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PBS EOC (Final Exam) Review

Total questions: 132

Worksheet time: 4hrs 24mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A Crime Scene Investigator (CSI) is called to the scene of a mysterious death. Which of the following is NOT one of the initial steps used to process a crime scene?

a)

Interview witnesses to establish a theory of the case.

b)

Examine the crime scene and mark any evidence.

c)

Perform DNA analysis on all biological samples.

d)

Sketch a diagram of the crime scene.

2.

Investigators collected the following evidence from a crime scene: Type A blood, Dyed brown hair, Whorl pattern fingerprint, and a Shoe print. Suspect #1 was found to have type A blood, dyed brown hair, low similarities in fingerprint match and hiking shoes. Which of the following could be used to potentially eliminate suspect #1 as a suspect?

a)

Blood type A

b)

Dyed brown hair

c)

The fingerprint

3.

The graph represents the diameter of the bloodstain (cm) versus the height from which it was dropped (cm). Using the graph, from what height was the blood most likely dropped that would result in a blood stain pattern with a diameter of 1.9 cm?

a)

80cm

b)

120cm

c)

150cm

d)

200cm

4.

A student tested four unknown food samples for their nutritional content. The student's results are recorded in the table below. According to the table, which unknown sample would be the least healthiest choice?

a)

Unknown sample 1

b)

Unknown sample 2

c)

Unknown sample 3

d)

Unknown sample 4

5.

On a cold day, a person's body temperature begins to drop. The cold stimulates this person's brain cells. The brain cells send a signal to other cells that release a hormone that starts a biochemical pathway. This increases the metabolic activity of the cells of the person's body. The increased cellular activity produces heat. This heat helps restore this person's normal body temperature. When the body temperature is normal, the brain cells stop sending a signal. Which type of process does this example describe?

a)

A positive feedback loop

b)

A cause-effect feedback loop

c)

A negative feedback loop

d)

A neutral feedback loop

6.

The diagram represents the molecular structure of an organic compound. Which class of macromolecules uses this structure as a building block?

a)

Fats

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

Nucleic Acids

d)

Proteins

7.

Which statement best describes how complex molecules in food are broken down into simpler molecules?

a)

Sugars break down into starch

b)

Monosaccharides break down into polysaccharides

c)

Triglycerides break down into lipids

d)

Proteins break down into amino acids

8.

What does an elevated white blood cell count typically indicate?

a)

A defect in the liver

b)

Anemia

c)

A rise in oxygen concentration

d)

An infection

9.

Which of the following describes how the protein hemoglobin helps red blood cells?

a)

It carries oxygen to the tissues of the body

b)

It monitors glucose levels in the body

c)

It protects the body from viruses and bacteria

d)

It carries oxygen to the tissues of the body

10.

What is the primary factor that determines the three-dimensional shape of a protein?

a)

The structure of the peptide bonds

b)

The sequence of amino acids

c)

The sequence of peptide bonds

d)

The structure of amino acids

11.

What is the term for distinct segments of DNA that differ from person to person?

a)

Chromosomes

b)

Traits

c)

Nucleotides

d)

Genes

12.

How are sickled red blood cells different from normal red blood cells?

a)

Sickled red blood cells have an increased ability to fight infections

b)

Sickled red blood cells have an increased ability to carry wastes

c)

Sickled red blood cells have a decreased ability to carry oxygen

d)

Sickled red blood cells have a decreased ability to carry nutrients

13.

Which statement about blood pressure is true?

a)

The top number of blood pressure reading represents the pressure exerted on the vessels when the heart is relaxing

b)

Factors that can increase blood pressure include stress, a high salt diet, and cholesterol buildup in the blood vessels

c)

Blood pressure can be measured directly with an EKG

d)

A blood pressure reading of 160/100 is considered a healthy blood pressure

14.

Both the respiratory system and circulatory system are necessary for the delivery of oxygen to body tissues. Which statement correctly explains how these two systems work together?

a)

The lungs supply the oxygen and the veins deliver the oxygen to the body

b)

Capillaries surround the alveoli and allow oxygen to diffuse into the blood stream to be transported to body tissues

c)

White blood cells bind to oxygen from the lungs and carry the oxygen to the body tissues

d)

Oxygenated blood moves from the bronchial tubes to the aorta and then is transported to the body tissues

15.

