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BIO 105 Semester 1 Final Exam Practice

Total questions: 82

Worksheet time: 42mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Plant chloroplasts convert the energy of sunlight to

a)

chemical energy

b)

oxygen & carbon dioxide

c)

kinetic energy

d)

electrical energy

2.

Every living thing on Earth and all of the places where life exists is known as

a)

a biological community

b)

an ecosystem

c)

a biome

d)

the biosphere

3.

Which of the following types of cells lack a nucleus?

a)

plant

b)

protists

c)

fungi

d)

archaea

e)

animal

4.

Investigating the molecular structure of DNA in order to understand the chemical basis of inheritance is an example of which approach utilized in the study of biology?

a)

emergent properties

b)

mutualism

c)

systems biology

d)

reductionism

5.

Living things are divided into three different domains. Which of these domains are classified as prokaryotes?

a)

Archaea and Monera

b)

Bacteria and Eukarya

c)

Bacteria and Archaea

d)

Eukarya and Monera

e)

Bacteria and Protista

6.

Which is most likely to be successful in an evolutionary sense?

a)

an organism that lives 100 years and leaves two offspring, both of whom survive to reproduce

b)

a female who mates with 20 males and produces two offspring who live to reproduce

c)

an organism that dies after five days of life but leaves ten offspring, all of whom survive to reproduce

d)

a male who mates with 20 females and fathers one offspring

e)

a reproductively sterile individual who never falls ill

7.

What is Charles Darwin's most significant original contribution to understanding both the unity and diversity of life?

a)

He explained the relationship between genes and evolution.

b)

He observed that individuals in a population generally displayed variation for a number of traits.

c)

He suggested that survival depends upon competition.

d)

He documented examples of organisms that had evolved over time.

e)

He proposed a mechanism to explain the process of evolution.

8.

Which of the following represents the correct hierarchy of biological organization from large-scale to smaller scale?

a)

biosphere → ecosystems → populations→ communities → organisms

b)

biosphere → ecosystems → communities → populations → organisms

c)

biosphere → communities → populations → ecosystems → organisms

d)

communities → populations → organisms → ecosystems → biosphere

e)

ecosystems → biosphere → communities → populations → organisms

9.

Which is a controlled experiment

a)

the experiment is repeated many times to ensure that the results are accurate.

b)

the experiment proceeds at a slow pace to guarantee that the scientist can carefully observe all reactions and process all experimental data.

c)

there are at least two groups, one of which does not receive the experimental treatment.

d)

there are at least two groups, one differing from the other by two or more variables.

10.

What is necessary for a good scientific hypothesis?

a)

It must lead to testable predictions.

b)

It must generate quantitative data.

c)

It must explain a large body of specific observations.

d)

It must be proven to be true.

11.

Which of the following constitutes a controlled experiment?

a)

growing one set of ten seedlings under white light at 30°C and one set of a different type of seedlings under red light at 25°C and measuring their growth over a period of two weeks

b)

growing one set of ten seedlings under white light and one set of the same type of seedlings under red light and measuring their growth over a period of two weeks

c)

setting up a bird feeder and compiling a list of all of the bird species seen at the feeder over a period of several weeks

d)

using a microscope to observe organisms present in a sample of pond water and recording the number of each type of organism observed

12.

Which four of these elements make up approximately 96% of living matter?

a)

carbon, oxygen, nitrogen, calcium

b)

carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen

c)

oxygen, hydrogen, calcium, nitrogen

d)

carbon, oxygen, phosphorus, hydrogen

e)

carbon, sodium, hydrogen, nitrogen

13.

The nucleus of a calcium atom contains 20 neutrons and 20 protons. Which of the following is a correct statement concerning calcium?

a)

The calcium atom has a mass number of 40 and an atomic number of 20.

b)

The calcium atom has a mass number of 40 and an atomic number of 40.

c)

The calcium atom has a mass number of 40 and an atomic number of 60.

d)

The calcium atom has a mass number of 20 and an atomic number of 60.

e)

The calcium atom has a mass number of 20 and an atomic number of 40.

14.

Chlorine has an atomic number of 17 and a mass number of 35. How many electrons are needed to complete the valence shell of a chlorine atom?

a)

7

b)

3

c)

0

d)

9

e)

1

15.

