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Organic Medicinal Chemistry I

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 25hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following are progestins;

a)

Norethindrone

b)

Testosterone

c)

Ethynodiol diacetate

d)

Progesterone

2.

Aspirin to salicylic acid as to morphine is to;

a)

Codeine

b)

Methadone

c)

Heroin

d)

Pentazocine

3.

The functional group of pyridoxinde

a)

ROH

b)

RCOOH

c)

RCOR

d)

NH2

4.

Ascorbic acid and tetracycline are;

a)

Enols

b)

Esters

c)

Ethers

d)

Amines

5.

ENOLS- "alkenols" an alkene with -OH group attached to one end of the alkene double bond

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

6.

MAO is classified as a/an;

a)

Enzyme

b)

Protein inhibitor

c)

Complexing agents

d)

Hormone

7.

When used in pharmaceutic preparations, the purpose of hydroquinone, lecithin and alpha tocopherol is;

a)

Humectant

b)

Demelanizing agent

c)

Oil soluble antioxidant

d)

Emulsiifier

8.

Barbiturates containing a sulfur atom are usually;

a)

Short acting

b)

Intermediate acting

c)

Long acting

d)

Ultra short acting

9.

Ultra short acting (30 seconds) Thiopental

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

10.

Although the prostaglandins are hormone-like, they may closely resemble which of the following chemically?

a)

Enzymes

b)

Porphyrins

c)

Proteins

d)

Lipids

11.

The onset and duration of barbiturates action is mainly a functions of its;

a)

Lipid solubility

b)

Renal excretion

c)

Plasma binding

d)

Method of Administration

12.

Diphenoxylate is a structural analog of ;

a)

Meperidine

b)

Phenytoin

c)

Codeine

d)

Naloxone

13.

Cevitamic acid is;

a)

Folic acid

b)

Ascorbic acid

c)

Nicotinic acid

d)

Glacial acetic acid

14.

Kantrex belongs to this type of antibiotics;

a)

Penicillins

b)

Cephalosphorins

c)

Macrolides

d)

Aminoglycosides

15.

Epinephrine is also known as

a)

Tocopherol

b)

Adrenalin

c)

Emetine

d)

Levarterenol

16.

Of the following penicillin congener, the one with the broadest spectrum of action is;

a)

PenV

b)

Methicillin

c)

Carbenicillin

d)

Oxacillin

17.

Carbenicillin

a)

Carboxypenicillins

b)

Ureidopenicillins

18.

Azlocillin

a)

Carboxypenicillins

b)

Ureidopenicillins

19.

Ticarcillin

a)

Carboxypenicillins

b)

Ureidopenicillins

20.

Ma Huang is a/an;

a)

Imidazole alkaloid

b)

Alkaloid amine

c)

Purine

d)

Steroidal alkaloid

21.

Procaine is a/an;

a)

Amine

b)

Ester

c)

Alcohol

d)

Ketone

22.

The functional group found in codeine and scopolamine is a/an;

a)

Amine

b)

Alcohol

c)

Ester

d)

Ether

23.

DOC for obtaining a stimulating effect of the CNS;

a)

Caffeine

b)

Theophylline

c)

Theobromine

d)

All

24.

Combination type oral contraceptive pill contains;

a)

An androgen and a progestin

b)

An estrogen and progestin

c)

An androgen and estrogen

d)

FSH and LH

25.

Analgesic agent that is used to lessen the severity of labor pains on obstetrics;

a)

Colchicine

b)

Codeine

c)

Apomorphine

d)

Demerol

26.

Vitamin C is extremely important in wound healing. Its pricipal effect is on the ;

a)

Maturation of the osteoblast

b)

Collagen formation

c)

Reduction of inflammation

d)

Epithelial proliferation

27.

CNS depressants with skeletal muscular relaxant;

a)

Metacarbamol

b)

Carisoprodol

c)

Baclofen

d)

Buspirone

e)

Meprobamate

28.

DOC for the treatment of genital herpes being potent against DNA formation;

a)

Symmetrel

b)

Herplex

c)

Acyclovir

d)

Vidarabine

29.

The drug most effective against malarial parasites in the liver but not effective against parasites within erythrocytes;

a)

Primaquine

b)

pyrimethamine

c)

Quinacrine

d)

Chloroquine

30.

