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PRINCIPLES OF INHERITANCE AND VARIATION

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Among the seven pairs of contrasting traits in pea plant as studied by mendel, the number of traits related to flower, pod and seed respectively were

a)

2,2,2

b)

2,2,1

c)

1,2,2

d)

1,2,2

2.

Some of the dominant traits studied by Mendel were

a)

round seed shape, green seed colour and axial flower position

b)

terminal flower position, green pod colour and inflated pod shape

c)

violet flower colour , green pod colour and round seed shape

d)

wrinkled seed shape, yellow pod colour and axial flower position

3.

Which of the following characters was not chosen by Mendel?

a)

Pod shape

b)

Pod colour

c)

Position of pod

d)

Position of flower

4.

____________ code for a pair of contrasting traits of same gene.

a)

Dominant genes

b)

Alleles

c)

Linked genes

d)

Recessive genes

5.

A recessive allele is expressed in

a)

heterozygous condition only

b)

homozygous condition only

c)

F3 generation

d)

both homozygous and heterozygous conditions.

6.

The characters which appear in the first filial generation are called

a)

recessive characters

b)

dominant characters

c)

holandric characters

d)

lethal characters

7.

In a monohybrid cross between two heterozygous individuals, percentage of pure homozygous individuals obtained in F1 generation will be

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

8.

On crossing two heterozygous tall plants (Tt), a total of 500 plants were obtained in F1 generation. What will be the respective number of tall and dwarf plants obtained in F1 generation?

a)

375,125

b)

250,250

c)

475, 25

d)

350,150

9.

In mice, black coat colour (allele B) is dominant to brown coat colour (allele b). The offspring of a cross between a black mouse (BB) and a brown mouse (bb) were allowed to interbreed. What percentage of the progeny would have black coats?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

10.

In fruit flies, long wing is dominant to vestigial wing. When heterozygous long – winged flies were crossed with vestigial- winged flies, 192 offsprings were produced. If an exact Mendelian ratio had been obtained, then the number of each phenotype would have been

a)

Long –winged 64 Vestigial – winged 128

b)

Long –winged 96 Vestigial – winged 96

c)

Long –winged 128 Vestigial – winged 64

d)

Long –winged 192 Vestigial – winged 0

11.

What is the probability of production of dwarf offsprings in a cross between two heterozygous tall pea plants?

a)

Zero

b)

50%

c)

25%

d)

100%

12.

A tobacco plant heterozygous for a recessive character is self-pollinated and 1200 seeds are subsequently germinated. How many seedlings would have the parental genotype?

a)

120

b)

600

c)

300

d)

750

13.

To determine the genotype of tall plant of F2 generation, Mendel crossed this plant with a dwarf plant. This cross represents a

a)

test cross

b)

monohybrid cross

c)

dihybrid cross

d)

reciprocal cross

14.

Read the given statements and select the correct option.

Statement 1: Test cross is used to determine an unknown genotype within one breeding generation.

Statement 2: Test cross is a cross between F1 hybrid and dominant parent.

a)

Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

b)

Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect.

c)

Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct.

d)

Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.

15.

Read the given Statements and select the correct option.

Statement 1: The law of segregation is one of the most important contributions to the biology

Statement 2: Law of segregation introduced the concept of heredity factors as discrete physical entities which do not become blended.

a)

Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

b)

Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect.

c)

Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct.

d)

Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.

16.

The inheritance of flower colour in Antirrhinum (dog flower) is an example of

a)

incomplete dominance

b)

co-dominance

c)

multiple alleles

d)

linkage.

17.

Phenotypic and genotypic ratio is similar in case of

a)

Complete dominance

b)

incomplete dominance

c)

epistasis

d)

Over dominance

18.

In four o’ clock plants, the gene for red flower colour (R) is in incompletely dominant over the gene for white flower colour (r), hence the plants heterozygous for flower colour (Rr) have pink flowers. What will be the ratio of offsprings in a cross between red flowers and pink flowers?

a)

75% red flowers, 25% pink flowers

b)

All red flowers

c)

50% red flowers, 50% pink flowers

d)

Red : pink : white : : 1 : 2 : 1

19.