Which condition would be a consequence of a malfunction in the large intestine?

a)

Acid reflux

b)

Salivation

c)

Diarrhea

d)

Ulcers

16.

How does the urinary system maintain cellular homeostasis?

a)

Delivers oxygen to cells

b)

Regulates water balance

c)

Separates damaged cells

d)

Regulates blood sugar

17.
What is the role of an restriction enzyme?
a)
Create a pattern of a person's DNA
b)
Act as molecular scissors that cut DNA
c)
Separate and compare different DNA sequences
d)
Produce millions of copies of DNA
18.
What is the structure of purines?
a)
A single 5 carbon ring
b)
A single 6 carbon ring
c)
A double ring with one six carbon and one 5 carbon ring
d)
A double ring with two four carbon rings
19.
Who should the lawyer request a warrant for?
a)
Suspect 1
b)
Suspect 2
c)
Suspect 3
d)
Suspect 4
20.
_______ has a double ring structure and is an example of a _______
a)
adenine... purine
b)
thymine... pyrimidine
c)
cytosine.....purine
d)
guanine....pyrimidine
21.
Mr. Krabbs is trying a new money making scheme.  On Tuesdays he is selling his crabby patties on colored buns.  He usually averages 25 customers per day.  On Tuesdays he now averages 27 customers. 
What was the control?
a)
The customers 
b)
The crabby patty
c)
The colored buns
d)
The number of customers
22.
What is produced as a result of DNA being cut by restriction enzymes?
a)
Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphisms 
b)
Restriction Fragmented Long Palindromes
c)
Polymerase Chain Reaction
d)
Polymorphic Fragment Chains
23.
DNA is ________ charged and migrates to the ________ end of the gel.
a)
negative, positive
b)
positive, negative
c)
negative, neutral
d)
positive, neutral
24.
What is the backbone of DNA made out of?
a)
Phosphates and sugars
b)
Basepairs
c)
Deoxyribose
d)
Hydrogen bonds
25.
A and T make a _____ bond; they are held together by _______ bonds.
a)
triple... hydrogen
b)
double... nitrogen
c)
double... hydrogen
d)
triple... nitrogen
26.
Which of the following most likely would contain a good DNA sample?
a)
Shoeprint
b)
Tabletop
c)
Syringe
d)
Blood
27.
Body system that includes lymph nodes, spleen, thymus and bone marrow
a)
Endocrine
b)
Integumentary
c)
Immune
d)
Urinary
28.
What can be used to determine time of death?
a)
Blood pressure
b)
Fingerprints
c)
Skin texture
d)
Body Temperature
29.
Which person is a physician (medical doctor) who performs an autopsy and can determine manner and cause of death?
a)
Coroner
b)
Toxicologist
c)
Medical Examiner
d)
Forensic Anthropologist
30.
Which DNA fragment would end up closest to the top of gel (where the DNA is loaded into the wells)?
a)
100 bp
b)
1,000 bp
c)
5,000 bp
d)
10,000 bp
31.
If adenine makes up 20% of DNA, what percent is thymine?
a)
20%
b)
10%
c)
30%
d)
60%
32.
Which body system is responsible for sending signals with hormones?
a)
Immune
b)
Nervous
c)
Endocrine
d)
Digestive
33.
Which body system is responsible for pumping blood and transporting oxygen?
a)
Circulatory system
b)
Respiratory System
c)
Muscular System
d)
Digestive System
34.
Which body system is involved with breaking down food and absorbing nutrients to give the body energy?
a)
Muscular
b)
Digestive
c)
Immune
d)
Endocrine
35.
When can a doctor give permission to a patients mother?
a)
The person is under 18
b)
When the person cannot be reached by phone
c)
When the person has given consent to the doctor
d)
When the mother tells the doctor it is okay
36.
Mary's husband come to the doctor with her and demands to know the results of her blood test.  He begins yelling at the nurse.  The nurse gives him the records- was HIPAA violated?
a)
