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Unit 6: Genetics- Test Review

Total questions: 89

Worksheet time: 1hrs 28mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
In mitosis, the two resulting cells are
a)
different from the starting cell and identical to each other.
b)
different from the starting cell and different from each other.
c)
identical to the starting cell and different from each other.
d)
identical to the starting cell and identical to each other.
2.
In meiosis, crossing over occurs in prophase 1. What is the significance of this event?
a)
This process ensures that chromosomes are evenly divided into daughter cells.
b)
This process can lead to genetic variation in daughter cells.
c)
This process can create gaps in the chromosome DNA for RNA to bind.
d)
This process allows for spindles to connect to the chromosomes in order to pull chromosomes apart.
3.
Creates VARIETY in living things
a)
Mitosis
b)
Meiosis
4.
Another name for a sex cell is a:
a)
gamete
b)
embryo
c)
bone cell
d)
muscle cell
5.
has 1 division
a)
mitosis
b)
meiosis
c)
both
6.

In order for a mutation to be passed from a parent to offspring, what kind of cell must it be found in?

a)

a gamete

b)

an autosome

c)

a dueterosome

d)

a somatic cell

7.

How many chromosomes are contained in a human gamete?

a)

2

b)

20

c)

23

d)

46

8.

How many chromosomes are contained in a human somatic cell?

a)

2

b)

20

c)

23

d)

46

9.
When an area of a chromatid is exchanged with the matching area on a chromatid of its homologous chromosome, _________________ occurs
a)
crossing over
b)
mutagenesis
c)
hybridization
d)
fertilization
10.
The process of crossing over occurs in what phase of meiosis?
a)
anaphase 1
b)
prophase 1
c)
prophase 2
d)
telophase 1
11.
The chromosomes that pair up during meiosis, are called __________ chromosomes.  
a)
homozygous 
b)
asexual
c)
homologous
d)
genes
12.
When homologous chromosomes match up, they form a structure call a ___________.
a)
tetrad
b)
triad
c)
diploid
d)
gamete
13.
What phase is represented?
a)
metaphase 1
b)
metaphase 2
c)
anaphase 1
d)
anaphase 2
14.

The failure of one or more pairs of homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids to separate "normally" during meiosis is called _____________________.

a)

nondisjunction

b)

anaphase I

c)

nondiploidy

d)

karyotype

15.
What is a series of events a cell goes through as they grow and divide?
a)
Cell Division
b)
Cell Cycle
c)
Cytokinesis
d)
Mitosis
16.
During what phase of the cell cycle is DNA replicated?
a)
G1 phase
b)
S phase
c)
G2 phase
d)
M phase
17.
The joining of a sperm cell and an egg cell is called...
a)
Fertilization
b)
Labor
c)
Zygote
d)
STOP ASKING ME THESE IMPOSSIBLE QUETSIONS!!
18.
Which of the following is a phenotype?
a)
Aa
b)
red hair
c)
heterozygous
d)
DNA
19.
Dominant alleles are represented by a:
a)
Male gene
b)
lowercase letter
c)
recessive trait
d)
capital letter
20.
An allele that is hidden when the dominant allele is present.
a)
Dominant Allele
b)
Gene
c)
Recessive Allele
d)
Probability
21.
How many boxes would say BB?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
4
d)
0
22.
What is the genotypic ratio here
a)
TT = 25% Tt= 50% tt=25%
b)
all tall
c)
TT= 75% tt = 25%
d)
Tt = 100%
23.
T - tall and t = short
In the punnett square below, what belongs in the missing square
a)
tt
b)
Tt
c)
Bb
d)
TT
24.
G = green, g = yellow
The genotype for a yellow plant is...
a)
GG
b)
Gg
c)
gg
d)
all of the choices result in yellow
25.
What allele combination should go in the missing box?
a)
AA
b)
Aa
c)
aa
d)
none of these
26.
What allele combination should go in the missing box?
a)
AA
b)
Aa
c)
aa
d)
none of these
27.

Which of Mendel's laws states that alleles are separated during meiosis?

a)

Law of Dominance

b)

Law of Segregation

c)

Law of Independent Assortment

28.

Which of Mendel's laws states that alleles are distributed to gametes independent of one another?

a)

Law of Dominance

b)

Law of Segregation

c)

Law of Independent Assortment

29.

