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WorksheetsBiology Q2 Review
Total questions: 133
Worksheet time: 2hrs 46mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Particles in an atom that are neutral and have no charge are
a)
negatrons
b)
electrons
c)
neutrons
d)
protons
2.
The smallest particle of any particular type of matter is known by which of the following terms?
a)
Compound
b)
Atom
c)
Chemical
d)
Element
3.
If an atom has 3 electrons, how many protons does it have?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
4
d)
3
4.
If the number of protons equal the number of _____, the atom will have no charge
a)
protons
b)
neutrons
c)
electrons
d)
nucleus
5.
The subatomic particle with a negative charge is the
a)
electron
b)
proton
c)
neutron
d)
nucleus
6.
What is the atomic number?
a)
the number of protons
b)
the number of protons and neutrons
c)
the number of neutrons
d)
the number of protons and electrons
7.
What is the mass number?
a)
the number of protons
b)
the number of protons and neutrons
c)
the number of neutrons
d)
the number of protons and electrons
8.
Ions are:
a)
atoms with a positive or negative charge
b)
atoms with no charge
c)
atoms with ONLY a positive charge
d)
atoms with ONLY a negative charge
9.
How does the addition of an acid affect a neutral solution?
a)
the pH is raised
b)
the acid is neutralized
c)
the H+ ion concentration is increased
d)
the solvent concentration is increased
10.
Which of the following solutions has the highest H+ ion concentration?
a)
a solution with a pH of 1
b)
a solution with a pH of 4
c)
a solution with a pH of 7
d)
a solution with a pH of 10
11.
What is unique about carbon?
a)
bonding properties
b)
ability to bond with oxygen
c)
properties as a reactant
d)
properties as an enzyme
12.
What are the four main groups of carbon-based molecules?
a)
starches, cholesterol, fatty acids, and amino acids
b)
sugars, cellulose, triglycerides, and monosaccharides
c)
polysaccharides, sugars, oils, and polymers
d)
carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, and nucleic acids
13.
Chemical reactions change substances into different substances by
a)
reaching chemical equilibrium
b)
breaking and forming bonds
c)
changing the substance's properties
d)
maintaining constant energy
14.
What is the term for the substances that are changed during a chemical reaction?
a)
products
b)
catalysts
c)
enzymes
d)
reactants
15.
The function of a catalyst in a chemical reaction is to increase the
a)
reaction rate
b)
activation energy
c)
pH
d)
number of substrates
16.
Which property is responsible for the fact that water and oil do not mix?
a)
density
b)
mass
c)
phase
d)
polarity
17.
Which of the following organic compounds is the main source of energy for living things?
a)
carbohydrates
b)
lipids
c)
nucleic acids
d)
proteins
18.
Carbohydrates are made of...
a)
C H O
b)
C H O N
c)
C H O N P
d)
C H O N S
19.
DNA and RNA are examples of
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
20.
The amount of energy added for a chemical reaction to start is
a)
chemical energy
b)
bond energy
c)
activation energy
d)
reactant energy
21.
Activation energy is decreased by a
a)
product
b)
catalyst
c)
substrate
d)
reactant
22.
Provides long term energy and insulation,
a)
lipids
b)
carbohydrates
c)
nucleic acids
d)
proteins
23.
Is found in the cell membrane as a bilayer.
a)
lipids
b)
protein
c)
nucleic acid
d)
carbohydrate
24.
Which of the following is the smallest unit of life that can carry out all life functions?
a)
the mitochondria
b)
the vacuoles
c)
the nucleus
d)
the cell
25.
Which structures are found in every living cell?
a)
cell membrane and cytoplasm
b)
chloroplasts and mitochondria
c)
a cell wall and nucleus
d)
chloroplasts and cell wall
26.
What is the function of the cell nucleus found in both plant and animal cells?
a)
to produce energy
b)
to control cell activity
c)
to remove waste products
d)
to allow molecules to enter the cell
27.
Cell organelles that are responsible for digesting food, worn out organelles and other cellular wastes are called ___________________.
a)
Mitochondria
b)
Vacuoles
c)
Lysosomes
d)
Chlororplasts
28.
