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Worksheets

HAP Pre-Test Ch. 27-33

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which list represents the levels of organization in the human body from simplest to most complex?

a)

cell, organ, tissue, organ system

b)

organ system, organ, tissue, cell

c)

tissue, cell, organ, organ system

d)

cell, tissue, organ, organ system

2.

Ligaments connect

a)

cartilage to bone.

b)

muscle to muscle.

c)

bone to muscle.

d)

bone to bone.

3.

Which of the following is NOT a function of skin?

a)

helps regulate body temperature

b)

protects internal organs

c)

contracts and relaxes muscles

d)

helps prevent infection

4.

Which of the following is NOT part of the integumentary system?

a)

skin

b)

cartilage

c)

nails

d)

hair

5.

Which of the following provides support for the body, attachment sites for muscles, and protection for soft organs?

a)

skin

b)

spinal cord

c)

skeleton

d)

joints

6.

The main function of the skull is to

a)

produce blood cells.

b)

protect the heart and lungs.

c)

house and protect the brain.

d)

act like a lever for muscle attachment.

7.

Which of the following is true about red marrow?

a)

It makes cells that develop into blood cells.

b)

It stores fat.

c)

It produces new bone.

d)

It is found in compact bones of adults.

8.

What body part has a joint that works in a manner similar to a door hinge?

a)

wrist

b)

thumb

c)

skull

d)

knee

9.

The elbow joint bends when

a)

both the biceps and the triceps muscle contract.

b)

both the biceps and the triceps muscle relax.

c)

the biceps muscle contracts and the triceps muscle relaxes.

d)

the biceps muscle relaxes and the triceps muscle contracts.

10.

What happens when the thin filaments in a muscle fiber slide over the thick filaments?

a)

A sarcomere contracts.

b)

A sarcomere relaxes.

c)

A sarcomere both contracts and relaxes.

d)

A sarcomere neither contracts nor relaxes.

11.

Where is cardiac muscle tissue located in the body?

a)

heart

b)

ribs

c)

skull

d)

bones

12.

Which of the following produce keratin?

a)

epidermal cells

b)

sweat glands

c)

adipose tissue cells

d)

hair follicles

13.

What are the two layers of the skin?

a)

keratin and dermis

b)

epidermis and melanin

c)

epidermis and dermis

d)

melanin and keratin

14.

The epidermis is made up mostly of

a)

flat, dead cells.

b)

melanin.

c)

collagen.

d)

healthy, living cells.

15.

Which of the following is a protein that makes up hair and nails?

a)

sweat

b)

melanin

c)

collagen

d)

keratin

16.

Which of the following is NOT a function of bones in the human skeletal system?

a)

house the brain

b)

regulate body temperature

c)

move body parts

d)

protect organs

17.

What is the skeleton of a newborn baby mainly composed of?

a)

bone

b)

cartilage

c)

bone marrow

d)

collagen

18.

The most important function of the skin is

a)

separating the body from its environment.

b)

storing fat.

c)

sweating.

d)

tanning.

19.

Where is the protein called actin located in the body?

a)

marrow

b)

thin filaments

c)

myosin filaments

d)

hair

20.

In addition to myosin, what other protein is involved in skeletal muscle contraction?

a)

collagen

b)

actin

c)

ATP

d)

keratin

21.

Myosin and actin make up

a)

bones.

b)

collagen.

c)

sarcomeres.

d)

red marrow.

22.

What dense connective tissues join skeletal muscles to bones?

a)

joints

b)

ligaments

c)

cartilage

d)

tendons

23.

What is the function of the nervous system?

a)

sensory input

b)

integration

c)

motor output

d)

all of the above

24.

What is the smallest structural and functional unit of the nervous system?

a)

nerve

b)

neuron

c)

brain

d)

spinal cord

25.

What begins when a neuron is stimulated by another neuron in its environment?

a)

a threshold

b)

an action potential

c)

a nerve signal

d)

a dendrite

26.

Sense organs are part of the

a)

sensory division.

b)

central nervous system.

c)

autonomic nervous system.

d)

parasympathetic division.

27.

When an action potential reaches the end of a neuron at a chemical synapse, it triggers the release of

a)

neurotransmitters.

b)

sodium ions.

c)

dendrites.

d)

receptors.