If a dominant allele is present, the trait will always appear in the organism.

a)

Law of Segregation

b)

Law of Dominance

c)

Law of Independent Assortment

30.
What gamete possibilities could come from this parent's genotype?
a)
aB, ab, AB, Ab
b)
aB, Ab, AB, AB
c)
AB, aB, AB, Ab
d)
aB, ab, aB, ab
31.
What gamete possibilities could come from this parent's genotype?
a)
AB, AB, aB, aB
b)
Ab, AB, Ab, ab
c)
Ab, Ab, Ab, Ab
d)
AB, aB, ab, aB
32.
What gamete possibilities could come from this parent's genotype?
a)
aB, ab, AB, Ab
b)
Ab, AB, Ab, AB
c)
AB, AB, Ab, AB
d)
Ab, AB, ab, aB
33.
What goes in box 1
a)
AABb
b)
AABB
c)
aabb
d)
AaBb
34.
What goes in box 2
a)
AABb
b)
AaBb
c)
aabb
d)
AaBB
35.
What goes in box 3
a)
Aabb
b)
AABB
c)
AAbb
d)
aaBb
36.
What goes in box 4
a)
AABb
b)
AABB
c)
AAbb
d)
AaBB
37.
Based off this punnett square, what fraction of the offspring will have wrinkled, yellow seeds?
a)
9/16
b)
3/16
c)
1/16
d)
16/16
38.
Cross Two Homozygous plants
(
RRYY x rryy)
R = round seeds, r  = wrinkled seeds Y = yellow seeds, y = green seeds
What percent will have Round and Yellow seeds? 
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
100%
39.

If a red flower and a white flower are crossed and they exhibit incomplete dominance, what color will the intermediate be?

a)

Red

b)

White

c)

Speckled Red & White

d)

Pink

40.

If a red flower and a white flower are crossed and they exhibit co-dominance, what color will the intermediate be?

a)

Red

b)

White

c)

Speckled Red & White

d)

Pink

41.

Sex-Linked traits are usually...

a)

Dominant

b)

Recessive

42.
This type of inheritance pattern is a MIXTURE of both traits, like the old theory of blending
a)
incomplete dominance
b)
co-dominance
c)
complete dominance
d)
recessive pattern
43.
This type of inheritance pattern shows BOTH traits in possible offspring:
a)
complete dominance
b)
incomplete dominance
c)
co-dominance
d)
Indomitable 
44.
When two or more genes control one single trait.
a)
Multiple Alleles
b)
Several Genes
c)
Polygenetic Traits
d)
Genotype
45.
When two or more alleles for a trait exist in a population.  Ex: Different hair colors or blood types
a)
SHAZAM!
b)
Multiple Genes
c)
Multiple Alleles
d)
Polysaccharide
46.
What is a possible phenotype of a child that results from a woman with type AB blood and a man with type A blood?
a)
OO
b)
type O
c)
AA
d)
type A
47.
___________is the likelihood, or chance, that a certain event will occur.
a)
Chuck Norris
b)
Probability
c)
Locus
d)
Inheritance
48.
What is the gender of the individual whose karyotype is seen in the image?
a)
Male
b)
Female
49.
What would indicate a normal human male?
a)
XX
b)
X
c)
XY
d)
XXY
50.
What is the gender of the individual whose karyotype is seen in the image?
a)
Male
b)
Female
51.
A pair of identical chromosomes shown in a karyotype, one inherited from mom, and one inherited from dad are called
a)
sister chromotids
b)
centromeres
c)
homologous chromosomes
d)
autosomes
52.
Chromosome pairs 1-22 are referred to as
a)
sex chromosomes
b)
sister chromatids
c)
a karyotype
d)
autsomes
53.
The X and Y chromosomes are known as the ___ chromosomes.
a)
sex
b)
autosome
c)
biological
d)
genetic
54.
Females have ____ and males have _____ chromosomes.
a)
XX, XY
b)
XY, XX
c)
XX, XX
d)
XY, XY
55.
How many generations are shown in this pedigree?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
56.
How many girls did the mother and father from the first generation have?
a)
2
b)
4
c)
5
d)
6
57.
How many individuals are there in the 3rd generation?
a)
2
b)
3
c)
4
d)
6
58.
How many people in this whole pedigree have the trait/disease?
a)
2
b)
3
c)
4
d)
6
59.
There are no carriers for Huntington's Disease- you either have it or you don't. Is Huntington's disease caused by a dominant or recessive trait?
a)
Dominant
b)
Recessive
60.
This pedigree represents the inheritance of hemophilia in this family. How many of the females have the hemophilia trait?
a)
8
b)
5
c)
2
d)
3
61.
Does this pedigree show a dominant or recessive trait?
a)
Dominant
b)
Recessive
62.

An insertion or deletion can also be described as a:

a)

Point mutation

b)

Selective Breeding

c)

Frameshift mutation

d)

Natural Selection

63.
ATTTGAGCC- Original
ATTGAGCC - Mutated
The example above is an example of a 
a)
Insertion- Frameshift
b)
Deletion- Substitution
c)
Deletion -Frameshift
d)
All of the above
64.
What mutation has occurred here? 
T-G-A-C-C-A
T-G-A-G-C-A
a)
Substitution
b)
Deletion
c)
Insertion
d)
Frameshift 
65.
Are all mutations bad?
a)
Yes
b)
No
66.