Andalusian fowls have two pure forms -black and white. If black forms (BB) and white forms (WW) are crossed, F1 individuals appear blue coloured (BW), due to incomplete dominance. Which of the following would be an outcome of a cross between black form and blue form?

a)

1 Black : 2 Blue : 1 White

b)

2 Black : 1 Blue

c)

1 Black : 2 Blue

d)

1 Black : 1 Blue

20.

ABO blood groups in human beings are controlled by the gene |. The gene | has three alleles - |A, |B and i. Since there are three different alleles, six different genotypes are possible.

How many phenotypes can occur?

a)

Six

b)

Two

c)

Three

d)

Four

21.

What can be the blood group of offspring when both parents have AB blood group?

a)

AB only

b)

A, B and AB

c)

A, B, AB and O

d)

A and B only

22.

A cow with red coat is crossed with a bull having white coat. Their offspring produced in F1 generation showed roan coat. This effect is produced due to juxtaposition of small patches of red and white colour. What can be assumed about the gene controlling coat colour in cattle?

a)

The alleles of gene controlling coat colour show a perfect dominant recessive relationship.

b)

The alleles of gene controlling coat colour are incompletely dominant.

c)

The alleles of gene controlling coat colour are co-dominant.

d)

None of these.

23.

ABO blood grouping in human beings cites the example of

a)

Incomplete dominance

b)

Co-dominance

c)

Multiple allelism

d)

Both (b) and (c)

24.

In mice, Y is the dominant allele for yellow fur and y is the recessive allele for grey fur. Since Y is lethal when homozygous, the result of cross Yy x Yy will be

a)

3 Yellow : 1 grey

b)

2 yellow : 1 grey

c)

1 yellow : 1 grey

d)

1 yellow : 2 grey

25.

In mendelian dihybride cross, when heterozygous round yellow are self-crossed, round green offspring are represented by the genotype.

a)

RrYy, RrYY, RRYy

b)

Rryy, RRyy. Rryy

c)

rrYy, rrYY

d)

Rryy, RRyy

26.

Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the given codes.

Column I Column II

A Dihybrid test cross (i) 9:3:3:1

B Law of segregation (ii) Dihybrid cross

C Law of independent (iii) 1:1:1:1

assortment

D ABO blood group (iv) Purity of gametes

in man

(v) Multiple allelism

a)

A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(v)

b)

A-(i), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(v)

c)

A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(v)

d)

A-(ii), B-(v), C-(iii), D-(i)

27.

When a cross is made between a tall plant with yellow seed (Tt Yy) and a tall plant with green seeds (Tt yy), what is true regarding the proportions of phenotypes of the offsprings in F1 generation?

a)

Proportion of Tall and Green - 3/8

Proportion of Dwarf and Green - 1/8

b)

Proportion of Tall and Green - 2/8

Proportion of Dwarf and Green - 1/8

c)

Proportion of Tall and Green - 1/8

Proportion of Dwarf and Green - 3/8

d)

Proportion of Tall and Green - 2/8

Proportion of Dwarf and Green - 2/8

28.

How many types of gametes can be produced by a diploid organism who is heterozygous for loci?

a)

4

b)

8

c)

16

d)

32

29.

In certain plant, yellow fruit colour (Y) is dominant to green fruit colour (y) and round shape (R) is dominant to oval shape (r). The two genes involved are located on different chromosomes.

Which of the following will result when plant YyRr is self-pollinated?

a)

9:3:3:1 ratio of phenotypes only

b)

9:3:3:1 ratio of genotypes only

c)

1:1:1:1 ratio of phenotypes only

d)

1:1:1:1 ratio of phenotypes and genotypes

30.

In certain plant, yellow fruit colour (Y) is dominant to green fruit colour (y) and round shape (R) is dominant to oval shape (r). The two genes involved are located on different chromosomes.