28.

The division of the nervous system that helps the body react to pain is the

a)

somatic nervous system.

b)

sensory division.

c)

autonomic nervous system.

d)

sympathetic division.

29.

Which of the following is a function of the cerebrum

a)

controls conscious activities of the body

b)

controls heart rate

c)

controls blood pressure

d)

controls breathing

30.

Which general category of sensory receptors detects heat and cold?

a)

thermoreceptors

b)

mechanoreceptors

c)

photoreceptors

d)

pain receptors

31.

Drugs that generally increase activity in the central nervous system are called

a)

stimulants.

b)

depressants.

c)

opiates.

d)

alcohol.

32.

What types of drugs generally slow down the activity of the central nervous system?

a)

stimulatns

b)

depressants

c)

opiates

d)

cocaine

33.

Refer to the figure. The cell body of a neuron collects information from which structure?

a)

1

b)

7

c)

6

d)

5

34.

Which division(s) of the peripheral nervous system transmit(s) impulses from sense organs to the central nervous system?

a)

sensory division

b)

motor division

c)

sensory and motor divisions

d)

spinal cord division

35.

What is the function of neurotransmitters?

a)

to transmit nerve impulses through dendrites

b)

to stimulate the production of epinephrine

c)

to transmit nerve impulses across synaptic clefts

d)

none of the above

36.

The ability to move your right hand is controlled by the

a)

left hemisphere of the cerebrum.

b)

right hemisphere of the cerebrum.

c)

both the left and right hemispheres of the cerebrum.

d)

neither hemisphere of the cerebrum.

37.

The region of the brain that regulates hunger is the

a)

brainstem.

b)

medulla oblongata.

c)

hypothalamus.

d)

thalamus.

38.

Your ability to think about a question and answer it correctly is directly controlled by the

a)

brainstem.

b)

cerebellum.

c)

medulla.

d)

cerebral cortex.

39.

Which of the following general categories of sensory receptors are located everywhere in the body except the brain?

a)

thermoreceptors

b)

mechanoreceptors

c)

photoreptors

d)

pain receptors

40.

Which of the five senses uses two types of photoreceptors called rods and cones?

a)

vision

b)

hearing

c)

smell

d)

taste

41.

Which labeled structure in the figure creates sound waves in the cochlea?

a)

7

b)

6

c)

5

d)

12

42.

Which labeled structure sends impulses to the brain that enable it to determine the head's motion and position?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

43.

Painful withdrawal symptoms can occur when a drug user attempts to stop using

a)

opiates.

b)

cocaine.

c)

inhalants.

d)

marijuana.

44.

Alcohol does each of the following EXCEPT

a)

slow CNS activity.

b)

stimulate heart rate.

c)

impair judgment.

d)

disrupt coordination.

45.

The energy to perform cellular work, as well as the materials from which body cells and tissues are made, comes form

a)

cellulose

b)

oxygen.

c)

food.

d)

blood.

46.

Inorganic ions with diverse functions in the body are called

a)

lipids.

b)

proteins.

c)

vitamins.

d)

minerals.

47.

What "food tube" carries food between the pharynx and the stomach?

a)

small intestine epiglottis

b)

epiglottis

c)

esophagus

d)

large intestine

48.

The stomach breaks down food into an acidic liquid called

a)

pepsin.

b)

chyme.

c)

amylase.

d)

bile.

49.

Water is absorbed from undigested material in the body primarily by the

a)

bladder.

b)

gallbladder.

c)

large intestine.

d)

pancreas.

50.

Where does the process of chemical digestion begin?

a)

stomach

b)

esophagus

c)

small instine

d)

mouth

51.

The essential amino acids the body needs must come from eating

a)

proteins.

b)

fats.

c)

carbohydrates.

d)

water.

52.

What is one of the roles of the pancreas in digestion?

a)

absorb nutrients

b)

churn food

c)

dissolve food

d)

neutralize acids

53.

Which of the followingfood groups should make up only the smallest part of the diet?

a)

fats, oils, and sweets

b)

mik, yogurt, and cheese

c)

vegetables

d)

fruit

54.