Yes, he is not entitled to know her information just because he came to the doctor's office.
b)
No, He came with his wife to the doctor and she never told the nurse not to say anything.
c)
Yes, because he should not be yelling at the nurse
d)
No, husbands and wives are exempt from HIPAA
37.
Andy went to the middle east and came back with the measles.  He doesn't want anyone to know and asks his nurse to not tell anyone.  The nurse notifies public health authorities anyway.  Was HIPAA violated?
a)
Yes, the patient specifically asked her to protect his privacy.
b)
No, measles is a public health concern and trumps the patient's entitlement to privacy
c)
It depends on if the nurse has proper clearance from her boss.
38.
Which individual(s) has/have Type 1 diabetes?
a)
Anna only
b)
Patient A
c)
Patients A and B
d)
Patient B and Anna
39.
Which hormone is produced when blood sugar is LOW?
a)
glucagon
b)
insulin
c)
glucose
d)
pancreasome
40.
If a person has LOW blood sugar, they have
a)
hypoglycemia
b)
hyperglycemia
41.
Cells exposed to HIGH concentrations of sugar will
a)
expand
b)
shrink
c)
not change
d)
expand and then shrink
42.
Control of blood sugar levels in the body is an example of a
a)
positive feedback loop
b)
negative feedback loop
c)
neutral feedback loop
d)
cause-effect feedback loop
43.
What organ secretes digestive enzymes and make insulin 
a)
Spleen 
b)
Pancreas 
c)
Liver 
d)
Lungs 
44.
The normal range for resting blood sugar is 
a)
30-69 mg/dL
b)
70-130 mg/dL
c)
160-280 mg/dL 
d)
425 mg/dL
45.
Untreated diabetes may result in all of the following except 
a)
Blindness 
b)
 Cardiovascular disease 
c)
kidney disease 
d)
genetic mutations 
46.
Individuals that suffer from diabetes experience increased concentrations of sugar in the blood known as ____. This condition causes the blood to be a ____solution. 
a)
hypoglycemia;hypertonic 
b)
hyperglycemia; hypotonic 
c)
hypoglycemia; hypotonic 
d)
hyperglycemia ;hypertonic 
47.
The type of cells that make glucagon.
a)
alpha cells of pancreas
b)
beta cells of pancreas
c)
liver
d)
brain
48.
Identify symptoms associated with Type I Diabetes
I. Weight gain
II. Decreased urination
III. Feeling hungry
IV. Feeling thirsty
V. Weight loss
VI. Hyperactivity
a)
All of these
b)
I, III, V, VI
c)
III, IV, and V
d)
II, IV, VI
49.
Out of the following, this is a treatment for Type 1 diabetes.
I. A diet low in carbs
II. Exercise
III. Insulin
IV. Anti-viral drugs
V. Warmer climates
a)
All of these
b)
I, II, III, and V
c)
III
d)
III and V
50.
Processes that amplify a response to an external stimulus are known as
a)
positive feedback loops
b)
negative feedback loops
c)
external stimuli
d)
internal stimuli
51.
Failure to maintain homeostasis could result in:
a)
lack of internal balance
b)
eventual death
c)
difficulty carrying on metabolism 
d)
all three
52.
Negative Feedback Loops:
a)
amplify processes
b)
prevent small changes from getting larger
c)
are initiated during childbirth
d)
are found only in plants
53.
Maintaining body temperature is an example of a:
a)
negative feedback loop
b)
positive feedback loop
54.
The process of childbirth is an example of:
a)
negative feedback loop
b)
positive feedback loop
55.
Which organ belong with this system: endocrine
a)
kidneys
b)
glands
c)
brain
d)
bones
56.
Which individual(s) has/have diabetes?
a)
Anna and Patients A and B
b)
Patient A only
c)
Patient B and Anna
d)
Patient A and Anna
57.
What is a lipoprotein?
a)
a fat that carries protein in the blood
b)
a protein that carries cholesterol in the blood
c)
a cell that carries blood to the liver
d)
a cell that transforms cholesterol into protein
58.

