wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Anatomy and Physiology I Final Exam

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A fracture in bone that is due to a twisting motion that splinters the bone is called

a)

A greenstick fracture

b)

A spiral fracture

c)

A comminuted fracture

d)

A compound fracture

2.

The membrane lining the medullary cavity is referred to as the:

a)

Lacunae

b)

Periosteum

c)

Endosteum

d)

Osteon

3.

The basic, functional units of compact bone are called

a)

Osteons

b)

Osteocytes

c)

Osteoblasts

d)

Osteoclasts

4.

Hematopoiesis occurs in the bones of the skeleton in areas of

a)

Yellow marrow

b)

Red marrow

c)

The matrix of bone tissue

d)

The lacuna

5.

The main function of yellow marrow is

a)

Short term energy storage

b)

Hematopoiesis

c)

Fat storage

d)

Protein storage

6.

The primary reason that osteoporosis accelerates after menopause in women is

a)

Reduced levels of circulating estrogens

b)

Reduced levels of vitamin C

c)

Diminished osteoclast activity

d)

Increased osteoblast activity

7.

A fracture in bone that protrudes through the skin is called

a)

A comminuted fracture

b)

A closed fracture

c)

A greenstick fracture

d)

A compound fracture

8.

The membrane found wrapping the bones, except at the joint cavity, is the

a)

periosteum

b)

endosteum

c)

perforating fibers

d)

articular cartilage

9.

What could be an effect on an individual with a vitamin D deficiency?

a)

Calcification might occur slowly.

b)

Osteoporosis might occur slowly.

c)

Brittle bones

d)

All are possible answers

10.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT in regards to the axial skeleton?

a)

One of the primary functions is to maintain structural support for the body.

b)

All bones of the axial skeleton are fully developed and fused at birth.

c)

It is important for motion

d)

All of these statements are incorrect

11.

Which statement below is INCORRECT concerning the skeletal system?

a)

Bone tissue is the location of blood cell production and fat storage.

b)

Bone serves as a storehouse for many minerals and vitamins.

c)

Bone is mostly dead and contains few blood vessels or nerves.

d)

Bone functions to protect and house many vital organs.

12.

lateral vertebral curve

a)

Kyphosis

b)

Lordosis

c)

Osteoporosis

d)

Scoliosis

13.

exaggerated curvature of the lumbar region that cause inflammation and pain

a)

Kyphosis

b)

Lordosis

c)

Osteoporosis

d)

Scoliosis

14.

exaggerated forward curvature of the thoracic region of the vertebral column

a)

Kyphosis

b)

Lordosis

c)

Osteoporosis

d)

Scoliosis

15.

high levels of uric acid in the blood

a)

Rheumatoid arthritis

b)

Osteoarthritis

c)

Gouty arthritis

d)

Osteomyelitis

16.

inflammation of an articulation where the cartilage is worn away so bone grinds on bone

a)

Osteomyelitis

b)

Gouty arthritis

c)

Rheumatoid arthritis

d)

Osteoarthritis

17.

Inflammation or a tear in the ligament on the bottom of the foot that results in pain

a)

Osteomyelitis

b)

Plantar fasciitis

c)

Osteoporosis

d)

Gouty arthritis

18.

bacterial infection of bone

a)

Osteomyelitis

b)

Gouty arthritis

c)

Rheumatoid arthritis

d)

Osteoarthritis

19.

an autoimmune disease that affects the small joints of the hand and foot

a)

Osteomyelitis

b)

Gouty arthritis

c)

Rheumatoid arthritis

d)

Osteoarthritis

20.

inadequate ossification and loss of bone density

a)

Osteomyelitis

b)

Plantar fasciitis

c)

Osteoporosis

d)

Gouty arthritis

21.

break in the bone

a)

fracture

b)

osteomyelitis

c)

rheumatoid arthritis

d)

osteoarthritis

22.

used to determine bone density and diagnose disease

a)

Scoliosis

b)

Osteomyelitis

c)

DEXA scan

d)

Plantar fasciitis

23.