Penicllin derivatives that is both acid stable and resistant to penicillinase

a)

Methicillin

b)

Disodium carbenecillin

c)

Oxacillin

d)

Ampicillin

31.

Diuretic that will manifest a competitive inhibition of the action of aldosterone;

a)

Spironolactone

b)

Triamterene

c)

Furosemide

d)

Chlorthiazide

32.

Sulfonamide are metabolized by humas principally by;

a)

Acetylation

b)

Deamination

c)

Oxidation

d)

Methylation

33.

Streptpmycin and other aminoglycosides antibiotics are;

a)

Ototoxic

b)

Carcinogenic

c)

Hyperglycemia

d)

Hepatotoxic

34.

Benzalkonium chloride is a germicidal surfactant which rendered inactive in the presence of;

a)

Organic acid

b)

Gram (-) organism

c)

Soaps

d)

Inorganic soaps

35.

The antipsychotic drug loxapine succinate is a ________ compound;

a)

Phenothiazine

b)

Dibenzoxazepine

c)

Thioxanthene

d)

Benzodiazepine

36.

Diphenoxylate is an agent useful in the treatment of diarrhea. It is structurally similar to;

a)

Kaolin

b)

Meperidine

c)

Pectin

d)

Oxalic acid

37.

Drug used in all types of TB;

a)

Ethambutol

b)

Isoniazid

c)

Streptomycin

d)

Cycloserine

38.

Levarterenol (Levophed);

a)

L-epinephrine

b)

L-norepinephrine

c)

L-dopa

d)

L-ephedrine

39.

The most active aminoglycosides against Mycobacterium tuberculosis is;

a)

Streptomycin

b)

Amikacin

c)

Neomycin

d)

Tobramycin

40.

The most effective in the treatment of Ricketssia, Mycoplasma and Chlamydia infection;

a)

Penicillin G

b)

Tetracycline

c)

Gentamicin

d)

Bacitracin

41.

Which of the following penicillin is resistant to penicillinase?

a)

Polymyxin B

b)

Penicillin G

c)

Dicloxacillin

d)

Streptomycin

42.

Quinolone derivative effective against P. aeruginosa is;

a)

Norfloxacin

b)

Ciprofloxacin

c)

Enoxacin

d)

Ofloxacin

43.

A thiazide diuretics can;

a)

Enhance the action of amphetamines

b)

Antagnonize action of guanethidine

c)

Enhance action of digitalis drugs

d)

Enhance action of oral hypoglycemic

44.

Piperazine citrate, gentian violet, pyrivinium pamoate and thiabendazole are all;

a)

Antihelmintics

b)

Dyes

c)

Scabicide

d)

Anticholinergics

45.

Azidothymidine is used in the treatment of;

a)

Koch's infection

b)

HIV/AIDS

c)

Carbuncle

d)

Ringworm

46.

Class of antibiotic that has a beta lactam ring and thiazolidine ring

a)

Tazobactam

b)

Penicillin

c)

Cephalosphorins

d)

Monobactam

47.

Antibiotic obtained from Streptomyces noursei;

a)

Amphotericin B

b)

Nystatin

c)

Griseofulvin

d)

Clindamycin

48.

The plant containing the anti-cancer drug, vincristine and vinblastine

a)

Mayapple

b)

Periwinkle

c)

European year

d)

Datura alba

49.

Thiabendazole, a benzimidazole derivative is an antihelmintic drug used primarily to treat infections caused by;

a)

Ascaris

b)

Necator americanus

c)

Strongyloides

d)

Taenia saginata

50.

ACE inhibitors are associated with high incidence of which of the ff. adverse reactions

a)

Hepatitis

b)

Proteinuria

c)

Hypokalemia

d)

Hirsutism

51.

Chemotherapeutic agents that has a good penetrability into the cerebrospinal fluid

a)

Sreptomycin

b)

Gentamicin

c)

Tobramycin

d)

Chloramphenicol

52.

Effective administration routes of NTG for angina pectoris include the ff;

a)

Oral

b)

Intavenous

c)

Transdermal

d)

Sublingual

53.

This group is responsible for the bone marrow toxicity of chloramphenicol

a)

NO2 group

b)

NH2 group

c)

OH group

d)

Benzene group

54.