A covalent chemical bond is one in which

a)

protons and neutrons are shared by two atoms so as to satisfy the requirements of both atoms.

b)

an electron from a full outer electron shell of one atom is shared so as to occupy the outer electron shell of both atoms.

c)

electrons are removed from one atom and transferred to another atom so that the two atoms become oppositely charged.

d)

outer-shell electrons of one atom are transferred to fill the inner electron shell of another atom.

e)

outer-shell electrons of two atoms are shared so as to occupy the outer electron shells of both atoms.

16.

What bond is formed by sharing of electrons between atoms?

a)

a polar covalent bond

b)

a nonpolar covalent bond

c)

a hydrophobic interaction

d)

an ionic bond

17.

When is a covalent bond is likely to be polar

a)

the two atoms sharing electrons are equally electronegative.

b)

the two atoms sharing electrons are the same element.

c)

the two atoms sharing electrons are different elements.

d)

oxygen is one of the two atoms sharing electrons.

e)

one of the atoms sharing electrons is much more electronegative than the other atom.

18.

How is an ionic bond is formed?

a)

transfer of a proton from one atom to another.

b)

transfer of an electron from one atom to another.

c)

sharing of a pair of protons between two atoms.

d)

sharing of a single electron between two atoms.

e)

sharing of a pair of electrons between two atoms.

19.

Which is the strongest molecular interaction?

a)

van der Waals interactions

b)

van der Waals interactions in a nonpolar environment

c)

covalent bonds

d)

ionic bonds in an aqueous environment

e)

hydrogen bonds

20.

One liter of a solution of pH 8 has how many more hydroxyl ions (OH-) than 1 L of a solution of pH 4?

a)

100,000 times more

b)

10,000 times more

c)

50,000 more

d)

32 times more

e)

5 times more

21.

What type of bonds do carbon atoms most likely form?

a)

covalent bonds

b)

ionic bonds

c)

covalent bonds and hydrogen bonds

d)

hydrogen bonds

22.

Which of the following is a monomer?

a)

DNA

b)

triglyceride

c)

disaccharide

d)

amino acid

23.

Which summarizes the relationship between dehydration reactions and hydrolysis?

a)

Dehydration reactions create monomers, and hydrolysis reactions assemble polymers.

b)

Dehydration reactions split water molecules and add hydroxyl groups to polymers, and hydrolysis reactions remove hydroxyl groups from polymers.

c)

Dehydration reactions break down polymers, and hydrolysis reactions create monomers.

d)

Dehydration reactions assemble polymers, and hydrolysis reactions break down polymers.

24.

The chemical formula C6H12O6 is probably a

a)

lipid

b)

monosaccharide

c)

hydrocarbon

d)

glycerol

25.

Which of the following statements is true of saturated fats?

a)

They contain fewer hydrogen atoms than unsaturated fats having the same number of carbon atoms.

b)

They are generally solid at room temperature.

c)

They have multiple double bonds in the carbon chains of their fatty acids.

d)

They are more common in plants than in animals.

26.

There are 20 different amino acids. What makes one amino acid different from another?

a)

different asymmetric carbons

b)

different side chains (R groups) attached to an α carbon

c)

different side chains (R groups) attached to the amino groups

d)

different side chains (R groups) attached to the carboxyl carbon

27.

The α helix and β pleated sheet are examples of which level of protein structure?

a)

primary

b)

secondary

c)

tertiary

d)

quatenary

e)

primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaterary

28.

Which is a primary function of RNA molecules?

a)

transmit genetic information to offspring.

b)

act as a pattern or blueprint to form DNA.

c)

make a copy of itself, thus ensuring genetic continuity.

d)

function in the synthesis of proteins.

29.

Nucleotides are composed of

a)

a nitrogenous base, a phosphate group, a pentose sugar, and an amino acid.

b)

a nitrogenous base and a phosphate group.

c)

a nitrogenous base and a pentose sugar.

d)

a nitrogenous base, a phosphate group, and a pentose sugar.

30.

Which are purines?

a)

adenine and thymine

b)

uracil and cytosine

c)

thymine and uracil

d)

cytosine and guanine

e)

guanine and adenine

31.

If a DNA sample was 15% adenine, what would be the percentage of thymine?

a)

50

b)

35

c)

30

d)

15

32.

Fats/lipids are

a)

likely saturated if they are solid at room temperature

b)

unsaturated if they have one or more double bonds

c)

healthier when unsaturated

d)

all of these

33.