Which lipoprotein takes up more room?

a)

LDL

b)

HDL

59.
Which lipoprotein decreases your chances of heart disease?
a)
HDL
b)
LDL
c)
PDL
d)
BDL
60.
LDL cholesterol levels should be under ____ mg/dL.
a)
50
b)
100
c)
150
d)
200
61.
What process is used to analyze the DNA? (what we did in lab)
a)
Centrifuge
b)
Transcription
c)
Electrophoresis
d)
Protein synthesis
62.
DNA has an overall charge of __________.
a)
positive
b)
negative
c)
neutral
63.

Can someone be a carrier of the FH gene? Why or why not?

a)

Yes, because it is recessive

b)

Yes, because it is dominant

c)

No, because it is recessive

d)

No, because it is dominant

64.
Draw a Punnett Square of a heterozygous male & heterozygous female with FH. What is the % chance of a child without FH?
a)
100%
b)
75%
c)
50%
d)
25%
65.
What is atherosclerosis?
a)
Plaque build up in the inner walls of arteries
b)
Plaque build up in the heart chambers
c)
Quivering contraction of the ventricles
d)
Quivering contraction of the atria
66.
What is angioplasty?
a)
Use of a balloon & stent to move plaque and reinforce the wall
b)
Use of a balloon to move plaque to clear pathway
c)
Use of new vessel to go around the blocked section of blood flow
67.
What is coronary artery bypass graft?
a)
Use of a balloon & stent to move plaque and reinforce the wall
b)
Use of a balloon to move plaque to clear pathway
c)
Use of new vessel to go around the blocked section of blood flow
68.
What is the medical term for heart attack?
a)
Myocardial infarction
b)
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
c)
Commotio cordis
d)
Myocardial difibrilation
69.
Which side of the heart pumps oxygen-rich blood to the rest of the body?
a)
Right
b)
Left
70.
Name the part.
a)
Pulmonary vein
b)
Right atrium
c)
Aorta
d)
Pulmonary artery
71.
Name the part.
a)
Left ventricle
b)
Vena cava
c)
Right atrium
d)
Right ventricle
72.
Name this part.
a)
Superior vena cava
b)
Right ventricle
c)
Inferior vena cava
d)
Pulmonary vein
73.
Name this part.
a)
Pulmonary veins
b)
Left atrium
c)
Aorta
d)
Pulmonary artery
74.
Name this part.
a)
Pulmonary veins
b)
Left atrium
c)
Aorta
d)
Pulmonary artery
75.
Name this part.
a)
Superior vena cava
b)
Right ventricle
c)
Right atrium
d)
Inferior vena cava
76.
There are no carriers for Huntington's Disease- you either have it or you don't. Is Huntington's disease caused by a dominant or recessive trait?
a)
Dominant
b)
Recessive
77.
What does this shape represent in a pedigree?
a)
Not affected Female (doesn't have the trait)
b)
Not affected Male (doesn't have the trait)
c)
Affected Male (has the trait)
d)
Affected Female (has the trait)
78.
What does this shape represent in a pedigree?
a)
Not affected male (doesn't have the trait)
b)
Not affected female (doesn't have the trait)
c)
Affected male (has the trait)
d)
Affected female (has the trait)
79.
If hemophilia is a sex-linked recessive trait, what genotype would individual I-2 have?
a)
XBXb
b)
XbXb
c)
XBY
d)
XbY
80.
Hand washing is an example of a(n)_______ technique.
a)
sterile
b)
aseptic
c)
antiseptic
d)
clean
81.
Infection and disease are caused by microorganisms called pathogens.
a)
True
b)
False
82.
What is the best environment for microorganisms to grow?
a)
sunny, cold and dry
b)
hot and dry
c)
warm, dark and moist
d)
cold and wet
83.
These bacteria are
a)
gram positive
b)
gram negative
c)
nonliving
d)
viral
84.
These bacteria are
a)
nonliving
b)
gram positive
c)
gram negative
d)
gram positive and gram negative
85.
These bacteria are
a)
gram positive and negative
b)
gram positive
c)
gram negative
d)
viral
86.

What shape are these bacterium?

a)

coccus

b)

bacillus

c)

spirilla

d)

none of these

87.