Which of the following is correct for the condition when plant YyRr is back crossed with the double recessive parent?

a)

9:3:3:1 ratio of phenotypes only

b)

9:3:3:1 ratio of genotypes only

c)

1:1:1:1 ratio of phenotypes only

d)

1:1:1:1 ratio of phenotypes and genotypes

31.

“When two pairs of traits are combined in a hybride, segregation of one pair of characters is independent of the other pair of characters”. The statement explains which of the following laws/principles of mendel?

a)

Principle of paired factors

b)

Principle of dominance

c)

Law of segregation

d)

Law of independent assortment

32.

Law of independent assortment can be explained with the help of

a)

dihybride

b)

test cross

c)

back cross

d)

monohybride cross

33.

Which three scientists independently rediscovered mendel’s work?

a)

Avery, Mcleod, McCarty

b)

Sutton, Morgan and Bridges

c)

Bateson, Punnet and Bridges

d)

de Vries, Correns and Tschermak

34.

Chromosomal theory of inheritance was given by

a)

Morgan et al

b)

Sutton and Boveri

c)

Hugo de Vires

d)

Gregor J. Mendel

35.

Experimental verification of ‘chromosomal theory of inheritance’ was done by

a)

Sutton and Boveri

b)

Morgan et al

c)

Henking

d)

Karl Correns

36.

Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the given codes.

Column I Column II

A. Multiple allelism (i) Tt x tt

B. Back cross (ii) Tt x TT

C. Test cross (iii) Human blood groups

D. Crossing over (iv) Non – parental gene

combination

E. Recombination (v) Non – sister

chromatids

a)

A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(v), E-(iv)

b)

A- (iii), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(v), E-(iv)

c)

A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iv), E-(v)

d)

A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(v), E-(iii)

37.

Genes located very close to one another on same chromosome tend to be transmitted together and are called

a)

allelomorphs

b)

linked genes

c)

recessive genes

d)

identical genes

38.

Males of silkworm Bombyx mori are known to produce more silk per unit quantity of leaf consumed. Hence, they are preferably bred in sericulture industry. Which of the following genotypes should be crossed in order to get maximum fraction of healthy male insects?

a)

(i) and (iv)

b)

(i) and (iii)

c)

(ii) and (iii)

d)

(ii) and (iv)

39.

The cross over percentage between linked genes J and M is 20%, J and L is 35%, J and N is 70%, L and K is 15%, M and N is 50%, and M and L is 15%. Thus, the sequences of genes on the chromosomes is

a)

J, N, M, L, K

b)

J, M, L, N, K

c)

J, M, L, K, N

d)

M, J, L, K, N

40.

A woman who is a carrier of a certain disease marries a man who is normal for this trait. They have five children (2 daughters and 3 sons). All sons suffer from the given disease but none of the daughters were affected as the disease show diagynic pattern. Which of the following could be this disease?

a)

Autosomal recessive disease

b)

Sex-linked disease

c)

Sex-limited disease

d)

Autosomal dominant disease

41.

Consider the following statements regarding chromosomal aberrations and select the incorrect ones.

I. Chromosomal aberrations refer to changes in number and arrangement of genes in the chromosomes.

II. Aneuploidy refers to the condition where the genome comprises of extra or fewer chromosomes than its normal number in a species.

III. Heteroploidy occurs due to non-disjunction of chromosomes of homologous pair.

IV. Nullisomy is a type of hyperploidy in which one chromosome is devoid of its homologue.

a)

II and III

b)

IV only

c)

II only

d)

I, III and IV

42.

The allele for pea comb (P) in chickens is completely dominant to the allele for single comb (p). The alleles for black feather colour (B), and white feather colour (B’) show incomplete dominance, so that BB’ individuals possess grey feathers. If chickens heterozygous for both pairs of genes are matched, what proportion of offspring are expected to be single combed and grey feathered?

a)

9/16

b)

3/16

c)

1/16

d)

2/16

43.

Study the two cases carefully. What would be the correct interpretation of the two cases?