What is one basic function of the vacuoles?
a)
circulating oxygen
b)
producing food
c)
controlling cell processes
d)
storing water
29.
Chloroplasts in plant cells allow the plant to perform a function that animal cells cannot do. What is the main function of the chloroplasts found in plant cells?
a)
to absorb light energy and manufacture food
b)
to remove waste materials by active transport
c)
to manufacture chemical energy from food
d)
to control the shape of the cell
30.
All cells need energy to function. Which cell organelle is responsible for producing energy in the cell?
a)
chloroplasts
b)
mitochondria
c)
nucleus
d)
vacuoles
31.
What is the function of a cell wall?
a)
to protect and support the cell
b)
to perform different functions in each cell
c)
to prevent water from passing through it
d)
to prevent oxygen from entering the cell
32.
In what part of the plant cell does the process of photosynthesis take place?
a)
nucleus
b)
mitochondria
c)
chloroplasts
d)
vacuoles
33.
Cells with a nucleus and membrane-bound organelles are called ____________________.
a)
prokaryotes
b)
eukaryotes
c)
bacteria
d)
protists
34.
Which of the following is not part of the cell theory?
a)
cells must contain DNA
b)
all living things are made from cells
c)
cells can only come from other cells
d)
cells are the basic unit of life
35.
He discovered that all plants are made of cells:
a)
Anton van Leeuwenhoek
b)
Theordor Schwann
c)
Robert Hooke
d)
Mattias Schleiden
36.
Who was the first person to see cells under the microscope and give them their name?
a)
Mattias Schleiden
b)
Robert Hooke
c)
Theordor Schwann
d)
Anton van Leeuwenhoek
37.
The basic unit of structure and function in a living things.
a)
chloroplast
b)
nucleus
c)
cell
d)
cell membrane
38.
The network of passageways carries materials from one part of the cell to another.
a)
endoplasmic reticulum
b)
golgi bodies
c)
vacuole
d)
cell
39.
This organelle receives materials from the endoplasmic reticulum and sends them to other parts of the cell.
a)
ribosomes
b)
mitchondria
c)
cytoplasm
d)
golgi bodies
40.
The diffusion of WATER across a semi-permeable membrane is
a)
osmosis
b)
diffusion
c)
endocytosis
d)
exocytosis
41.
What is diffusion
a)
active transport
b)
passive transport
c)
cell division
d)
cell mutation
42.
The movement of molecules from higher concentration to lower concentration is
a)
diffusion
b)
cell division
active transport
active transport
c)
active transport
d)
tonicity
43.
Active transport requires
a)
energy
b)
the nucleus
c)
chloroplasts
d)
lysosomes
44.
What organelles is NOT found in a PROkaryote
a)
nucleus
b)
cell membrane
c)
Chromosomes (DNA)
DNA
DNA
d)
ribosomes
45.
water moves from
a)
higher conc. H20 => lower conc H20
b)
lower conc. H20 => higher conc. H20
46.
What is on the same level of organization as the brain?
a)
stomach
b)
nervous system
c)
protein molecule
d)
flower
47.
If you look under the microscope as a piece of muscle TISSUE, you will see...
a)
cells working together
b)
chloroplasts
c)
an organ system
d)
plant cells
48.
Robert Hooke, Anton van Leeuwenhoek, Theodor Schwann, Rudolf Virchow, and Matthias Schliden were all responsible for what theory?
a)
The Theory of Gravity
b)
The Theory of Relativity
c)
The Cell Theory
d)
The Theory of Continental Drift
49.
All cells come from___________ cells.
a)
pregnant
b)
pre-existing
c)
paternal
d)
pin size
50.
According to cell theory, where did this cell come from?
a)
another living cell
b)
energy from sun
c)
a multicellular organism
d)
the nonliving environment
51.
What tool do you use to view the cells?
a)
metric ruler
b)
centrifuge
c)
microscope
d)
pipette
52.
An organism made of one cell is called
a)
unicellular
b)
multicellular
53.
Rocks are not living because
a)
they never move
b)
they aren't needed for humans
c)
they are not made of cells
d)
they don't break down
54.
The longest phase of the cell cycle
a)
prophase
b)
interphase
c)
metaphase
d)
mitosis
55.