Ligaments are necessary in the skeletal system for junctions between bones as well as junctions between muscles.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

Synovial joints are also called synarthrotic joints.

a)

True

b)

False

25.

Sutures are examples of amphiarthrotic joints because they are immoveable.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

What is letter A pointing to?

a)

lacuna

b)

canaliculi

c)

Haversian canal

d)

osteon

27.

What is letter B pointing to?

a)

lacuna

b)

canaliculi

c)

Haversian canal

d)

osteon

28.

What is letter C pointing to?

a)

lacuna

b)

canaliculi

c)

Haversian canal

d)

osteon

29.

What is letter D pointing to?

a)

lacuna

b)

canaliculi

c)

Haversian canal

d)

osteon

30.

What is the function of letter A?

a)

perform hematopoiesis in adults

b)

store fat

c)

site of the growth plate

d)

provides protection at the joints

31.

What is the function of letter B?

a)

perform hematopoiesis in adults

b)

store fat

c)

site of the growth plate

d)

provides protection at the joints

32.

What is the function of letter C?

a)

perform hematopoiesis in adults

b)

store fat

c)

site of the growth plate

d)

provides protection at the joints

33.

What is the function of letter D for adults?

a)

perform hematopoiesis in adults

b)

store fat

c)

site of the growth plate

d)

provides protection at the joints

34.

a freely moving joint

a)

Amphiarthrosis

b)

Diarthrosis

c)

Synarthrosis

35.

a slightly moving joint

a)

Amphiarthrosis

b)

Diarthrosis

c)

Synarthrosis

36.

an immovable joint

a)

Amphiarthrosis

b)

Diarthrosis

c)

Synarthrosis

37.

joint between the bones of the cranium

a)

Amphiarthrosis

b)

Diarthrosis

c)

Synarthrosis

38.

shoulder joint

a)

Amphiarthrosis

b)

Diarthrosis

c)

Synarthrosis

39.

the joint between vertebral bones

a)

Amphiarthrosis

b)

Diarthrosis

c)

Synarthrosis

40.

also referred to as a synovial joint

a)

Amphiarthrosis

b)

Diarthrosis

c)

Synarthrosis

41.

joint between the phalanges

a)

Amphiarthrosis

b)

Diarthrosis

c)

Synarthrosis

42.

Which of the following is an example of a long bone?

a)

vertebrae

b)

rib

c)

femur (thigh bone)

d)

patella (knee cap)

e)

carpal (wrist)

43.

Which of the following is an example of a short bone?

a)

vertebrae

b)

rib

c)

femur (thigh bone)

d)

patella (knee cap)

e)

carpal (wrist)

44.

Which of the following is an example of an irregular bone?

a)

vertebrae

b)

rib

c)

femur (thigh bone)

d)

patella (knee cap)

e)

carpal (wrist)

45.

Which of the following is an example of a flat bone?

a)

vertebrae

b)

rib

c)

femur (thigh bone)

d)

patella (knee cap)

e)

carpal (wrist)

46.

Which of the following is an example of a sesamoid bone?

a)

vertebrae

b)

rib

c)

femur (thigh bone)

d)

patella (knee cap)

e)

carpal (wrist)

47.

What is the function of a tendon?

a)

To link bones to bones

b)

To link muscles to bones

c)

To link muscles to ligaments

d)

To bind the cells in compact bone closer together

48.

Tissue responsible for sending and receiving information through the body.

a)

Connective

b)

Epithelial

c)

Muscular

d)

Neural

49.

Tissue responsible for body movement.

a)

Connective

b)

Epithelial

c)

Muscular

d)

Neural

50.

Tissue responsible for the internal lining of structures in the body.

a)

Connective

b)

Epithelial

c)

Muscular

d)

Neural

51.

Tissue responsible for muscle attachments to bone.

a)

Connective

b)

Epithelial

c)

Muscular

d)

Neural

52.

Tissue that protects organs like the brain.

a)

Connective

b)

Epithelial

c)

Muscular

d)

Neural

53.

Tissue that forms the structural framework of the body.

a)

Connective

b)

Epithelial

c)

Muscular

d)

Neural

54.