Case Mother Father Children

Case I With Normal son always with

disease diseases


Case II With Normal Sons and daughters

disease could show disease

a)

Case I : X-linked recessive disease

Case II : Autosomal recessive disease

b)

Case I : Y-linked recessive disease

Case II : X-linked recessive disease

c)

Case I and II : X-linked recessive disease

d)

Case I : X-linked dominant disease

Case II: Autosomal dominant disease

44.

A pedigree is shown below for a disease that is autosomal dominant. What would be the genetic make up of the first generation?

a)

AA, Aa

b)

Aa, aa

c)

Aa, AA

d)

Aa, Aa

45.

In humans, attached earlobes are a dominant feature over free earlobes while hypertrichosis of the ear is a holandric (Y-linked) feature. A man with attached earlobes and extensive hair on pinna married a woman having free earlobes. The couple had one son with attached earlobes and hairy pinna, another son with free earlobes and hairy pinna and two daughters with attached earlobes. One of the daughters married a man with free earlobes and sparse hair on pinna. They had two sons. What would be the characteristics of their pinnae?

a)

Both will have attached earlobes and sparse hair on pinna.

b)

There would be equal chances for both having free or attached earlobes and sparse hair on pinnae.

c)

They would have hairy pinnae and there would be 1 in 8 chance that both will have attached earlobes.

d)

Both will have free earlobes and extensive hair on pinnae.

46.

Mother and father of a person with ‘O’ blood group have ‘A’ and ‘B’ blood group respectively. What would be the genotype of both mother and father?

a)

Mother is homozygous for ‘A’ blood group and father is heterozygous for ‘B’.

b)

Mother is heterozygous for ‘A’ blood group and father is homozygous for ‘B’.

c)

Both mother and father are heterozygous for ‘A’ and ‘B’ blood group, respectively.

d)

Both mother and father are homozygous for ‘A’ and ‘B’ blood group, respectively.

47.

In the F2 generation of a mendelian dihybrid cross the number of phenotypes and genotypes are

a)

phenotypes-4; genotype-16

b)

phenotypes-9; genotypes-4

c)

phenotypes-4; genotypes-8

d)

phenotypes-4; genotypes-8

48.

It is said that Mendel proposed that the factor controlling any character is discrete and independent. His proposition was based on the

a)

Results of F3 generation of a cross

b)

Observations that the offspring of a cross made between the plants having two contrasting characters shows only one character without any blending.

c)

Self-pollination of F1 offsprings

d)

Cross pollination of F1 generation with recessive parent.

49.

The inheritance pattern of a gene over generations among humans is studied by the pedigree analysis. Character studied in the pedigree analysis is equivalent to

a)

Quantitative trait

b)

Mendelian trait

c)

Polygenic trait

d)

Maternal trait

50.

Occasionally, a single gene may express more than one effect. The phenomenon is called

a)

Multiple allelism

b)

Mosaicism

c)

Pleiotropy

d)

Polygeny

51.

In a dihybrid cross, if you get 9:3:3:1 ratio it denotes that

a)

The alleles of two genes are interacting with each other

b)

It is a multigenic inheritance

c)

It is a case of multiple allelism

d)

The alleles of two genes are segregating independently.

52.

ZZ/ZW type of sex determination is seen in

a)

Platypus

b)

snails

c)

cockroach

d)

peacock

53.

Person having genotype /A /B would show the blood group as AB. This is because of

a)

pleiotropy

b)

co – dominance

c)

segregation

d)

incomplete dominance

54.

In sickle cell anaemia glutamic acid is replaced by valine. Which one of the following triplet codes for valine?

a)

G G G

b)

A A G

c)

G A A

d)

G U G

55.

Distance between the genes and percentage of recombination shows

a)

a direct relationship

b)

an inverse relationship

c)

no relationship.

d)

a parallel relationship

56.

Conditions of a karyotype 2n± 1 and 2n ± 2 are called

a)

aneuploidy

b)

polyploidy

c)

allopolyploidy

d)

monosomy

57.

Which of the following trait is controlled by sex linked recessive genes?

a)

Polydactyly

b)

Huntington’s chorea

c)

PTC (Phenylthiocarbamide) tasting

d)

Haemophilia

58.