The Food Guide Pyramid indicates that the majority of the food in your diet should be from

a)

the group(s) at the top.

b)

the group(s) at the bottom.

c)

the group(s) in the middle

d)

all of the groups in the same proportion.

55.

A calorie is the amount of energy needed to

a)

raise the temperature of the body by one degree Celsius.

b)

raise the temperature of 1g of fat by one degree Celsius.

c)

raise the temperature of 1 g of water by on degree Celsius.

d)

none of the above

56.

Substances that are needed by the body to build tissue and fuel cellular work are called

a)

enzymes.

b)

nutrients.

c)

ATP.

d)

Calories.

57.

Proteins are polymers made of

a)

minerals.

b)

fats.

c)

amino acids.

d)

vitamins.

58.

Which of the following would NOT be found in the stomach?

a)

mucus

b)

pepsin

c)

villi

d)

hydrochloric acid

59.

The Food Guide Pyramid advises a person to eat more servings of

a)

meat than dairy products.

b)

grains than meat.

c)

dairy products than vegetables.

d)

dairy products than grains.

60.

What enzyme found in saliva begins the chemical digestion of starches?

a)

amylase

b)

chyme

c)

pepsin

d)

hydrochloric acid

61.

What does mechanical digestion in the stomach involve?

a)

absorption of nutrients by villi

b)

pepsin and bile

c)

muscle contractions

d)

bile and pancreatic fluid

62.

A car is to gasoline as your body is to

a)

your stomach.

b)

your kidneys.

c)

food.

d)

enzymes.

63.

About how many Calories does the average teenager need per day?

a)

100 to 200

b)

500 to 600

c)

2,200 to 2,500

d)

10,000

64.

Which of the following food groups is NOT found in a sandwich of only bread, ham, and mayonnaise?

a)

fats, oils, and sweets

b)

milk, yogurt, and cheese

c)

meat, poultry, fish, dry beans, eggs, and nuts

d)

bread, cereal, rice, and pasta

65.

An eating disorder characterized by self-starvartion is

a)

undernutrition.

b)

malnutrition.

c)

anorexia.

d)

bulimia.

66.

Which of the following is NOT a part of the circulatory system?

a)

heart

b)

air passageway

c)

blood vessels

d)

blood

67.

Which is the correct direction of blood flow?

a)

right atrium --> right ventricle --> pulmonary artery

b)

right atrium --> left atrium --> pulmonary artery

c)

left ventricle --> pulmonary artery --> aorta

d)

left ventricle --> left atrium --> aorta

68.

Which body system collects the fluid that is lot by the blood and returns it to the circulatory system?

a)

integumentary

b)

lymphatic

c)

respiratory

d)

nervous

69.

Which of the following pathways includes the heart, lungs, and the arteries, and veins between them?

a)

systemic circuit

b)

pulmonary circuit

c)

systolic circuit

d)

coronary circuit

70.

A blood pressure reading of 120/80

a)

is the normal blood pressure in a young child.

b)

is an indication of hypertension in a resting adult.

c)

indicates a systolic blood pressure of 120.

d)

is determined by using an inflatable cuff to measure blood pressure in the veins.

71.

Which of the following is the first step in blood clotting?

a)

Platelets adhere to the site of the damage.

b)

Platelets release clotting factor.

c)

Fibrin filaments produce a patch.

d)

Fibrin forms.

72.

When the pressure of blood pumping through the blood vessels is constantly too high, the condition is known as

a)

a heart attack.

b)

hypertension.

c)

aterosclerosis.

d)

a stroke.

73.

Air is forced into the lungs by the contraction of the

a)

alveoli.

b)

bronchiols.

c)

diaphragm.

d)

heart.

74.

Emphysema and lung cancer can be caused by

a)

swollen bronchi.

b)

enlarged alveoli.

c)

groups of cancer cells.

d)

smoking.

75.

Compared with the walls of arteries, the walls of veins

a)

are thicker.

b)

are thinner.

c)

lack valves.

d)

have more resistance.

76.

Swollen lymph nodes might indicate

a)

an infection.

b)

high blood pressure.

c)

varicose veins.

d)

an irregular heartbeat.

77.

Which of the following is a function of the lymphatic system?

a)

collect and return lost fluid to the circulatory system

b)

carry oxygen or hemoglobin molecules

c)

absorb protein

d)

exchange gases in the lungs

78.

