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Hobart Biology Semester 2 Final Exam Practice

Total questions: 86

Worksheet time: 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

When you have 2 different alleles for a particular trait you are said to be

a)

heterozygous

b)

homozygous

c)

homologous

d)

dominant

e)

recessive

2.

When you have 2 identical alleles you are said to be

a)

heterozygous

b)

homozygous

c)

homologous

d)

dominant

e)

recessive

3.

chromosomes that are the same size, shape, and have the same genetic content are called

a)

heterzygous chromosomes

b)

homozygous chromosomes

c)

sister chromatids

d)

homologous chromosomes

4.

Two identical sides of a chromosome held together by a centromere are called

a)

homologous chromosomes

b)

heterozygous chromosomes

c)

sister chromatids

d)

centrioles

5.

The structure(s) labeled A are

a)

homologous chromosomes

b)

sister chromatids

c)

centromeres

d)

a duplicated chromosome

6.

The structure(s) labeled B are

a)

homologous chromosomes

b)

sister chromatids

c)

centromeres

d)

a duplicated chromosome

7.

The structure(s) labeled C are

a)

homologous chromosomes

b)

sister chromatids

c)

centromeres

d)

a duplicated chromosome

8.

The structure(s) labeled C are

a)

homologous chromosomes

b)

sister chromatids

c)

centromeres

d)

a duplicated chromosome

9.

When cells lose their ability to regulate their growth rate which disease may occur

a)

tay sachs

b)

cancer

c)

sickle cell anemia

d)

cystic fibrosis

e)

down syndrome

10.

Who is known as the Father of Genetics

a)

Watson & Crick

b)

Gregor Mendel

c)

Charles Darwin

d)

Hershey & Chase

11.

Who discovered DNA is in the shape of a double helix

a)

Watson & Crick

b)

Gregor Mendel

c)

Charles Darwin

d)

Hershey & Chase

12.

Who discovered the process of evolution by means of natural selection

a)

Watson & Crick

b)

Gregor Mendel

c)

Charles Darwin

d)

Hershey & Chase

13.

What stage of Mitosis is cell A in?

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase & cytokinesis

14.

What stage of Mitosis is cell B in?

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase & cytokinesis

15.

What stage of Mitosis is cell C in?

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase & cytokinesis

16.

What stage of Mitosis is cell D in?

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase & cytokinesis

17.

What process creates new somatic (body) cells?

a)

mitosis

b)

meiosis

c)

transcription

d)

translation

18.

What process creates gametes?

a)

mitosis

b)

meiosis

c)

transcription

d)

translation

19.

If a puppy has a recessive allele for long hair, it will produce

a)

long hair if it also has a dominant allele for short hair

b)

both long hairs and short if it also has a dominant allele for short hair

c)

long hair if it does not also have a dominant allele for short hair

d)

short hair if it does not also have a dominant allele for short hair

20.

Brown eyes (B) are dominant to blue eyes (b), in a cross between a person who is Bb and another person who is bb, which of the following would be predicted of their children

a)

About half will be blue eyed

b)

About three fourths will to be brown eyed.

c)

all will be brown eyed

d)

all will be blue eyed

21.

If you were to cross two heterozygous parents, what is the probability that their offspring will express the dominant trait?

a)

100%

b)

75%

c)

25%

d)

50%

e)

0%

22.

If you were to cross two heterozygous parents, what is the probability that their offspring will express the recessive trait?

a)

100%

b)

75%

c)

25%

d)

50%

e)

0%

23.

Organisms that have two identical alleles for a particular trait are said to be

a)

homologous

b)

heterozygous

c)

homozygous

d)

hybrid

24.

Sex cells with only 1 set of chromosomes are known as

a)

somatic cells

b)

body cells

c)

clones

d)

gametes

25.

Where is DNA located in prokaryotes

a)

nucleus

b)

cytoplasm

c)

cell membrane

d)

ribosome

26.

In eukaryotes, where is DNA located and replicated

a)

ribosomes

b)

golgi

c)

cytoplasm

d)

nucleus

27.

If an organism’s diploid number is 22 in its body cells, its haploid number for its gametes is ________

a)

11

b)

44

c)

22

d)

none of the above

28.

An exchange of information between two non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes is known as

a)

CRISPR

b)

random fertilization

c)

independent assortment

d)

crossing over

29.

Which of the following is NOT a diploid cell

a)

skin cell

b)

sperm cell

c)

stomach cell

d)

brain cell

30.

Which of the following is NOT a haploid cell

a)

egg cell

b)

sperm cell

c)

skin cell

d)

gamete

31.