. In this disease, there occurs a failure of chloride ion transport mechanism in cell surface membrane of epithelial cells; sweat of the patient conditions very high level of Na+ and Cl- ions. This disease is

a)

Thalassemia

b)

Alzheimer’s disease

c)

Gaucher’s disease

d)

Cystic fibrosis

59.

Select the disease which is caused by recessive autosomal genes when present in homozygous condition

a)

Alkaptonuria

b)

Thalassemia

c)

Cystic fibrosis

d)

All of these

60.

. If both parents are carriers for thalassemia, which is an autosomal recessive disorder, what are the chances of pregnancy resulting in an affected child?

a)

25%

b)

100%

c)

No chance

d)

50%

61.

Which of the following is not an example of recessive autosomal disease?

a)

Haemophilia

b)

Cystic fibrosis

c)

Phenlketonuria

d)

Sickle-cell anaemia

62.

An individual affected by phenylketonuria lacks an enzyme that converts the amino acid _________ into __________.

a)

Tyrosine, phenylalanine

b)

Phenylalanine, tyrosine

c)

Homogentistic acid, phenylalanine

d)

Homogentisic acid, tyrosine.

63.

Red green colourblindness is a sex linked trait. Which of the given statements is not correct regarding colourblindness?

a)

It is more common in males than in females.

b)

Homozygous recessive condition is required for the expression of colourblindness in female.

c)

Males can carriers of the trait.

d)

Colourblind women always have colourblind father and always produce colourblind son.

64.

The disease sickle-cell anaemia is caused by the substitution of (i) by (ii) at the (iii) position of (iv) globin chain of haemoglobin molecule.

Which of the following correctly fills the blanks in the above statement?

a)

(i) valine, (ii) glutamic acid, (iii) sixth, (iv) beta

b)

(i) glutamic acid, (ii) valine, (iii) sixth, (iv) beta

c)

(i) glutamic acid, (ii) valine, (iii) fifth, (iv) beta

d)

(i) valine, (ii) glutamic acid, (iii) fifth, (iv) beta

65.

A marriage between a colourblind man and a normal woman produces.

a)

All carrier daughters and normal sons.

b)

50% carrier daughters, 50% normal daughters.

c)

50% colourblind sons, 50% normal sons

d)

All carrier offsprings

66.

A colourblind man (XcY) marries a woman who is carrier for haemophilia (XXh). Which of the following is true for their progenies?

a)

25% female progenies carry the genes for both haemophilia and colourblindness.

b)

25% male progenies carry only the gene for haemophilia.

c)

25% female progenies carry only the gene for colourblindness.

d)

All of these.

67.

If a haemophilic man marries a carrier woman then which of the following holds true for their progenies?

a)

50% daughters are carrier and 50% are haemophilic.

b)

All the daughters are haemophilic.

c)

All sons are haemophilic and all daughters are normal.

d)

All sons normal, all daughters carriers.

68.

____________ is an example of X-linked recessive trait.

a)

Phenylketonuria

b)

Haemophilia

c)

Cystic fibrosis

d)

Sickle-cell anaemia

69.

In heritance of which of the following traits is shown in the given cross?

a)

X-linked dominant trait

b)

X-linked recessive trait

c)

Autosomal recessive trait

d)

Autosomal dominant trait

70.

Refer to the given family tree and answer the question.

What are the chances of this couple’s fifth child being an albino?

a)

1 in 1

b)

1 in 2

c)

1 in 3

d)

1 in 4

71.

Refer to the given family tree and answer the question.

If A=normal allele, a=albino allele, then genotypes of father and mother are respectively.

a)

Aa and Aa

b)

AA and Aa

c)

Aa and AA

d)

Aa and aa

72.

Study the pedigree chart of a family showing the inheritance of myotonic dystrophy.

The trait under study is

a)

Dominant X-linked

b)

Autosomal dominant

c)

Recessive X-linked

d)

Recessive Y-linked

73.

Study the pedigree chart of a family showing the inheritance of sickle-cell anaemia

The traits traced in the above pedigree chart is

a)

Dominant X-linked

b)

Recessive X-linked

c)

Autosomal dominant

d)

Autosomal recessive

74.