Tissue that controls stomach and intestinal movement. (be careful!)

a)

Connective

b)

Epithelial

c)

Muscular

d)

Neural

55.

Tissue that aides in the removal of wastes and harmful bacteria.

a)

Connective

b)

Epithelial

c)

Muscular

d)

Neural

56.

Tissue that comprises the brain and spinal cord.

a)

Connective

b)

Epithelial

c)

Muscular

d)

Neural

57.

Tissue that allows you to smile.

a)

Connective

b)

Epithelial

c)

Muscular

d)

Neural

58.

Tissue that is responsible for producing glandular secretions like tears or sweat.

a)

Connective

b)

Epithelial

c)

Muscular

d)

Neural

59.

Tissue that is responsible for producing glandular secretions like tears or sweat.

a)

Connective

b)

Epithelial

c)

Muscular

d)

Neural

60.

The only tissue that can support an electrical charge essential for communication throughout the body.

a)

Connective

b)

Epithelial

c)

Muscular

d)

Neural

61.

Most widely distributed tissue type in the body

a)

Connective

b)

Epithelial

c)

Muscular

d)

Neural

62.

Cells of this tissue may absorb/secrete substances.

a)

Connective

b)

Epithelial

c)

Muscular

d)

Neural

63.

Forms the brain and spinal cord

a)

Connective

b)

Epithelial

c)

Muscular

d)

Neural

64.

All of the following are types of muscle tissue EXCEPT:

a)

smooth

b)

elastic

c)

cardiac

d)

skeletal

65.

The four basic types of tissue in the body are:

a)

Epithelial, connective, muscle and neural

b)

Simple, cuboidal, squamous and stratified

c)

Columnar, lymph, blood, and bone

d)

Neurons, neuroglia, columnar and psuedostratified

66.

Intercalated disks and branching are characteristics of

a)

smooth muscle tissue

b)

skeletal muscle tissue

c)

cardiac muscle tissue

d)

dense regular tissue

67.

Long cilia hairs and false layers are characteristic of

a)

stratified squamous epithelial

b)

cuboidal epithelial

c)

pseudostratified columnar

d)

simple columnar epithelial

68.

This tissue provides great strength through parallel bundles of collagenic fibers; found in tendons

a)

smooth muscle tissue

b)

skeletal muscle tissue

c)

cardiac muscle tissue

d)

dense regular tissue

69.

This tissue forms the embryonic skeleton and the surfaces of bones at the joints; it also reinforces the trachea

a)

elastic cartilage tissue

b)

hyaline cartilage tissue

c)

fibrocartilage tissue

d)

bone (osseous) tissue

70.

This tissue has a structurally amorphous (no set shape) matrix that is heavily invaded with fibers:

a)

hyaline cartilage

b)

dense regular

c)

adipose

d)

areolar

71.

This tissue forms the internal “skeleton” of lymph nodes and the spleen and helps to provide internal support of the soft organs

a)

adipose

b)

areolar

c)

reticular

d)

bone (osseus) tissue

72.

This tissue is composed of bundles of parallel fibers that are multinucleated and allow voluntary movements to occur

a)

smooth muscle

b)

cardiac muscle

c)

dense regular

d)

skeletal muscle

73.

This tissue functions to protect the body by having lots of layers of cells

a)

stratified cuboidal

b)

stratified squamous

c)

simple columnar

d)

simple squamous

74.

What type of tissue lines the bladder?

a)

Simple columnar

b)

Simple squamous

c)

Simple cuboidal

d)

Transitional

75.

Squamous means

a)

rectangular

b)

flat

c)

one layer

d)

square

76.

Columnar means

a)

rectangular

b)

flat

c)

one layer

d)

square

77.

Cuboidal means

a)

rectangular

b)

flat

c)

one layer

d)

square

78.

Simple means

a)

many layers

b)

flat

c)

one layer

d)

square

79.

All of the following are characteristics of epithelial tissue EXCEPT:

a)

tissue is largely vascular

b)

tissue is largely avascular

c)

Cells are tightly packed

d)

Cells reproduce quickly, leading to a reduction in healing time

80.