The function of valves in the hear is to

a)

stimulate the heartbeat.

b)

accelerate the flow of blood.

c)

prevent the backward flow of blood.

d)

serve as a cushion to prevent friction.

79.

When the ventricles contract, they increase pressure in the

a)

veins.

b)

arteries.

c)

capillaries.

d)

pharynx.

80.

Which of the following contain hemoglobin, a protein that stores oxygen for delivery to the cells?

a)

red blood cells

b)

white blood cells

c)

plasma

d)

all of the above

81.

When an infection occurs, the number of

a)

red blood cells increases.

b)

red blood cells decreases.

c)

white blood cells increases.

d)

white blood cells decreases.

82.

Which blood cells are most numerous in the body?

a)

red

b)

white

c)

platelets

d)

plasma

83.

What structure is a chamber where the passageways for air and food cross?

a)

pharynx

b)

trachea

c)

larynx

d)

bronchus

84.

Air is filtered, warmed, and moistened in the

a)

nose and mouth.

b)

throat.

c)

lungs.

d)

pharynx.

85.

Which of the following is NOT contained in tobacco?

a)

carbon monoxide

b)

caffeine

c)

nicotine

d)

ammonia

86.

The germ theory of disease states that infectious diseases are caused by

a)

toxins.

b)

pathogens.

c)

heredity.

d)

materials in the environment.

87.

Which of the following is a way that an infectious disease might be transmitted?

a)

through inhalation or physical contact

b)

through contaminated water and food

c)

by infected animals

d)

all of the above

88.

The body's nonspecific defenses against invading pathogens include

a)

antibiotics.

b)

mucus, sweat, and tears.

c)

antibodies.

d)

T cells.

89.

The inflammatory response can cause

a)

permanent immunity.

b)

pain, swelling, and redness.

c)

antibodies to bind to antigens.

d)

T cells to attack infected cells.

90.

An immune response is triggered by a(an)

a)

antibiotic.

b)

antigody.

c)

antigen.

d)

histamine.

91.

Humoral immunity originates from

a)

T cells.

b)

NK cells.

c)

B cells.

d)

macrophages.

92.

If a person has memory B cells against a certain pathogen, the person is

a)

likely to develop that disease.

b)

not likely to develop the disease a second time.

c)

able to spread the disease to others through physical contact.

d)

probably still sick with the disease.

93.

When a person receives a vaccine, his or her body

a)

receives antibodies against a specific pathogen.

b)

produces memory cells that provide resistance to that pathogen.

c)

produces antigens to fight the specific pathogen.

d)

immediately begins fighting the infection caused by the pathogens.

94.

Unlike passive immunity, in active immunity antibodies are produced by

a)

the mother of an infant.

b)

your own body.

c)

other animals.

d)

an autoimmune disease.

95.

What happens when a person who is allergic to ragweed encounters ragweed?

a)

Ragweed antigens bind to mast cells, which release histamine.

b)

Ragweed antibodies attach the immune system.

c)

Mast cells release antihistamines into the bloodstream.

d)

The cells of the immune system become weakened.

96.

Autoimmune diseases result when the immune system

a)

fails to distinguish self from non-self.

b)

overreacts to certain antigens.

c)

is weakened by vaccines.

d)

all of the above.

97.

HIV weakens the immune system by killing mainly

a)

antibodies.

b)

B cells.

c)

helper T cells.

d)

killer T cells.

98.

An example of an autoimmune disease is

a)

AIDS.

b)

allergies.

c)

multiple sclerosis.

d)

strep throat.

99.

An infectious disease is one that is caused by

a)

heredity.

b)

materials in the environment.

c)

pathogens.

d)

an organ transplant.

100.

Which of the following is NOT a step in identifying the pathogen that causes a specific disease?

a)

The pathogen should be found in the body of a healthy organism.

b)

The pathogen should be isolated and grown in a pure culture.

c)

The purified pathogens should cause the same disease in a new host.

d)

The pathogen should be isolated from the second host.

101.

An example of an infectious disease that is caused by a virus is

a)

athlete's foot.

b)

trichinosis.

c)

the common cold.

d)

Lyme disease.

102.