Identify the phase of mitosis
a)
prophase
b)
metaphase
c)
anaphase
d)
telophase
56.
Which phase comes NEXT?
a)
prophase
b)
metaphase
c)
anaphase
d)
telophase
57.
the phase of mitosis in which the sister chromatids separate (pull apart) from each other
a)
prophase
b)
metaphase
c)
anaphase
d)
telophase
58.
Which is Metaphase?
a)
A
b)
E
c)
C
d)
F
59.
The structure of coiled DNA and proteins that forms in the cells nucleus prior to mitosis is
a)
centromere
b)
centriole
c)
chromosome
d)
chromatid
60.
A jelly-like substance found inside a cell surrounding its organelles is
a)
cytokenisis
b)
cytoplasm
c)
mitosis
d)
epithelial
61.
Put the stages of mitosis in the correct order.
a)
prophase - metaphase - anaphase - telophase
b)
metaphase - anaphase - prophase - telophase
c)
anaphase - prophase - telophase - metaphase
d)
telophase - metaphase - prophase - anaphase
62.
Which of the following describes the purpose of the mitosis cell cycle?
a)
To make more of the same cells.
b)
For growth and repair.
c)
To prevent the cell from becoming too large.
d)
All of the above.
63.
How does cytokinesis differ in plant and animal cells?
a)
Cytokinesis only takes place in animal cells.
b)
Cytokinesis only takes place in plant cells.
c)
Plant cells form a cell plate, animal cells form a cleavage furrow.
d)
Animal cells form a cell plate, plant cells form a cleavage furrow.
64.
What is the result of mitosis?
a)
1 cell
b)
2 genetically identical cells
c)
2 genetically different cells
d)
4 genetically identical cells
65.
Think about the parts that work together to help you digest the food you eat. Which term best describes an entire group of parts that are working together to make the body function?
a)
Cells
b)
Organ System
c)
Organ
d)
Tissue
66.
A haploid cell (having n number of chromosomes) undergoes mitosis. What will be the number of chromosomes in this haploid cell at the end of mitosis?
a)
n
b)
2n
c)
4n
d)
½ n
67.
Unlike mitosis, meiosis in male mammals results in the formation of
a)
one haploid gamete
b)
three diploid gametes
c)
four diploid gametes
d)
four haploid gametes
68.
If the Diploid number of Carrots is 18, the haploid number is
a)
18
b)
9
c)
27
d)
36
69.
Identify the phase.
a)
Metaphase I
b)
Metaphase II
c)
Prophase I
d)
Anaphase II
70.
This image shows chromosomes during Prophase 1. Which of the following correctly describes the process shown?
a)
segregation of sister chromatids
b)
condensation and segregation of alleles
c)
mutationin which the DNA content of the gene is altered
d)
crossing - over in which alleles are exchanged
71.
Why do we need meiosis?
a)
To double the number of chromosomes going into sex cells
b)
To halve the number of chromosomes going into sex cells
c)
To triple the number of chromosomes going into sex cells
d)
To not change the number of chromosomes going into sex cells
72.
A human zygote should have _____ chromosomes inside.
a)
46
b)
23
c)
92
d)
64
73.
At the end of mitosis you have _____ cells
a)
identical
b)
different
c)
identical twins
d)
variety
74.
Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partial strand
ATG TGA CAG
ATG TGA CAG
a)
ATG TGA CAG
b)
TAC ACT GTC
c)
GTA AGT GAC
d)
CAT TCA CTG
75.
Which of the following best describes a DNA molecule?
a)
double helix
b)
contains ribose
c)
made of amino acids
d)
contains Uracil
76.
Which of the following units are repeatedly joined together to form a strand of DNA?
a)
amino acids
b)
nucleotides
c)
fatty acids
d)
polysaccharides
77.
In a molecule of double-stranded DNA, the amount of Adenine present is always equal to the amount of
a)
cytosine
b)
guanine
c)
thymine
d)
uracil
78.
Adenine bonds with ______________.
a)
Guanine
b)
Thymine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Adenine
79.
Guanine bonds with ______________.
a)
Adenine
b)
Guanine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Thymine
80.