What does the prefix strat- mean?

a)

one layer

b)

many layers

c)

flat

d)

square

81.

It is the body's __________________ glands that respond to higher body temperature and release water to the skin surface.

a)

sebaceous

b)

apocrine

c)

eccrine

d)

ceruminous

82.

What is one important function for melanin?

a)

cause the skin to be cooler

b)

increase the amount of blood vessels

c)

absorb harmful radiation

d)

strengthen the skin or eyes

83.

Which of the following human integumentary system glands is believed to be analogous to the pheromones and sexual scent glands of an animal?

a)

eccrine sudoriferous gland

b)

apocrine sudoriferous gland

c)

sebaceous gland

d)

ceruminous gland

84.

Which of the following can affect skin pigmentation?

a)

all of the answers can affect skiin pigmentation

b)

carotene

c)

melanin

d)

hemoglobin

85.

What is the function of Meissner corpuscles present in the papillary region?

a)

touch sensations

b)

sensation of coolness

c)

Sensation of warmth

d)

pain sensations

86.

You find these concentrated on the palms of your hands and the soles of your feet.

a)

eccrine glands

b)

apocrine glands

c)

sebaceous glands

d)

ceruminous glands

87.

From which of the following does the basic structure of hair and nails form?

a)

melanin

b)

keratin

c)

carotene

d)

sweat glands

88.

Which glands are activated at puberty?

a)

sebaceous

b)

ceruminous

c)

eccrine

d)

apocrine

89.

What is F in the image?

a)

eccrine gland

b)

sebaceous gland

c)

ceruminous glands

d)

apocrine gland

90.

These deeper cells provide detection of pressure

a)

Merkel cells

b)

Meissner's corpuscles

c)

sebaceous glands

d)

Pacinian corpuscles

91.

What are the two types of sweat gland?

a)

apocrine, sebum

b)

eccrine, lanula

c)

sebum, eccrine

d)

apocrine, eccrine

92.

Which type of hair is darkly pigmented, thick , and sometimes curly?

a)

vellus

b)

lanugo

c)

terminal

93.

Which type of hair is unpigmented and found on the fetus after about 3 months of development?

a)

vellus

b)

lanugo

c)

terminal

94.

Which type of hair is peach fuzz and covers the entire body before puberty occurs?

a)

vellus

b)

lanugo

c)

terminal

95.

During male pattern baldness, ______ hair is converted back into ______ hair.

a)

vellus, terminal

b)

lanugo, vellus

c)

terminal, vellus

d)

terminal, lanugo

96.

Oil glands are also known as

a)

sebaceous glands

b)

merocrine glands

c)

apocrine glands

d)

sudoriferous glands

97.
In the picture, what layer is indicated by the red star?
a)
Stratum corneum
b)
Stratum lucidum
c)
Stratum granulosum
d)
Stratum spinosum
98.
In the picture, what layer is indicated by the red star?
a)
Stratum corneum
b)
Stratum lucidum
c)
Stratum granulosum
d)
Stratum basale
99.
In the picture, what layer is indicated by the red star?
a)
Stratum granulosum
b)
Stratum lucidum
c)
Stratum spinosum
d)
Stratum basale
100.
In the picture, what layer is indicated by the red star?
a)
Stratum corneum
b)
Stratum granulosum
c)
Stratum spinosum
d)
Stratum basale
101.
In the picture, what layer is indicated by the red star?
a)
Stratum lucidum
b)
Stratum granulosum
c)
Stratum spinosum
d)
Stratum basale
102.
In the picture, what layer is indicated by the red star?
a)
Epidermis
b)
Hypodermis
c)
Arrector pili
d)
Follicle
103.

From deep to superficial, what is the order of the layers of the epidermis in thin skin?

a)

Stratum basale, stratum lucidum, stratum granulosum, stratum corneum, stratum spinosum

b)

Stratum basale, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum corneum

c)

Stratum corneum, stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum, stratum basale

d)

Stratum basale, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum lucidum, stratum corneum

104.

Which of the following is NOT a function of the skin?

a)

preventing unnecessary water loss

b)

respiratory gas exchange

c)

regulation of body temperature

d)

protection

105.