Given pedigree chart depicts the inheritance of attached ear lobes, an autosomal recessive trait.

Which of the following conclusions drawn is correct?

a)

Parents are heterozygous.

b)

Parents are homozygous dominant.

c)

Parents are homozygous recessive.

d)

None of these

75.

In humans, polydactyly (i.e, presence of extra fingers and toes is determined by a dominant autosomal allele (P) and the normal condition is determined by a recessive allele (p). Find out the possible genotypes of family members 1, 2 and 3 in the given pedigree.

a)

1. PP 2. Pp 3. pp

b)

1. PP 2. PP 3. pp

c)

1. Pp 2. PP 3.Pp

d)

1. Pp 2. Pp 3. pp

76.

In maize, coloured endosperm (c) is dominant over colourless (c); and full endosperm (R) is dominant over shrunken (r). When a dihybrid of F1 generation was test crossed, it produced four phenotypes in the following percentage:

Coloured full – 48% Coloured shrunken – 5%

Colourless full – 7% Colourless shrunken – 40%

From this data, what will be the distance between two non- allelic genes?

a)

48 units

b)

5 units

c)

7 units

d)

12 units

77.

Refer to the given figure of cross A and cross B and select the correct statement regarding them.

a)

In cross A, the strength of linkage genes y and w is higher than the cross B genes w and m.

b)

In cross A, the strength of linkage between genes y and w is lesser than the cross B genes w and m.

c)

Both cross A genes y and w and cross B genes w and m have the same strength of linkage.

d)

The percentage of recombinants produced in cross A is higher than cross B.

78.

What is true about the crossing over between linked genes?

a)

No crossing over at all

b)

High percentage of crossing over

c)

Hardly and crossing over

d)

None of these

79.

Chromosome maps/genetic maps were first prepared by

a)

Sutton and Boveri (1902)

b)

Bateson and Punnett (1906)

c)

Morgan (1910)

d)

Sturtevant (1911)

80.

Given diagram shows a pair of homologous chromosomes during meiosis.

Maximum crossing over will occur between genes

a)

A and a, D and

b)

C and d, c and D

c)

B and c, b and C

d)

A and d, a and D

81.

Which of the following are reasons for Mendel’s success?

(i) Usage of pure lines or pure breeding varieties

(ii) Consideration of one character at a time

(iii) Maintenance of statistical records of experiments

(iv) Knowledge of linkage and incomplete dominance

a)

(i) and (ii) only

b)

(i), (ii) and (iii)

c)

(i) and (iv) only

d)

(ii), (iii) and (iv)

82.

If linkage was known at the time of mendel then which of the following laws, he would not have been able to explain?

a)

Law of dominance

b)

Law of independent assortment

c)

Law of segregation

d)

Law of purity of gametes

83.

Read the given statement and select the correct option.

(i) Percentage of homozygous dominant individuals obtained by selfing Aa individuals is 25%.

(ii) Types of genetically different gametes produced by genotype AABbcc are 2.

(iii) Phenotypic ratio of monohybrid F2 progency in case of Mirabilis jalapa is 3:1.

a)

All the statements are true.

b)

Statements (i) and (ii) are true, but statement (iii) is false.

c)

Statements (i) and (iii) are true, but statement (ii) is false.

d)

Statements (ii) and (iii) are true, but statement (i) is false.

84.

In polygenic inheritance

a)

Many genes govern a single character

b)

Heterozgous organisms express only one allele itself

c)

Heterozygous organisms express both alleles

d)

A single gene influence many characters.

85.

In a cross between negro and albino skin colour of humans showing polygenic inheritance, the phenotypic ratio in F2 generation will be

a)

9:3:3:1

b)

1:6:15:20:15:6:1

c)

1:4:6:4:1

d)

1:2:2:4:1:2:1:2:1

86.

When a single gene influences more than one trait it is called

a)

Pseudo -dominance

b)

pleiotropy

c)

epistasis

d)

none of these

87.