Which of the following is an example of a disease-carrying organism and the disease it spreads?

a)

tall grass and Lyme diseae

b)

the deer tick and Lyme disease

c)

the Nile river and West Nile disease

d)

insecticides and malaria

103.

A person who has received a vaccine against polio

a)

is able to produce antibodies against polio.

b)

is more susceptible to the polio virus than someone who has not had the vaccine.

c)

has polio antibodies in the bloodstream.

d)

has antipolio killer T cells in the bloodstream.

104.

The sneezing, runny nose and itch eyes associated with allergies are caused when

a)

smooth muscles reduce the size of air passageways in the lungs.

b)

the immune system attacks the body's own cells.

c)

mast cells release histamine.

d)

infected cells produce interferon.

105.

The symptoms of the inflammatory response include

a)

runny nose and a cough.

b)

redness, heat, swelling, and pain.

c)

unusual infections of the lungs, mouth, throat, and skin.

d)

formation of a vaccine.

106.

Which of the following presents a risk of spreading HIV?

a)

abstaining from sex

b)

sharing a needle

c)

kissing someone on the cheek

d)

using a sterile needle to receive a medical injection

107.

All of the following are ways that HIV can be spread EXCEPT

a)

sharing needles for intravenous drug use.

b)

tending to another person's bleeding wound when you have a cut on your hand.

c)

using another person's hairbrush.

d)

sexual contact.

108.

Negative feedback means that an increase in a substance will trigger

a)

decreased production of that substance.

b)

increased production of that substance.

c)

increased production of other substances.

d)

stopping the production of another substance.

109.

The function of the kidneys is to regulate the balance of water and salts and to

a)

break down nutrients.

b)

remove wastes.

c)

absorb nutrients.

d)

prevent infection.

110.

In what structure in the image do filtration and reabsorption occur?

a)

kidney

b)

renal vein

c)

urinary bladder

d)

ureter

111.

Dialysis processes blood outside the body and

a)

carries urine to the urinary bladder.

b)

pumps blood thoughout the body.

c)

returns filtered blood to the body.

d)

forces water into cells and tissues by osmosis.

112.

The endocrine system

a)

affects only the excretory system.

b)

releases hormones.

c)

competes with the nervous system.

d)

functions in preventing homeostasis.

113.

The image shows the body's

a)

hormones.

b)

target cells.

c)

endocrine glands.

d)

exocrine glands.

114.

Which structure in the image regulates the level of calcium in the blood?

a)

C

b)

E

c)

F

d)

A

115.

What is the function of the structure labeled F in the image?

a)

to produce sex hormones

b)

to produce thyroxin

c)

to produce insulin and glucagon

d)

to produce releasing hormones

116.

Which structure in the figure releases numerous hormones and regulates many of the other endocrine glands?

a)

B

b)

D

c)

F

d)

H

117.

Which gland fails to produce enough of its hormone in the disease diabetes mellitus?

a)

adrenal

b)

hypothalamus

c)

pancreas

d)

parathyroid

118.

The main organs of the excretory system are the

a)

kidneys.

b)

lungs.

c)

intestines.

d)

adrenals.

119.

Which of the following is NOT part of a nephron?

a)

urethra

b)

tubule

c)

glomerulus

d)

Bowman's capsule

120.

What percentage of the filtrate's water that enters Bowman's capsule is reabsorbed into the blood?

a)

99 percent

b)

80 percent

c)

50 percent

d)

less than 25 percent

121.

When the hypothalamus detects a decreased solute concentration in the blood, it directs the kidneys (through the pituitary) to

a)

excrete less urine.

b)

return more water to the blood by filtration.

c)

return more water to the blood by reabsorption.

d)

return less water to the blood by reabsorption.

122.

Which of the following are involved in regulating the activity of the kidneys?

a)

the composition of the blood

b)

regulatory hormones that are released in response to the composition of blood

c)

both a and b

d)

none of the above

123.

Dialysis performs the function of the

a)

liver.

b)

ureter.

c)

kidneys.

d)

urinary bladder.

124.

What materials are removed from the blood through dialysis?

a)

urea and excess salts

b)

water

c)

ADH and hydrogen

d)

glucose

125.