Which of the following strata is not visible as a distinct layer in thin skin?

a)

Stratum spinosum

b)

Stratum basale

c)

Stratum granulosum

d)

Stratum lucidum

106.

Which of the following cells is part of the immune system?

a)

Merkel cell

b)

keratinocyte

c)

Melanocyte

d)

Langerhans cells

107.

Which of the following cells function as sensory receptors for touch?

a)

Melanocytes

b)

Langerhans cells

c)

keratinocytes

d)

Merkel cells

108.

Which layer of the epidermis consists of cells that are undergoing active cell reproduction and eventually migrate to the stratum corneum layer to be sloughed off?

a)

Stratum spinosum

b)

Stratum granulosum

c)

Stratum basale

d)

Stratum lucidum

109.

The cells in the stratum basale layer can migrate to the stratum corneum layer. In the stratum basale layer are cells that produce pigment and do not migrate. What are those cells called?

a)

Melanocytes

b)

Keratinocytes

c)

Merkel cells

d)

Langerhans cells

110.

The youngest cells would be found in the stratum _____.

a)

corneum

b)

spinosum

c)

basale

d)

granulosum

111.

The stratum basale is also called the stratum _____.

a)

corneum

b)

spinosum

c)

granulosum

d)

germinativum

112.

The sloughing off of older cells occurs in the stratum

a)

basale

b)

spinosum

c)

corneum

d)

lucidum

113.

Which term describes the skin's normal release of water vapor without noticeable sweat?

a)

sensible perspiration

b)

evaporative cooling

c)

insensible perspiration

114.

What is number 1 on the diagram?

a)

Z line

b)

myosin

c)

sarcomere

d)

A band

115.

What is number 2 on the diagram?

a)

Z line

b)

H zone

c)

M line

d)

A band

116.

What is number 3 on the diagram?

a)

A band

b)

H zone

c)

myosin

d)

actin

117.

What is number 6 on the diagram?

a)

A band

b)

H zone

c)

Z line

d)

I band

118.

What is number 7 on the diagram?

a)

A band

b)

H zone

c)

Z line

d)

I band

119.

What is number 8 on the diagram?

a)

A band

b)

H zone

c)

Z line

d)

M line

120.

What is #1 in the figure?

a)

myofibril

b)

muscle fiber

c)

myofilaments

d)

entire muscle

121.

What is #2 in the figure?

a)

myofibril

b)

muscle fiber

c)

myofilaments

d)

fascicle

122.

What is #3 in the figure?

a)

myofibril

b)

muscle fiber

c)

myofilaments

d)

fascicle

123.

What is #4 in the figure?

a)

myofibril

b)

muscle fiber

c)

myofilaments

d)

fascicle

124.

What is #5 in the figure?

a)

myofibril

b)

muscle fiber

c)

myofilaments

d)

fascicle

125.

What is the ion released from the terminal cisternae that combines with troponin and removes the blocking action of tropomyosin, resulting in the formation of cross bridges?

a)

myosin

b)

Na+

c)

Ca2+

d)

actin

126.

The space between the neuron and the muscle is the ___________.

a)

motor unit

b)

motor end plate

c)

synaptic cleft

d)

motor neuron

127.

The sequence of electrical changes that occurs along the sarcolemma when a muscle fiber is stimulated is known as the ___________.

a)

action potential

b)

resting potential

c)

membrane repolarization

d)

membrane hyperpolarization

128.

What three structures make up the neuromuscular junction?

a)

muscle fiber, acetylcholine, vesicles

b)

motor neuron, motor end plate, acetylcholine

c)

synaptic cleft, motor neuron, sarcolemma

d)

motor neuron, motor end plate, synaptic cleft

129.

What does calcium bind to on the actin filament?

a)

myosin

b)

troponin

c)

tropomyosin

d)

actin

130.

Binding of the calcium causes what to happen on the actin filament?

a)

Troponin moves, revealing binding sites for myosin heads

b)

Tropomyosin moves, revealing binding sites for myosin heads

c)

Calcium moves, revealing binding sites for myosin heads

d)

Myosin moves, binding to calcium

131.