What percentage of a couple’s offspring are predicted to contain XX chromosomes

a)

100%

b)

75%

c)

50%

d)

25%

e)

0%

32.

How many chromosomes do humans have

a)

2

b)

23

c)

46

d)

92

33.

How many pairs of chromosomes do humans have

a)

2

b)

23

c)

46

d)

92

34.

What do you call a picture of all 46 human chromosomes lined up biggest to smallest as homologous pairs

a)

punnett square

b)

cladogram

c)

pedigree

d)

karyotype

35.

Why are x-linked recessive traits more common in males than females

a)

the allele is dominant and located on the X chromosome.

b)

the allele is recessive and located on the X chromosome.

c)

the allele is dominant and located on the Y chromosome.

d)

the allele is recessive and located on the Y chromosome.

36.

Which of the following combinations of sex chromosomes represents a normal female

a)

XX

b)

XY

c)

XXY

d)

XYY

37.

Which of the following combinations of sex chromosomes represents a normal male

a)

XX

b)

XY

c)

XXY

d)

XYY

38.

An individual with an extra copy of the 21st chromosome will be diagnosed with

a)

cystic fibrosis

b)

sickle cell anmeia

c)

down syndrome

d)

tay sachs disease

39.

A diagram that follows the inheritance of a single gene through several generations of a family is known as

a)

a punnett square

b)

a karyotype

c)

a cladogram

d)

a pedigree

40.

The pedigree shows the inheritance of Huntingtons isease, an autosomal dominant trait. How many MEN have huntingtons disease?

a)

0

b)

2

c)

4

d)

5

e)

6

41.

Humans have how many chromosomes that are considered autosomes?

a)

23

b)

46

c)

22

d)

44

42.

In DNA, adenine is always present in the same amount as

a)

cytosine

b)

thymine

c)

guanine

d)

uracil

43.

In DNA, guanine is always present in the same amount as

a)

cytosine

b)

thymine

c)

adenine

d)

uracil

44.

What enzyme connects nucleotides to build a new strand of DNA during replication

a)

topoisomerase

b)

RNA polymerase

c)

DNA polymerase

d)

helicase

45.

Which of the following could NOT be part of a DNA nucleotide

a)

deoxyribose

b)

thymine

c)

phosphate

d)

uracil

46.

Which of the following could NOT be part of an RNA nucleotide

a)

ribose

b)

thymine

c)

phosphate

d)

uracil

47.

Which of the following could make up one nucleotide found in DNA

a)

adenine + phosphate group + cytosine

b)

deoxyribose + phosphate group + polymerase

c)

cytosine + phosphate + ribose

d)

deoxyribose + phosphate group + thymine

48.

EVERY nucleotide is made up of which of the following (choose all that apply)

a)

sugar

b)

phosphate

c)

uracil

d)

nitrogen base

49.

If a DNA strand reads

CCGA

Its complementary strand will be

a)

CCGA

b)

GGCT

c)

GGCU

d)

CCGU

50.

If the percentage of cytosine bases is 32%, what is the percentage of adenine bases?

a)

32%

b)

18%

c)

36%

d)

16%

51.

Which of the following is in DNA or RNA, but not both?

a)

sugar

b)

phosphate

c)

adenine

d)

uracil

52.

Which of the following is in DNA or RNA, but not both?

a)

ribose

b)

phosphate

c)

adenine

d)

guanine

53.

Which of the following is found in DNA & RNA?

a)

ribose

b)

phosphate

c)

uracil

d)

thymine

e)

deoxyribose

54.

RNA is produced during

a)

translation

b)

replication

c)

transcription

d)

crossing over

55.

Proteins are produced during

a)

translation

b)

replication

c)

transcription

d)

crossing over

56.

Which of the following carries information necessary to create a protein outside the nucleus

a)

DNA

b)

rRNA

c)

tRNA

d)

mRNA

57.

Which of the following helps form a ribosome

a)

DNA

b)

rRNA

c)

tRNA

d)

mRNA

58.

Which of the following brings amino acids to a ribosome

a)

DNA

b)

rRNA

c)

tRNA

d)

mRNA

59.

What is the name of the enzyme that "unzips" DNA by breaking the hydrogen bonds that hold the 2 strands together?

a)

helicase

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

RNA polymerase

d)

catalase

60.

Which cell part is responsible for TRANSLATION

a)

nucleus

b)

cytoplasm

c)

ribosome

d)

mitochondria

61.