Why is DNA important?
a)
it is very small and very complicated
b)
it's in everything
c)
it serves as the blueprint for traits of all living things
d)
because we eat it every day for energy
81.
What determines the code, or information, of a DNA molecule?
a)
the shape (structure) of the nitrogen bases
b)
the order (sequence) of the nitrogen bases
c)
the color of the nitrogen bases
d)
the frequency (number) of nitrogen bases
82.
Which 2 molecules form the sides (backbone) of the DNA ladder?
a)
deoxyribose sugar and adenine
b)
deoxyribose sugar and a hydrogen bond
c)
deoxyribose sugar and the nucleus
d)
deoxyribose sugar and phosphate
83.
Nitrogenous bases are joined by which type of bond?
a)
polar bonds
b)
ionic bonds
c)
covalent bonds
d)
hydrogen bonds
84.
The enzyme that unzips the DNA to prepare for replication
a)
helicase
b)
replicase
c)
polymerase
d)
synthase
85.
DNA replication results in two DNA molecules,
a)
each one with two original strands
b)
each one with two new strands
c)
each one with one new strand and one original strand
d)
one with two new strands and the other with two original strands
86.
order of replication
a)
3, 2, 1, 4
b)
2, 1, 4, 3
c)
2, 3, 1, 4
d)
3, 4, 1, 2
87.
A process in which DNA has the unique ability to make an exact copy of itself.
a)
Replication
b)
Translation
c)
Transcription
88.
The nucleus contains DNA. Which statement BEST describes how DNA controls the working of the cell?
a)
It codes for proteins.
b)
It inhibits division of cells.
c)
It helps in energy transformation.
d)
It regulates traffic in and out of the cell.
89.
In RNA, Uracil pairs with ______.
a)
cytosine
b)
adenine
c)
guanine
d)
thymine
90.
The process to go from DNA to mRNA is _______
a)
translation
b)
transcription
c)
replication
91.
The process to go from mRNA to a protein is called ____
a)
transcription
b)
rRNA
c)
replication
d)
translation
92.
DNA holds the code for
a)
lipids
b)
carbohydrates
c)
protein
d)
sugar
93.
Choose the nucleotide sequence of the RNA strand that would be complementary to the following strand:
GTAGTCA
GTAGTCA
a)
UATUAGA
b)
ACGACTG
c)
CAUCAGU
d)
CATCAGT
94.
What is the three base sequence of mRNA that codes for a single amino acid?
a)
Anticodon
b)
Codon
c)
Protein
95.
Which is the mRNA molecule that would be transcribed from this DNA template:
TGGCAAGTACGT
TGGCAAGTACGT
a)
ACCGTTCATGCA
b)
UGGCAAGUACGU
c)
UCCGUUCUUGCU
d)
ACCGUUCAUGCA
96.
What process is going on in this photo?
a)
Transcription
b)
Translation
c)
Replication
d)
All the above
97.
DNA is found in ALL cells.
a)
True
b)
False
98.
How many codons are needed to specify for five amino acids?
a)
3
b)
5
c)
15
d)
30
99.
21 nucleotides will provide how many codons?
a)
3 amino acids
b)
5 amino acids
c)
7 amino acids
d)
9 amino acids
100.
Set of nitrogen bases that are complementary to one codon
a)
peptide bond
b)
polypeptide
c)
anti-codon
d)
amino acid
101.
Genotype refers to the ...
a)
physical expression of the genes
b)
the possible combination of alleles in a gene
c)
whether an allele is dominant or recessive
d)
how an organism will appear
102.
The man who studied genetics and came up with genetics is
a)
Watson
b)
Crick
c)
Mendel
d)
Darwin
103.
An offspring will receive how many alleles from each parent to determine a specific trait?
a)
one
b)
two
c)
three
d)
five
104.
Which of the following is a phenotype?
a)
BB
b)
Bb
c)
bb
d)
Blue eyes
105.
What is a phenotype
a)
The genetic make up (code)
b)
The physical trait
106.
having two of the same genes for the trait (sometimes called purebred).
a)
homozygous
b)
hetrozygous
c)
protein
d)
chromosome
107.
the passing of genetic traits from parent to offspring.
a)
heredity
b)
trait
c)
gene
d)
allele
108.
having two different genes for a trait (sometimes called hybrid).
a)
protein
b)
homozygous
c)
heterozygous
d)
genotype
109.
