water is
a)
driving more gas-powered vehicles
b)
allowing the rock in an aquifer to naturally purify groundwater
c)
avoiding using fertilizers on lawns or gardens.
d)
 adding oil-eating bacteria to water polluted by an oil spill.
127.
 Pesticides are most likely to be found in runoff from
a)
roads. 
b)
farm fields.
c)
homes. 
d)
factories. 
128.
Specific sources of pollution that can be identified are called
a)
point sources.
b)
nonpoint sources
c)
runoff. 
d)
sewage.
129.
Which pair of elements has the most similar properties?
a)
Li and B
b)
I and Ca
c)
K and He
d)
N and P
130.
Which statement best explains how periods on the periodic table are organized?
a)
increasing atomic number from left to right
b)
increasing number of neutrons from left to right
c)
decreasing number of electrons from left to right
d)
decreasing atomic mass number from left to right
131.
Where are the most reactive metals located on the periodic table?
a)
the uppermost complete row of the table
b)
the rows at the bottom of the table connecting two section
c)
the column at the far left side of the table
d)
the second column from the right side of the table
132.
Sodium reacts with water. Which element is most likely to have a similar effect to sodium if it is exposed to water?
a)
carbon
b)
oxygen
c)
lithium
133.
Which elements are most likely to react in the same manner in a chemical reaction?
a)
elements in the same group
b)
elements in the same period
c)
elements with similar atomic masses
134.
If an element has no electrons to share and is stable, what family is it found in?
a)
alkali metals
b)
noble gases
c)
halogens
135.
Why are certain elements placed into the same column on the periodic table?
a)
They have the same number of protons in their nuclei.
b)
They have the same number of electrons in their nuclei.
c)
They have the same number of electrons in their outer energy level.
136.
Which property is unique for each element?
a)
mass number
b)
atomic number
c)
state of matter
137.
Which subatomic particles determine the reactivity of groups of elements in the periodic table?
a)
electrons
b)
neutrons
c)
protons
138.
Which elements would have similar properties to those of potassium?
a)
lithium and sodium
b)
bromine and krypton
c)
calcium and scandium
139.
Where on the periodic table are you most likely to find elements that do not react with other elements?
a)
group 1
b)
group 17
c)
group 18
140.
Which element is in the same family as chlorine (Cl) and fluorine (F)?
a)
hydrogen (H)
b)
lithium (Li)
c)
oxygen (O)
d)
bromine (Br)
141.
On the periodic table, in which group is the metalloid silicon found?
a)
Group 3
b)
Group 14
c)
Group 15
142.
A scientist creates a new synthetic element in a laboratory.
Where would the new element most likely be placed on the periodic table?
a)
near the top
b)
near the bottom
c)
on the far left side
d)
on the far right side
143.
Which best describes a row of elements in the periodic table?
a)
column
b)
family
c)
group
d)
period
144.
Which best describes how the current periodic table is arranged?
a)
by atomic mass
b)
by atomic number
c)
in alphabetical order by element symbol
d)
in numerical order by number of neutrons in the nucleus
145.
Which is a property of metalloids?
a)
the ability to be pulled into long wires
b)
the ability to be hammered into sheets
c)
the ability to be a liquid at room temperature
d)
the ability to conduct electricity under certain conditions
146.
If a chemical reaction such as photosynthesis begins with 6 atoms of carbon (C), how many atoms of carbon (C) should be in the products?
a)
12 atoms of carbon (C)
b)
6 atoms of carbon (C)
c)
3 atoms of carbon (C)
d)
2 atoms of carbon (C)
147.
Which best explains why the total mass of the product(s) would be less than the total weight of the reactant(s) after a chemical reaction?
a)
A physical change occurred.
b)
Atoms involved in the reaction lost mass.
c)
Precipitates were created in the new solution.
d)
Gases were released to the atmosphere.
148.
How does a balanced chemical equation satisfy the Law of Conservation of Mass?
a)
During a chemical reaction, the total amount of matter stays the same.
b)
During a chemical reaction, matter is destroyed.
c)
During a chemical reaction, one or more new substances are formed.
d)
During a chemical reaction, the total number of atoms increases.
149.
What coefficient for O2 demonstrates the law of conservation of mass?
CH4(g) + __O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(g)
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
150.
Which is best represented by the equation?
2Mg + O2 → 2MgO
a)
Law of Conservation of Energy
b)
Law of Conservation of Mass
c)
Law of Superposition
151.
What is the importance of a closed container in a chemical reaction?
a)
to observe the mass before and after the reaction occurs
b)
to keep any materials from interfering with the reaction
c)
to observe the loss of mass after the reaction occurs
152.
Which best represents a balanced equation?
a)
120 grams of carbon plus 20 grams of oxygen → 200 grams of carbondioxide
b)
120 grams of carbon plus 50 grams of oxygen → 200 grams of carbondioxide
c)
120 grams of carbon plus 80 grams of oxygen → 200 grams of carbondioxide
153.
Which equation is balanced according to the Law of Conservation of Mass?
a)
NaCl + Mg →
 MgCl2 + Na
b)
2NaCl + Mg → MgCl2 + Na
c)
2NaCl + Mg →
MgCl2 + 2Na

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