XO type of sex determination and XY type of sex determination are the examples of

a)

Male heterogamety

b)

Female heterogamety

c)

Male homogamety

d)

Both (b) and (c)

88.

Select the correct statements regarding honeybees.

(i) The queen bee and the worker bees develop from fertilized eggs and are sexually females.

(ii) Males (drones develop parthenogenetically from unfertilized eggs.

(iii) Queen bee feeds upon royal jelly and the worker bees feed upon bee bread.

a)

(i) and (ii) only

b)

(ii) and (iii) only

c)

(i) and (iii) only

d)

(i), (ii) and (iii)

89.

Number of autosomes present in liver cells of a human female is

a)

22 autosomes

b)

22 pairs

c)

23 autosomes

d)

23 pairs

90.

In honeybees, females are (i) having (ii) chromosomes and males are (iii) having (iv) chromosomes.

a)

(i) diploid (ii) 46 (iii) haploid (iv) 23

b)

(i) haploid (ii) 23 (iii) diploid (iv)46

c)

(i) diploid (ii) 32 (iii) haploid (iv) 16

d)

(i) haploid (ii) 16 (iii) diploid (iv) 32

91.

Refer to the given figure.

This type of sex determination is found in

a)

grasshoppers and cockroaches

b)

birds and reptiles

c)

butterflies and moths

d)

honeybees, ants and wasps

92.

Find out the mismatched pair.

a)

Haemophilia – sex linked recessive

b)

Cystic fibrosis – Autosomal recessive

c)

Down’s syndrome – Trisomy 21

d)

Turner’s syndrome – Y-linked

93.

Refer to the given figure representing karyotype of individual who inflicted with this chromosomal disorder.


Select the correct statement regarding it.

a)

This disorder occurs due to failure of segregation of chromatids during cell division cycle results in the gain of chromosome.

b)

This disorder occurs due to failure of cytokinesis after telophase stage of cell division results in an increase in whole set of chromosome.

c)

Individuals inflicted with this disorder are usually sterile.

d)

Both (a) and (c)

94.

Due to nondisjunction of chromosomes during spermatogenesis, some sperms carry both sex chromosomes (22A + XY) and some sperms do not carry any sex chromosome (22A + O). If these sperms fertilise normal eggs (22A + X), what types of genetic disorders appear accordingly among the offsprings?

a)

Klinerfelter’s syndrome and Turner’s syndrome

b)

Turner’s syndrome and Klinefelter’s syndrome

c)

Down’s syndrome and Turner’s syndrome

d)

Down’s syndrome and cri-du-chat syndrome

95.

Rate of mutation is affected by

a)

Temperature

b)

X- rays

c)

Gamma rays

d)

All of these

96.

Insertion or deletion of a single base causes

a)

inversion mutation

b)

transition mutation

c)

frame – shift mutation

d)

transversion mutation

97.

Point mutation may occur due to

a)

Alteration in DNA sequence

b)

Change in a single base pair of DNA

c)

Deletion of a segments of DNA

d)

Gain of a segment in DNA

98.

Select the incorrect statement regarding pedigree analysis.

a)

Solid symbols show unaffected individuals

b)

Proband is the person from which case history starts

c)

It is useful for genetic counsellors

d)

It is an analysis of traits in several generation of a family.

99.

The possibility of a female becoming hameophilic is extremely rare because mother of such a female has to be at least (i) and father should be (ii).

a)

(i) haemophilic, (ii) carrier

b)

(i) carrier, (ii) haemophilic

c)

(i) haemophilic, (ii) normal

d)

(i) haemophilic, (ii) haemophilic

100.

Read the given statements.

(i) Incomplete or mosaic inheritance is an example of pre-Mendelian concept of blending inheritance.

(ii) Test cross is a special type of back cross.

(iii) Chromosomal aberrations are commonly observed in cancer cells.

(iv) Thalassemia is a Mendelian disorder.

Which of the above statements are correct?

a)

(i) and (ii) only

b)

(ii), (iii) and (iv) only

c)

(ii) and (iv) only

d)

(i) and (iv) only