Magda is a tall, 11 year old drummer. She has a scar on her right cheek. She is good at swimming. Which of her traits did Magda most likely inherit?
a)
height
b)
the scar
c)
ability to swim
d)
ability to play drums
110.
Two brown eyed parents (Bb) have a baby. What is the chance the baby is blue eyed?
a)
0 %
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
111.
one set of instructions for an inherited trait
a)
heredity
b)
allele
c)
trait
d)
gene
112.
An allele whose trait only shows up when no dominant allele is present.
a)
hidden allele
b)
dominant allele
c)
recessive allele
d)
present allele
113.
An allele whose trait always shows up in the organism when the allele is present.
a)
recessive allele
b)
dominant allele
c)
hidden allele
d)
present allele
114.
the chances of something happening
a)
dominant
b)
genotype
c)
phenotype
d)
probability
115.
Which of the following genotypes is homozygous recessive?
a)
RR
b)
Rr
c)
rr
d)
None of the Above
116.
Brown (B) is dominant over white (b). Which genotype is a purebred for brown fur?
a)
BB
b)
Bb
c)
bb
d)
All of the above
117.
Which of the following terms refers to the different possibilities of a gene?
a)
chromosome
b)
DNA
c)
Punnett Squares
d)
allele
118.
If something is heterozygous, it is also...
a)
purebred
b)
hybrid
c)
dominant
d)
recessive
119.
This image shows a...
a)
Punnett Square
b)
Phenotype
c)
Genotype
d)
Dominant allele
120.
What does a Punnett Square help you do?
a)
Determine the ratio of phenotypes
b)
Determine the ratio of genotypes
c)
Predict possible traits the offspring will have
d)
All of the above
121.
Another word for homozygous is...
a)
purebred
b)
hybrid
c)
heterozygous
d)
dominant
122.
Dominant alleles are-
a)
capital
b)
lowercase
c)
both
d)
neither
123.
Recessive alleles are-
a)
capital
b)
lowercase
c)
both
d)
neither
124.
Tt is-
a)
homozygous dominant
b)
homozygous recessive
c)
heterozygous
d)
none of these
125.
Purple is dominant to white. A heterozygous purple flower is crossed with a white flower. What are the genotypes and phenotypes of the offspring?
a)
100% Pp (purple)
b)
50% Pp (purple); 50% pp (white)
c)
75% Pp (purple); 25% pp (white)
d)
25% PP, 50% Pp, 25% pp
75% purple, 25% white
75% purple, 25% white
126.
If a pea plant were homozygous recessive for height, how would its alleles be represented?
a)
TT
b)
Tt
c)
tt
d)
tT
127.
If green is dominant over purple, then what is the genotype for this individual?
a)
Purple
b)
Green
c)
GG
d)
gg
128.
What is the genotype for this organism?
(E= 3 eyes, e= 1 eye)
(E= 3 eyes, e= 1 eye)
a)
EE
b)
Ee
c)
ee
d)
EE or Ee
129.
One reason for Mendel's success with genetic studies of peas was that he
a)
used only hybrid pea plants
b)
used peas with large chromosomes
c)
studied large numbers of offspring
d)
discovered the sources of variation in peas
130.
A cross of a red cow with a white bull produces all road offspring. This type of inheritance is known as
a)
codominance
b)
incomplete dominance
c)
multiple alleles
d)
"breed time:
131.
Factors for different traits separate independently of one another during the formation of gmaetes
a)
Principle of segregation
b)
Principle of independent assortment
c)
Law of recessiveness
d)
Law of dominance
132.
some forms of a gene or a trait are dominant over other traits; one factor or one gene for a trait may hide the other factor
a)
Principle of recessiveness
b)
Principle of dominance
c)
Law of segregation
d)
Law of independent assortment
133.
______________________ are three or more forms of a gene that code for a single trait.
a)
Gametes
b)
Chromosomes
c)
Multiple Alleles
d)
Genes
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