Unlike nonsteroid hormones, steroid hormones

a)

remain outside the target cell.

b)

bind to receptors inside the target cell.

c)

have no target cells.

d)

are made of proteins.

126.

One way the endocrine system helps maintain homeostasis is by having

a)

each gland secrete only one hormone.

b)

two hormones with opposite effects regulate certain bodily functions.

c)

only steroid hormones regulate important functions.

d)

the pituitary gland regulate all the other glands.

127.

Which endocrine gland secretes sex hormones?

a)

adrenal medulla

b)

testis

c)

hypothalamus

d)

pituitary

128.

Which gland produces epinephrine and norephinephrine in response to stress?

a)

parathyroid

b)

hypothalamus

c)

pituitary

d)

adrenal

129.

Which structure begins production of sperm?

a)

scrotum

b)

epididymis

c)

testis

d)

vas deferens

130.

One menstrual cycle usually lasts about a

a)

day.

b)

week.

c)

month.

d)

year.

131.

During the menstrual cycle, high levels of LH cause the

a)

corpus luteum to disintegrate.

b)

follicle to release a mature egg.

c)

uterine lining to detach from the uterus.

d)

the lining of the uterus to thicken.

132.

Which hormones stimulate sperm production?

a)

FSH and testosterone

b)

estrogens

c)

androgens

d)

testosterone and progesterone

133.

A zygote is a

a)

two-celled embryo.

b)

solid ball of about 50 cells.

c)

blastocyst.

d)

fertilized egg cell.

134.

During the process of fertilization, which step happens first?

a)

The sperm's nucleus enters the oocyte cell.

b)

Enzymes break down the protective layer of the oocyte.

c)

A sperm attaches to an oocyte.

d)

The plasma membrane of the oocyte changes.

135.

What is the result of gastrulation?

a)

a blastocyst

b)

a zygote

c)

the amnion

d)

three cell layers

136.

Which of the following is a function of the placenta?

a)

mixing the blood of the mother and the fetus

b)

protecting the fetus from any drugs or alcohol in the mother's body

c)

transferring nutrients to the fetus

d)

cushioning and protecting the fetus

137.

Which of the following is characteristic of infancy?

a)

rapid physical growth

b)

the start of puberty

c)

menopause

d)

reaching 70 percent of one's adult height

138.

Which of the following usually develop(s) during childhood?

a)

communication skills

b)

social skills

c)

the body and limbs

d)

all of the above

139.

Which of the following is NOT a function of the female reproductive system?

a)

to produce eggs

b)

to prepare the body to carry an embryo

c)

to deliver sperm

d)

to release eggs into the oviducts

140.

Which organ system is responsible for making and delivering sperm?

a)

female reproductive system

b)

endocrine system

c)

nervous system

d)

male reproductive system

141.

Which of the following is NOT a phase in the menstrual cycle?

a)

menstruation

b)

proliferation

c)

fertilization

d)

ovulation

142.

The testes and the ovaries do not begin producing mature reproductive cells until

a)

birth.

b)

fertilization.

c)

gastrulation.

d)

puberty.

143.

Testosterone is needed for the development of

a)

eggs.

b)

sperm.

c)

the uterus.

d)

all of the above

144.

Which of the following are required for fertilization to occur inside the female body?

a)

Sperm must swim into an oviduct.

b)

An oocyte must be present in the oviduct.

c)

The nucleus of a sperm must fuse with an oocyte nucleus.

d)

all of the above

145.

Where does fertilization usually occur?

a)

oviduct

b)

ovary

c)

uterus

d)

vagina

146.

Which of the following forms during gastrulation?

a)

endoderm

b)

ectoderm

c)

mesoderm

d)

all of the above

147.

Which of the following processes happens last?

a)

gastrulation

b)

implantation

c)

fertilization

d)

ovulation

148.

The placenta connects the

a)

fetus to the mother's uterus

b)

ectoderm to the endoderm.

c)

umbilical cord to the mother's vagina.

d)

uterus to the cervix.

149.

Which of the following stages of the human life cycle occurs first?

a)

puberty

b)

adulthood

c)

adolescence

d)

childhood

150.

Which of the following secondary sex characteristics is caused by sex hormones?

a)

deepening of the voice

b)

development of breasts in females

c)

development of facial hair in males

d)

all of the above