Insertion mutations occur when

a)

a base is lost from the DNA

b)

a base is added to the DNA

c)

a base is changed to a different base in the DNA

d)

none of these

62.

Deletion mutations occur when

a)

a base is lost from the DNA

b)

a base is added to the DNA

c)

a base is changed to a different base in the DNA

d)

none of these

63.

Sometimes point mutations have no effect on the sequence of amino acids in a protein

a)

true

b)

false

64.

Mutations can sometimes be beneficial to organisms

a)

true

b)

false

65.

During what process are amino acids linked together to build a protein

a)

transcription

b)

translation

c)

replication

d)

DNA synthesis

66.

Which of the following is an example of artificial selection

a)

when birds evolve to have different beak shapes based on the type of food available to them

b)

when moths evolve to have more pigment making them darker so they blend in better in polluted environments

c)

when a breed of cow evolves to produce more milk due to selective breeding by humans

d)

when cats evolve to have retractable claws to better climb trees

67.

Which of the following is NOT a condition necessary for natural selection?

a)

some individuals survive and reproduce more successfully than others.

b)

there is heritable variation among members of the population.

c)

more offspring are born than can survive.

d)

population size is very large.

68.

According to Charles Darwin, fitness is

a)

how strong an organism is

b)

how healthy an organism is

c)

the ability of an organism to survive and reproduce in its specific environment

d)

the when the metabolism of an organism allows it to build more muscle and recover from injury

69.

An adaptation is best described as

a)

a feature that allows an organism to survive better in its environment

b)

feature acquired by an organism through use or disuse that makes it stronger

c)

a feature that helps individuals change to changing temperatures

70.

Structures present in modern animals that are no longer useful, such as the appendix or wisdom teeth, are called

a)

analagous structures

b)

homologous structures

c)

vestigial structures

d)

acquired traits

71.

The fact that embryos from humans, chickens, and fish all look so similar is evidence that

a)

that they can interbreed but do not produce fertile species

b)

they share a common ancestor

c)

that humans evolved from chickens which evolved from fish

d)

that they are all members of the same species

72.

a gene pool is

a)

all genes found in different species

b)

all genes carried by members of one family

c)

all genes found in an individual organism

d)

all the genes carried by members of a particular population

73.

cloning results in genetic variation

a)

true

b)

false

74.

In a clover population, the allele frequency of a gene for4 leafed clovers changes from 3% percent to 12% percent. What can you say about that population

a)

the population is evolving

b)

the population is expanding

c)

the population is decreasing.

d)

the population is in genetic equilibrium

75.

a population is

a)

All the nonliving and living organisms that live in a particular area

b)

All the different species that live in a particular area

c)

All the individuals of a species that live in a particular area

d)

only the nonliving things found in a particular area

76.

Which of the following is an example of geographic isolation

a)

separation of populations by barriers such as rivers, mountains, or bodies of water

b)

separation of populations by when they breed, for example one group breed in the spring and another group breeds in the fall

c)

mechanical isolation due to a difference in size

d)

none of these

77.

Which of the following is an example of reproductive isolation

a)

separation of populations by barriers such as rivers, mountains, or bodies of water

b)

temporal separation of populations such as when they breed at different times.For example one group breed in the spring and another group breeds in the fall

c)

mechanical isolation due to a difference in size

d)

none of these

78.

When two very distantly related species evolve separately for a very long time, which of the following should be true

a)

have very different proteins and genes

b)

have very similar proteins and genes

c)

they have no proteins and genes in common

d)

they have identical proteins and genes

79.

Which of the following is used to show how different species of organisms are related

a)

pedigrees

b)

punnett squares

c)

cladograms

d)

all of these

80.

Natural selection acts on

a)

phenotypes and genotypes equally

b)

neither phenotypes nor genotypes

c)

genotypes

d)

phenotypes

81.

What is the process that occurs when two populations evolve so differently that they can no longer reproduce fertile offspring

a)

speciation

b)

taxonomy

c)

crossing over

d)

independent assortment

82.

Which of the following shows the correct flow of information

a)

RNA → DNA → Proteins

b)

DNA → Polysaccharides → RNA

c)

DNA → RNA → Proteins

d)

RNA → DNA → Polysaccharides

83.

alleles are

a)

different forms of the same gene

b)

identical forms of the same gene

c)

genes for different traits

d)

none of these

84.

In a punnett square, each box represents

a)

mitosis

b)

meiosis

c)

crossing over

d)

fertilization

85.

How many alleles does a baby inherit from each parent

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

86.

meiosis produces

a)

body cells

b)

autosomes

c)

somatic cells

d)

gametes

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