The level protein structure least affected by disrupted hydrogen bonds.

a)

primary

b)

secondary

c)

tertiary

d)

quaternary

34.

Which isn't part of the endomembrane system?

a)

chloroplast

b)

plasma membrane

c)

Golgi apparatus

d)

nuclear envelope

35.

The final electron acceptor of the electron transport chain

a)

water

b)

pyruvate

c)

oxygen

d)

NAD+

36.

The finest resolution can be achieved by using a

a)

transmission electronic microscope.

b)

confocal fluorescence microscope.

c)

scanning electron microscope.

d)

phase-contrast light microscope.

37.

Most appropriate technique to observe movements of condensed chromosomes during cell division?

a)

super-resolution microscopy

b)

scanning electron microscopy

c)

standard light microscopy

d)

transmission electron microscopy

38.

Which of the following won't be part of a bacterium?

a)

plasma membrane

b)

ribosomes

c)

DNA

d)

endoplasmic reticulum

e)

flagella

39.

What are the two domains that prokaryotes belong in?

a)

Bacteria and Eukarya

b)

Bacteria and Archaea

c)

Bacteria and Protista

d)

Archaea and Protista

40.

Proteins destined for export are synthesized in this part of the cell?

a)

rough ER

b)

smooth ER

c)

lysosomes

d)

Golgi vesicles

e)

free cytoplasmic ribosomes

41.

Due to the detoxifying activity of the liver which of the following structures is primarily involved in this process of detoxification and therefore abundant in liver cells?

a)

smooth ER

b)

rough ER

c)

Golgi apparatus

d)

nuclear envelope

e)

lysosomes

42.

Which is a function of the Golgi apparatus?

a)

synthesis of cytoplasmic proteins

b)

detoxification of toxins

c)

assembly of ribosomal subunits

d)

protein modification and sorting

43.

Most of the volume of a plant cell is frequently occupied by which organelle?

a)

vacuole

b)

Golgi apparatus

c)

lysosome

d)

mitochondrion

e)

peroxisome

44.

Which is found exclusively in plant cells?

a)

plastids

b)

peroxisomes

c)

Golgi apparatus

d)

nuclei

45.

Which organelle contains its own DNA and ribosomes?

a)

rough ER

b)

mitochondrion

c)

vacuole

d)

Golgi apparatus

e)

peroxisome

46.

Which pathway is taken by a protein destined for secretion from an animal cell?

a)

plasma membrane → transport vesicle → Golgi → transport vesicle → rough ER

b)

Golgi → rough ER → transport vesicle → plasma membrane

c)

rough ER → transport vesicle → lysosome → transport vesicle → plasma membrane

d)

rough ER → transport vesicle → Golgi → transport vesicle → plasma membrane

e)

rough ER → transport vesicle → Golgi → transport vesicle → lysosome → plasma membrane

47.

Passive movement of fluids and bacteria from the interior of the small intestine through the space between cells of the intestinal wall can cause serious infection and medical complications. Defects in which of the following would be associated with such a condition?

a)

gap junctions

b)

cell walls

c)

tight junctions

d)

middle lamella

e)

desmosomes

48.

What are plasmodesmata in plant cells most similar to in animal cells?

a)

peroxisomes

b)

desmosomes

c)

gap junctions

d)

extracellular matrix

e)

tight junctions

49.

Which best describes the fluid mosaic model?

a)

consist of a phospholipid bilayer composed of a variety of fatty acids.

b)

consist of protein molecules embedded in a fluid bilayer of phospholipids.

c)

consist of a single layer of phospholipids and proteins.

d)

consist of a phospholipid bilayer between two layers of hydrophilic proteins.

50.

Cell membranes are primarily composed of

a)

phospholipids and cellulose.

b)

proteins and cellulose.

c)

cholesterol and proteins.

d)

glycoproteins and cholesterol.

e)

phospholipids and proteins.

51.

How do unsaturated fatty acids help keep any membrane more fluid at lower temperatures?

a)

The double bonds form kinks in the fatty acid tails that prevent adjacent lipids from packing tightly together.

b)

Unsaturated fatty acids have a higher cholesterol content that prevents adjacent lipids from packing tightly together.

c)

Unsaturated fatty acids are more polar than saturated fatty acids.

d)

The double bonds result in shorter fatty acid tails and therefore thinner membranes.