What bonds to the binding site on actin filaments that allows sliding of the filaments to occur?

a)

Calcium

b)

troponin

c)

myosin heads

d)

tropomyosin

132.

The bond between actin and myosin is called a ____________________________.

a)

ionic bond

b)

crossbridge

c)

covalent bond

d)

hydrogen bond

133.

What causes the tropomyosin to cover back over the actin binding sites?

a)

Sarcoplasmic reticulum releases calcium

b)

Calcium is pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum

c)

Troponin and calcium bind

d)

Tropomyosin and calcium bind

134.

What molecule provides muscles with the energy required for contraction to occur?

a)

ADP

b)

ADP-ATP complex

c)

ADP hydrolysis

d)

ATP

135.

What has to happen to stop the muscle contraction and cause the muscle to relax? (Select all that apply)

a)

Acetylcholinesterase enzymes must break down acetylcholine in synaptic cleft

b)

Myosin heads release actin filament

c)

Calcium must be pumped back into sarcoplasmic reticulum

d)

Tropomyosin changes shape to cover binding sites

136.

In the picture, what is X pointing to?

a)

motor neuron

b)

synaptic cleft

c)

motor end plate

d)

acetylcholine

137.

In the picture, what is Y pointing to?

a)

motor neuron

b)

synaptic cleft

c)

motor end plate

d)

acetylcholine

138.

In the picture, what is Z pointing to?

a)

motor neuron

b)

synaptic cleft

c)

motor end plate

d)

acetylcholine

139.

In the picture, what is W pointing to?

a)

motor neuron

b)

synaptic cleft

c)

motor end plate

d)

acetylcholine

140.

What is letter c in the image?

a)

thoracic cavity

b)

pleural cavity

c)

cardial cavity

d)

diaphragm

141.

What is letter e in the image?

a)

thoracic cavity

b)

pleural cavity

c)

cardial cavity

d)

diaphragm

142.

What is number 3 in the image?

a)

thoracic cavity

b)

abdominopelvic cavity

c)

abdominal cavity

d)

pelvic cavity

143.

What is letter b in the image?

a)

cranial cavity

b)

vertebral cavity

c)

mediastinum

d)

cardial cavity

144.

Body plane c divides the body into

a)

left and right sides

b)

anterior and posterior

c)

dorsal and ventral

d)

superior and inferior

145.

Body plane b is known as

a)

transverse

b)

sagittal

c)

coronal

d)

frontal

146.

The scapula (shoulder blade) is __________ to the lung.

a)

dorsal

b)

posterior

c)

superior

d)

all of the answers are correct

147.

The elbow is __________ to the wrist.

a)

distal

b)

proximal

c)

inferior

d)

lateral

148.

The bridge of the nose is------to the eye

a)

inferior

b)

lateral

c)

medial

d)

superior

149.

There are three essential components of all homeostatic control mechanisms: control center, receptor, and effector. The ____ senses changes in the environment and responds by sending information to the _____.

a)

receptor, effector

b)

effector, control center

c)

effector, receptor

d)

receptor, control center

150.

When the effector's response enhances (increases) the initial stimulus, the mechanism is called a _____ feedback.

a)

negative

b)

positive

c)

null

d)

enhanced

Similar Resources on Wayground

Mid Term Review

145 questions

Mid Term Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 12th Grade

Genetica

150 questions

Genetica

quiz

Worksheet

•

7th Grade - University

Honors Chem Review/Study Set

147 questions

Honors Chem Review/Study Set

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 12th Grade

Earth and Environmental Science Midterm Review

148 questions

Earth and Environmental Science Midterm Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

11th - 12th Grade

Integrated Science — L1 To L7 Part 1

150 questions

Integrated Science — L1 To L7 Part 1

quiz

Worksheet

•

12th Grade

Phlebotomy

155 questions

Phlebotomy

quiz

Worksheet

•

12th Grade - University

FINAL EXAM REVIEW

150 questions

FINAL EXAM REVIEW

quiz

Worksheet

•

7th Grade - University

H-Biology Midterm Review

154 questions

H-Biology Midterm Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 12th Grade