Which of the following does not cause mutations?

a)

X-rays

b)

Chemicals like tobacco or pollutants

c)

Drinking water

d)

UV rays

67.

A factor in the environment that can cause a mutation

a)

mRNA

b)

tRNA

c)

Protein

d)

Mutagen

68.

A mutation is defined as:

a)

A change in the cell's structure

b)

Anything that changes in an embryo

c)

Any change in the physical features of a human

d)

A change in the DNA sequence

69.
What causes mutations?
a)
Mistakes in replication or environmental substances
b)
The amino acids
c)
Passed down by genetics
d)
It's how your born
70.
An example of a mutation where a piece of chromosome breaks off and attaches to another chromosome is called ___.
a)
trisomy
b)
translocation
c)
inversion
d)
deletion
71.

Chromosome mutation involving loss of a section of chromosome/genes.

a)

Deletion

b)

Inversion

c)

Translocation

d)

Removal

72.

Chromosome mutation involving the repeat of a section of chromosome/genes.

a)

Deletion

b)

Inversion

c)

Translocation

d)

Duplication

73.
Identify the mutation in the picture.
a)
Inversion
b)
Deletion
c)
Duplication
d)
Translocation
74.

Which of the following is NOT a type of chromosomal mutations?

a)

deletion

b)

repetition

c)

duplication

d)

inversion

75.
Why are insertion and deletion (frameshift) mutations so harmful?
a)
They change all of the codons from the mutation on down the line, which changes the amino acid sequence
b)
They insert things that an organism doesn't need.
c)
They often delete things that organisms need.
d)
Insertion and deletions are not any more harmful than substitution mutations.
76.
An application of using DNA technology to help environmental scientists would be ___.
a)
use PCR to analyze DNA at a crime scene
b)
create a tobacco plant that glows in the dark
c)
clone the gene for human growth hormone to treat pituitary dwarfism
d)
make transgenic bacteria that can be used to clean up oil spills more quickly than do the natural bacteria
77.
the creation of genetically identical organisms
a)
Bioremediation
b)
Cloning
c)
Gene Therapy
d)
Tissue Culturing
78.
GMO stands for
a)
Genetically Made Organism
b)
Growing More Organisms
c)
Genetically Modified Organism
d)
Growing Many Organisms
79.
What applications can gel electrophoresis be used for?
a)
Parental Testing
b)
Criminal Investigations
c)
Sequence Endangered Species DNA
d)
All of the above
80.
Which DNA fragment bands move faster and farther in a gel electrophoresis? 
a)
there is no way to tell 
b)
the largest ones
c)
the smallest ones
d)
none of these
81.
The main goal of the Human Genome Project (HGP) was to:
a)
Identify the unique parts of each person's DNA.
b)
Identify genes responsible for human diseases.
c)
Identify genes responsible for human behavior.
d)
Determine the entire sequence of human DNA.
82.

This laboratory procedure is known as

a)

CLONING

b)

gel electrophoresis

c)

chromatography

d)

use of a dichotomous key

83.
Which best describes the impact that the Human Genome Project (HGP) has had on society?
a)
It has helped scientists determine that certain genes can cause diseases 
b)
It has led to discrimination against genetically flawed individuals
c)
It has led to the appearance of new diseases
d)
It has cost society billions of dollars without any major benefits
84.
Which term refers to a farmer choosing the best corn from this year to plant next year?
a)
natural selection
b)
selective breeding
c)
genetic engineering
d)
genetic transformation
85.
 This diagram shows the DNA fingerprints of a common ancestor of Deer Species. Which deer species is most related to the common ancestor
a)
2
b)
3
c)
4
86.
Which technique would most likely be used by forensic scientists?  
a)
Cloning
b)
Gene Therapy
c)
DNA Fingerprinting
d)
Karyotyping
87.
Mr. Jones was killed in a car accident.  Afterwards, a former girlfriend filed a paternity suit claiming that Mr. Jones was the father of her child, and thus she was entitled to the man’s estate.  Which sample of DNA would have to be from Mr. Jones if he were the child’s father? 
a)
2
b)
3
c)
4
d)
5
88.
Bob was found dead in his home.  Crime scene analysis showed signs of a struggle.  Blood was collected from the crime scene, the victim, and three suspects.  Which suspect likely committed the crime? 
a)
Sue
b)
Lisa
c)
John
d)
None of these
89.
Which male is the father of this child?
a)
Male 1
b)
Male 2
c)
Neither could be the father
d)
Either could be the father