52.

A hydrophobic gas nitrous oxide (N2O) (laughing gas) moving into a cell is an example of

a)

active transport across the lipid bilayer.

b)

facilitated diffusion through the lipid bilayer.

c)

diffusion through the lipid bilayer.

d)

osmosis through the lipid bilayer.

e)

cotransport across the lipid bilayer.

53.

Why are cell membranes are asymmetrical?

a)

Proteins only function on the cytoplasmic side of the cell membrane, which results in asymmetry across the membrane.

b)

Cell-to-cell communication requires different proteins on the surfaces of interacting cells.

c)

The molecular composition of the inner and outer layers of the cell membrane is determined by genes.

d)

The two sides of a cell membrane face different environments and carry out different functions.

54.

Which molecules pass through a cell membrane most easily?

a)

large hydrophobic

b)

small hydrophobic

c)

large polar

d)

small ionic

e)

large and hydrophilic

55.

Which statement is true about diffusion?

a)

It is very rapid over long distances.

b)

It requires an expenditure of energy by the cell.

c)

It is a passive process in which molecules move from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration.

d)

It is an active process in which molecules move from a region of lower concentration to one of higher concentration.

e)

It is a passive process in which molecules move from a region of lower concentration to a region of higher concentration.

56.

Why does water pass quickly through cell membranes?

a)

the bilayer is hydrophilic.

b)

it moves through hydrophobic channels.

c)

water movement is tied to ATP hydrolysis.

d)

it is a small, nonpolar molecule.

e)

it moves through aquaporin channel proteins.

57.

Submerging a plant cell in distilled water causes

a)

plasmolysis of the cell.

b)

lysis of the cell membrane.

c)

bursting of the cell.

d)

the cell becoming turgid.

e)

the cell becoming flaccid.

58.

A red blood cell submerged in distilled water will result in

a)

plasmolysis of the cell.

b)

lysis of the cell.

c)

the cell becoming turgid.

d)

the cell becoming flacid.

59.

Transport by sodium-potassium pump requires

a)

low intracellular concentrations of sodium.

b)

high intracellular concentrations of sodium.

c)

high intracellular concentrations of potassium.

d)

low intracellular concentrations of potassium.

e)

energy from ATP.

60.

How are pinocytosis and receptor-mediated endocytosis different?

a)

pinocytosis brings only water molecules into the cell, whereas receptor-mediated endocytosis brings in other molecules as well.

b)

pinocytosis increases the surface area of the plasma membrane, whereas receptor-mediated endocytosis decreases the plasma membrane surface area.

c)

pinocytosis is nonselective in the molecules it brings into the cell, whereas receptor-mediated endocytosis is highly selective.

d)

pinocytosis requires cellular energy, but receptor-mediated endocytosis does not.

e)

pinocytosis can concentrate substances from the extracellular fluid, but receptor-mediated endocytosis cannot.

61.

What is the role of kinases in signal transduction?

a)

inactivate relay molecule to turn off signal transduction.

b)

regulate gene expression by serving as a transcription factor.

c)

inactivate second messengers such as cAMP.

d)

activate protein kinases or other relay molecules in a series.

62.

What do G proteins do in signal transduction?

a)

transducing the signal from an activated receptor to the next protein in the pathway.

b)

binding extracellular signal molecules to activate the pathway.

c)

converting ATP to cATP to amplify the signal.

d)

phosphorylating relay molecules in the pathway.

63.

When large molecules are broken into smaller ones it is defined as

a)

catalysis.

b)

metabolism.

c)

anabolism.

d)

dehydration

e)

catabolism

64.

Making large molecules from smaller ones is

a)

catalysis

b)

metabolism.

c)

anabolism

d)

dehydration.

e)

catabolism

65.

Energy transformations are always associated with an increase in the

a)

free energy of the system.

b)

free energy of the universe.

c)

entropy of the system.

d)

entropy of the universe.

66.

Which is true of metabolism in its entirety in all organisms?

a)

Metabolism depends on a constant supply of energy from food.

b)

Metabolism manages the increase of entropy in an organism.

c)

Metabolism specifically refers to the biochemical pathways involved in synthesis of macromolecules.

d)

Metabolism consists of all the energy transformation reactions in an organism.

67.

Which does science test?

a)

a data set

b)

a hypothesis

c)

an observation

d)

a conclusion

e)

a control group

68.