Diazepam is used in the treatment of;

a)

Anxiety

b)

Status epilepticus

c)

Skeletal muscle spasm

d)

Postoperative sedation

e)

Analgesics

55.

Ceftriaxone;

a)

a 3rd Gen cephalosphorins

b)

resistant to beta-lactamase

c)

administered parentally

d)

once daily dosing

e)

resistant to acid

56.

Substances present in the opium;

a)

Thebaine

b)

Codeine

c)

Morphine

d)

Papaverine

e)

Methadone

57.

Antipyretic aniline derivative with weak anti-inflammatory activity

a)

Acetylsalicylic acid

b)

Acetaminophen

c)

Mefenamic acid

d)

Sulindac

58.

Most potent of the inhalation anesthetic agents;

a)

Methoxyflurane

b)

Halothane

c)

Enflurane

d)

Isoflurane

59.

Aminoglycosides antibiotics;

a)

highly ionized in solution

b)

antibactericidal

c)

more effective in alkaline medium

d)

ototoxic and nephrotoxic

e)

easily absorbed after oral administration

60.

Baclofen, a derivative of GABA is used in;

a)

spasticity in patient with multiple sclerosis

b)

Parkinsonism

c)

management of spasticity in rheumatic disorders

d)

spasticity in cerebral palsy

61.

Long term use of tetracyclines in pregnant women should be avoided due to several reason. Which of these is true?

a)

thet chelate calcium ions

b)

they predispose to discoloration of decidous teeth in infant

c)

they cause yellow atrophy of the liver in the mother

d)

they are toxic to the fetus and may cause abortion

e)

they get deposited in growing bones

62.

Antibiotic produces neuromuscular blockade;

a)

Kanamycin

b)

Ampicillin

c)

Streptomycin

d)

Neomycin

e)

Amikacin

63.

For the treatment of systemic mycosis, which of the ff. antifungal agents can be administered by IV route?

a)

Amphotericin B

b)

Miconazole

c)

Ketoconazole

d)

Clioquinol

64.

Effective andd clinically useful against worm infestation caused by Ascaris lumbrocoides;

a)

Piperazine

b)

Mebendazole

c)

Pyrantel pamoate

d)

Thiabendazole

e)

All

65.

A good local anesthetic should have all the ff. property/ies;

a)

systemic toxicity should be high

b)

effective at body fluid pH

c)

irritant to the tissue and should cause ay permanent strictural damage to nerves

d)

must not be effective regardless of the site of application

66.

DOC for acute attack of Plasmodium vivax malaria is;

a)

Amodiaquine

b)

Primaquine

c)

Chloroquine

d)

Quinine

67.

Antipyretic analgesics;

a)

produce fall in BP

b)

raise the pain threshold

c)

develop drug dependence

d)

relieve visceral pain

68.

DOC for ringworm infection;

a)

Nystatin

b)

Ketoconazole

c)

Griseofulvin

d)

Neomycin

69.

Acetaminophen is preffered over aspirin in the following conditions, EXCEPT;

a)

Rheumatic disease

b)

Patients with peptic ulcer

c)

Patients with bronchial asthma

d)

Children with influenza

70.

Depot penicillin preparation;

a)

Phenoxymethylpenicillin

b)

Benzathine penicillin

c)

Cloxacillin

d)

Methicillin

71.

Primary drug for the tx of all seizure type EXCEPT;

a)

Carbamezapine

b)

Ethosuximide

c)

Diazepam

d)

Valproic acid

72.

Penicillin that is acid stable and therefore rally effective;

a)

Benzathine penicillin

b)

Procaine penicillin

c)

Cloxacillin

d)

Ticarcillin

e)

Piperacillin

73.

Superior to acyclovir in the tx of herpes viruses in the CNS in neonate;

a)

Idoxuridine

b)

Ribavirin

c)

Vidarabine

d)

Amantadine

e)

Zidovudine

74.

Base that is most susceptible to alkylating agents;

a)

Adenosine

b)

Cytosine

c)

Thymidine

d)

Guanine

e)

Uridine

75.

Vincristine is used primarily in the treatment of;

a)

Hogkin's disease

b)

Lung cancer

c)

Liver cancer

d)

Melanoma

e)

Prostate cancer

76.