What shape are these bacterium?

a)

coccus

b)

bacillus

c)

spirilla

d)

none of these

88.
Which is applied first in gram staining?
a)
alcohol
b)
grams iodine
c)
crystal violet
d)
safranin
89.
Which is applied last in gram staining?
a)
alcohol
b)
crystal violet
c)
safranin
d)
grams iodine
90.
Bacteria are classified by
a)
shape
b)
gram staining + or -
c)
both of these
91.
Which  is an example of a non-specific immune response
a)
T-Cells
b)
Memory Cells
c)
White Blood Cells
d)
Antibodies
92.
A disease that is spread through living organisms is known as
a)
A non-infectious disease
b)
A Bacterial Infection
c)
An infectious disease
d)
A virus
93.
Most viruses do not kill humans. Why not?
a)
Viruses can only kill bacterial cells
b)
Humans have 100 trillion cells; viruses can't infect enough to kill
c)
Our immune cells hunt and kill viruses
d)
We have vaccines for all viruses
94.
Herd immunity is most effective at protecting infants and others who cannot have vaccines when
a)
everyone under 18 is vaccinated
b)
a high proportion of all people are vaccinated
c)
factory farming is outlawed
d)
antibiotic are used to treat viral infections
95.
What do all viruses need to reproduce?
a)
They need host genetic material
b)
They need a host cell
c)
They need bacteria
d)
They need insulin
96.
The reason that viruses are considered to be nonliving is because
a)
They are not cellular
b)
They cannot reproduce on their own
c)
They cannot make proteins
d)
all of the above
97.
Why is it important to complete a course of antibiotics?
a)
to prevent antibiotic resistance
b)
so you do not waste drugs
c)
because antibiotics are good for you
98.
A disease spread through the air is called...
a)
Airborne 
b)
Dropletborne
c)
Bareborne
d)
Waterborne 
99.
What is the first line of defense against pathogens?
a)
B cells
b)
T cells
c)
Skin 
d)
Phagocytes
100.
Hemoglobin is a _______.
a)
protein
b)
parasite
c)
plasma
101.
Most animal cells have an outer-layer that protects the inside; like our skull protects our brains. This protective layer is called:
a)
hemoglobin
b)
mitochondria 
c)
cytoplasm
d)
membrane
102.
Red blood cells carry _______.
a)
blood
b)
oxygen
c)
water
103.
In this Punnet Square, the mother has two __________ genes.
a)
recessive
b)
dominant
104.

Which of the following is not true about Sickle Cell Anemia?

a)

It is most common among those of African descent.

b)

It is caused by the genetic mutation that replaces GLU with VAL in the hemoglobin protein

c)

It is caused by a frame shift mutation

d)

It has a protective factor for malaria

105.
sickle cell anemia causes an abnormal shape of the ...
a)
platelets
b)
leukocytes
c)
blood vessels
d)
erythrocytes
106.
The function of erythrocytes is to transport ______ to the lungs.
a)
oxygen
b)
protein
c)
carbon dioxide
d)
platelets
107.
Pale yellow fluid portion of whole blood that consists of water & its dissolved constituents
a)
Plasma
b)
Leukocytes
c)
Anemia
d)
Erythropoietin
108.

The reason someone dies is called the:

a)

type of death

b)

manner of death

c)

cause of death

d)

mechanism of death

109.
What is the MOST common manner of death?
a)
homicide
b)
accidental
c)
undetermined
d)
natural
110.

A method for the differential staining of bacteria that involves fixing the bacterial cells to a slide and staining with crystal violet and iodine, then washing with alcohol, and counterstaining with safranin. Results in gram-positive bacteria retaining the purple dye and gram-negative organisms having it decolorized so that the red counterstain shows up.

a)

Gram Stain

b)

Aseptic Technique

c)

Microbiology

d)

Transmission

111.

A spherical bacterium.

a)

Coccus

b)

Bacillus

c)

Spirillum

d)

Prion

112.
A comprehensive set of standards and practices designed to give patients specific rights regarding their personal health information.
a)
Protected health information(PHI)
b)
Manner of Death
c)
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
d)
Cause of death
113.
The way to categorize death. The classifications are natural, accident, suicide, homicide, undetermined.
a)
Manner of death
b)
Method of death
c)
Mode of death
d)
Cause of death
114.
The disease or injury that initiated the train of morbid events leading directly to death or the circumstances of the accident or violence that produced the injury.
a)
Cause of death
b)
Manner of death
c)
Method of death
d)
Mechanism of death
115.