What makes each element unique?

a)

Each element has a unique atomic mass.

b)

Each element has a unique atomic number.

c)

Each element has a unique number of protons.

d)

Each element has a unique number of neutrons.

e)

Each element has unique radioactive properties.

69.

An atom with atomic number 11 would have what type of chemical behavior in bonding with other elements?

a)

It would form ions with a +1 charge.

b)

It would form ions with a +2 charge.

c)

It would form ions with a -1 charge.

d)

It would form ions with a -2 charge.

e)

It would form two covalent bonds with other atoms.

70.

Which are compounds?

a)

H2O, O2, and CH4

b)

H2O and O2

c)

O2 and CH4

d)

CH4 and O2, but not H2O

e)

H2O and CH4, but not O2

71.

In a single molecule of water, two hydrogen atoms are bonded to a single oxygen atom by

a)

hydrogen bonds.

b)

nonpolar covalent bonds.

c)

polar covalent bonds.

d)

ionic bonds.

e)

van der Waals interactions.

72.

Amino acids are acids because they always possess which functional group?

a)

amino

b)

carbonyl

c)

carboxyl

d)

phosphate

e)

hydroxyl

73.

Testosterone and estradiol are male and female sex hormones, respectively. How do they differ from each other?

a)

Testosterone and estradiol are structural isomers but have the same molecular formula.

b)

Testosterone and estradiol are cis-trans isomers but have the same molecular formula.

c)

Testosterone and estradiol have different functional groups attached to the same carbon skeleton.

d)

Testosterone and estradiol are enantiomers of the same organic molecule.

74.

Living organisms increase in complexity as they grow, resulting in a decrease in the entropy of an organism. How does this relate to the second law of thermodynamics?

a)

Living organisms do not obey the second law of thermodynamics, which states that entropy must increase with time.

b)

Living organisms do not follow the laws of thermodynamics.

c)

As a consequence of growing, organisms cause a greater increase in entropy in their environment than the decrease in entropy associated with their growth.

d)

Living organisms are able to transform energy into entropy.

75.

Which is an example of potential energy?

a)

the muscle contractions of a person mowing grass

b)

water rushing over Niagara Falls

c)

light flashes emitted by a firefly

d)

a molecule of glucose

76.

A system at chemical equilibrium

a)

consumes energy at a steady rate.

b)

releases energy at a steady rate.

c)

consumes or releases energy at a steady rate, depending on whether it is exergonic or endergonic.

d)

can do no work.

77.

Metabolic pathways that release stored energy by breaking down complex molecules are known as

a)

catabolic pathways.

b)

anabolic pathways.

c)

bioenergetic pathways.

d)

endergonic pathways.

78.

As a result of an oxidation-reduction reaction the oxidizing agent

a)

gains electrons and gains potential energy.

b)

gains electrons and loses potential energy.

c)

loses electrons and loses potential energy.

d)

loses electrons and gains potential energy.

79.

In animal cells, glycolysis occurs in the

a)

cytosol.

b)

outer mitochondrial membrane.

c)

inner mitochondrial membrane.

d)

mitochondrial matrix.

e)

nucleus

80.

The ATP produced in glycolysis is generated by

a)

chemiosmosis

b)

electron transport.

c)

photophosphorylation

d)

oxidative phosphorylation.

e)

substrate-level phosphorylation.

81.

The complete oxidation of glucose in aerobic respiration occurs through which of the following sequence of metabolic reactions?

a)

glucose → citric acid cycle → glycolysis → pyruvate oxidation → electron transport chain

b)

glucose → pyruvate oxidation → glycolysis → electron transport chain → citric acid cycle

c)

glucose → glycolysis → pyruvate oxidation → citric acid cycle → electron transport chain

d)

glucose → glycolysis → citric acid cycle → pyruvate oxidation → electron transport chain

e)

glucose → pyruvate oxidation → citric acid cycle → glycolysis → electron transport chain

82.

The net production of Glycolysis from each molecule of glucose results in a which of the following?

a)

2 NAD+, 2 pyruvate, and 2 ATP

b)

4 NADH, 2 pyruvate, and 4 ATP

c)

2 NADH, 2 pyruvate, and 2 ATP

d)

6 CO2, 2 NADH, 2 pyruvate, and 2 ATP

e)

6 CO2, 2 pyruvate, and 30 ATP