For the treatment of systemic mycoses, which of the ff. antifungal agents can be administered by IV route?

a)

Miconazole

b)

Amphotericin B

c)

Ketoconazole

d)

Clioquinol

77.

Penicillin is DOC for the ff. anti-infective conditions;

a)

gonococcal infection

b)

pneumonococcal infection

c)

treponema infection

d)

streptococcal infection

e)

pseudomonal infection

78.

All of the following drugs act as prodrugs and need to be converted in the body to active compound EXCEPT;

a)

Leodopa

b)

Salbutamol

c)

Prednisone

d)

Bacampicillin

e)

Cyclosphosphamide

79.

Sensitivity of gram (-) bacilli to amoxicilllin is due to its;

a)

Carboxyl group

b)

Nitro group

c)

Amino group

d)

Carbonyl group

e)

Hydoxyl group

80.

Bone marrow depression resulting in pancytopenia is the characteristics toxic effect of all the ff. drugs;

a)

Oxytetracycline

b)

Chloramphenicol

c)

Methothrexate

d)

Mitomycin

e)

Dactinomycin

81.

The ff. antibiotic possess clinically useful antimalignant property;

a)

Mitomycin

b)

Bleomycin

c)

Streptomycin

d)

Daunorubicin

e)

Plicamycin

82.

Process utilized by Florey and Chain in isolating penicillin;

a)

Freeze-drying

b)

Extraction

c)

Chromatography

d)

X-ray

83.

The metabolite of the red dye, protonsil, responsible for its antimicrobial property;

a)

Sulfanilamide

b)

Sulfisoxazole

c)

Sulfapyridine

d)

Sulfamethixazole

84.

Antiviral agent useful for the tx of herpes virus infection;

a)

Vidarabine

b)

Trifluridine

c)

Acyclovir

d)

Idoxuridine

e)

Interferon

85.

Solvent shift;

a)

Facilitated transport

b)

Ion-pair transport

c)

Bulk transport

d)

Passive diffusion

86.

Chemical name of phenethicillin;

a)

Benzyl penicillin

b)

Phenoxyethylpenicillin

c)

Phenoxymethylpenicillin

d)

Phenoxypropylpenicillin

87.

Least stable vitamin;

a)

Ascorbic acid

b)

Folic acid

c)

Retinoic acid

d)

Menadione

88.

A change in structure of isoniazide causes;

a)

increase in potency of the drug

b)

decrease in potency of the drug

c)

increase in duration of drug action

d)

decrease in duration of drug action

89.

Most toxic vitamin;

a)

Vitamin B6

b)

Vitamin A

c)

Vitamin B1

d)

Vitamin B3

90.

DOC for leprosy

a)

Dapsone

b)

Rifampicin

c)

Ethionamide

d)

Clofazimine

91.

Metabolic function of niacin;

a)

Decarboxylation

b)

Redox reactions

c)

Maturation of erythrocytes

d)

Differentiationof epithelial tissues

92.

In terms of pH, aspirin is absorbed in the;

a)

stomach

b)

mouth

c)

small intestine

d)

rectum

93.

Drugs extensively metabolized in the liver;

a)

Isoproterenol

b)

Propranolol

c)

Lidocaine

d)

Paracetamol

94.

Dye used in vital nerve staining;

a)

Malachite green

b)

Gentian violet

c)

Methylene blue

d)

Basic fuchsin

95.

Potentially fatal aplastic anemia is a toxicity associated with;

a)

Chloramphenicol

b)

Nitrofurantoin

c)

Clindamycin

d)

Cephalotin

96.

Metabolism of warfarinis induced by the ff;

a)

Tolbutamide

b)

Haloperidol

c)

Nitroglycerin

d)

DDT

97.

Infant at birth is already capable of metabolic reaction?

a)

Sulfation

b)

Acetylation

c)

RedOX

d)

Glucoronidation

98.

Metabolism of the ff. drugs result in more toxic product;

a)

Acetanilide

b)

Acetaminophen

c)

Phenacetin

99.

UDPGA is used in what type of pase II metabolic reaction;

a)

Glucoronidation

b)

Phosphorylation

c)

Sulfation

d)

Glycine conjugation

100.

Morphine is the active metabolite of;

a)

Atropine

b)

Cocaine

c)

Codeine

d)

Barbital

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