A measure of cardiac activity usually expressed as the number of beats per minute.

a)

heart rate

b)

Pulse

c)

Carotid pulse

d)

Radial pulse

116.

The rhythmic expansion and recoil of arteries resulting from heart contraction; can be felt from the outside of the body.

a)

Blood pressure

b)

Pulse

c)

Hypertension

d)

systolic pressure

117.

Located by sliding your fingers alongside your jaw bone and down into the depression on the side of your neck.

a)

pacemaker

b)

Heart Rate

c)

Radial pulse

d)

Carotid pulse

118.

This is rhythmic expansion and recoil of arteries resulting from heart contraction, wwhich can be located at the wrist.

a)

Carotid pulse

b)

Radial pulse

c)

diastolic pressure

d)

Bundle branches

119.

Pressure exerted by the blood upon the walls of the blood vessels, especially arteries, usually measured by means of a sphygmomanometer and expressed in millimeters of mercury.

a)

Electrocardiogram

b)

systolic pressure

c)

diastolic pressure

d)

blood pressure

120.

A measurement of heart electrical activity.

a)

Sphygmomanometer

b)

Electrocardiogram

c)

Pacemaker

d)

Purkinje fibers

121.

An electrical device for stimulating or steadying the heartbeat or reestablishing the rhythm of an arrested heart.

a)

Sinoatrial (SA) node

b)

pacemaker

c)

Atrioventricular (AV) node

d)

Bundle branches

122.

A small mass of tissue that is made up of Purkinje fibers, ganglion cells, and nerve fibers, that is embedded in the musculature of the right atrium, and that originates the impulses stimulating the heartbeat

a)

Bundle branches

b)

Atrioventricular (AV) bundle

c)

Sinoatrial (SA) node

d)

Purkinje fibers

123.

Unique cardiac end-organ. Further histologic examination reveals that thesefibers are split in ventricles walls.

a)

Pacemaker

b)

Bundle Branches

c)

Purkinje fibers

d)

Electrocardiogram

124.
A test of the body’s ability to metabolize glucose that involves the administration of a measured dose of glucose to the fasting stomach and the determination of blood glucose levels in the blood or urine at intervals thereafter and that is used especially to detect diabetes.
a)
glucose tolerance testing
b)
Gel Electroperesis
125.
Diabetes of a form that develops especially in adults and most often obese individuals and that is characterized by high blood glucose resulting from impaired insulin utilization coupled with the body’s inability to compensate with increased insulin production.
a)
Type 2 Diabetes
b)
Type 1 Diabetes
126.
A double-stranded, helical nucleic acid molecule capable of replicating and determining the inherited structure of a cell’s proteins.
a)
Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphisms
b)
Deoxyribonucleic Acid
c)
Restriction enzymes
d)
Polymerase Chain Reaction
127.
The nucleotides link together in a series spiraling clockwise around a central axis forming a twisted ladder structure
a)
Genes
b)
double helix
c)
Chromosomes
d)
Genotype
128.
Any of the usually linear bodies in the cell nucleus that contain the genetic material.
a)
gel electrophoresis
b)
Chromosomes
c)
Transfer RNA
d)
Transcription
129.
A component of nucleic acids, energy-carrying molecules such as ATP, and certain coenzymes. Chemically, it is a purine base.
a)
Thymine
b)
Cytosine
c)
Guanine
d)
Adenine
130.
All or part of the genetic constitution of an individual or group.
a)
Chromosomes
b)
Genotype
c)
Model
d)
Translation
131.
The synthesis of a polypeptide using the genetic information encoded in an mRNA molecule. There is a change of language from nucleotides to amino acids.
a)
Restriction enzymes
b)
Translation
c)
Genetic Material
d)
Transcription
132.
An RNA molecule that functions as an interpreter between nucleic acid and protein language by picking up specific amino acids and recognizing the appropriate codons in the mRNA.
a)
Deoxyribonucleic Acid
b)
Transfer RNA
c)
gel electrophoresis
d)
Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphisms

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