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WorksheetsMODULE 2 PINK PACOP BIOCHEM 201-300
Total questions: 100
Worksheet time: 50mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
The deficiency of which the following enzymes predisposes persons taken same therapeutic agents (e.g 4 aminoquinoline, sulfonamides , and propanthelin ) to hemolytic anemia.
a)
glucose 1 –phosphate
b)
glucose 6-phosphate
c)
pyruvate dehydrogenase
d)
thymidylate synthase
2.
The digestion of carbohydrates begins in the
a)
mouth
b)
stomach
c)
small intestine
d)
duodenum
3.
The nonsugar portion of glycosides is known as
a)
aglycone
b)
genin
c)
glycine
d)
both A and B
e)
both B and C
4.
What type of glycosidic bond joins the dimer of glucose to form maltose?
a)
alpha 1, 4
b)
beta 1, 4
c)
alpha 1, 2
d)
beta 1, 2
5.
The cell markers, which serve as basis for the ABO blood types, are classified as what type of biopolymers?
a)
proteins
b)
carbohydrates
c)
lipids
d)
nucleic acids
6.
Which of the following blood types is considered as the universal donor?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
AB
d)
O
7.
Which of the following is the reason why blood type AB is considered as universal recipient?
a)
It is the most common among the ABO blood types
b)
Blood type AB has neither A nor B substances
c)
blood type AB has neither anti- A nor anti- B antibodies
d)
all of the above
8.
Which of the following statements is/ are true?
a)
amylose is long, unbranched polymer with alpha 1, 4 bonds
b)
starch consist of a greater proportion of amylopectin than amylose
c)
all of the above
d)
A and B only
9.
The enzyme alpha amylase cleaves to maltose and maltotriose.
a)
chondroitin
b)
cellulose
c)
heparin
d)
amylopectin
e)
amylase
10.
Which of the following is a homopolymer of N – acetyl beta –D – glucosamine whose best known function is in invertebrate animals?
a)
Xylan
b)
peptidoglycan
c)
hyaluronic acid
d)
chitin
11.
Which of the following is / are examples of glycosaminoglycans?
a)
hyaluronic acids
b)
mucopolysaccharides
c)
chondroitin sulfate
d)
all of the above
e)
only A and C
12.
Which of the following is/ are examples of trisaccharides?
a)
raffinose
b)
gentianose
c)
melezitose
d)
all of the above
e)
A and B only
13.
Raffinose, a trisaccharides also known as
a)
melitose
b)
melitriose
c)
melezitose
d)
Both A and B
e)
Both B and C
14.
Alpha napthol reaction is also known as
a)
Molisch test
b)
Ninhydrin test
c)
Phenylhydrazine test
d)
Fehlings test
15.
What is the visible result for Molisch test?
a)
green or blue green
b)
brick red precipitate
c)
cherry red color
d)
purple ring at the junction
16.
This is the other name of Taubers test for ketoses?
a)
Anthrone test
b)
Seliwanoffs test
c)
Aminoguanidine reaction
d)
Mucic acid test
17.
What is the visible result of aminoguanidine reaction?
a)
purple ring at the junction
b)
green
c)
brownish black precipitate
d)
bright reddish precipitate
18.
Which of the following accurately describes Barfoeds test?
a)
general test for carbohydrates
b)
test for ketoses
c)
specific test for galactose
d)
test to differentiate monosaccharides and disaccharides
19.
The addition of a few drops of iodine to a solution produces blue color. This indicates the presence of
a)
starch
b)
dextrin
c)
all of the above
d)
A and B only
e)
A and B only
20.
A reddish solution results after addition of iodine TS to unknown solution. Subsequent addition of ammoniacal basic lead acetate to a portion of the unknown solutions to the formation of a precipitate. The results to the test confirm the presence of
a)
glycogen
b)
dextrin
c)
starch
d)
lactose
21.
This gives a negative to benedicts test
a)
glucose
b)
sucrose
c)
lactose
d)
maltose
22.
What test can be used to diffentiate galactose from lactose?
a)
Benidicts test
b)
iodine test
c)
Barfoed test
d)
Mucic acid test
23.
What is the positive result for Fehling test?
a)
violet precipitate
b)
brick red precipitate
c)
green precipitate
d)
amorphous crystals
24.
This is the general test for carbohydrates?
a)
alpha napthol reaction
b)
molisch test
c)
Phenylhydrazine Test
d)
Both A and B
e)
Both B and C
25.
Which of the following sugars forms an insoluble white phenylhydrazone readily?
a)
sucrose
b)
galactose
c)
arabinose
d)
mannose
26.
Which hydrolysis product of starch is responsible for forming a dark blue complex with iodine?
a)
amylopectin
b)
amylose
c)
maltose
d)
all of the above
27.
This is differentiating test for aldose and ketose sugars?
a)
Seliwanoffs test
b)
Mucic acid test
c)
Barfoed test
d)
any of the above
28.
This is also known as Embden-Mayeroff pathway?
a)
glycolysis
b)
Gluconeogenesis
c)
glycogenesis
d)
glycogenolysis
29.
Which of the following is / are ATP consuming stage (s) in glycolysis?
a)
Irreversible phosporylation of glucose to glucose 6- phosphate
b)
Irreversible phoporylation of fructose-6-phosphate to fructose- 1, 6- biphosphate
c)
phospoenolpyruvate to pyruvate
d)
A and B
e)
B and C
30.
Which of the following enzymes is responsible for catalyzing the reaction of glucose to glucose – phosphate?
a)
hexokinase
b)
pyruvate kinase
c)
PFK
d)
glyceraldehyde phosphate dehydrogenase
31.
This enzyme catalyzes the conversion of fructose-6-P to fructose-1, 6-bi- Phosphate?
a)
hexokinase
b)
pyruvate kinase
c)
PFK
d)
glyceraldehyde phosphate dehydrogenase
32.
The enzymes for glycolysis are found in the
a)
mitochondrion
b)
cytososl
c)
ribosome
d)
nucleus
33.
Which of the following enzymes is most important in controlling glycolysis?
a)
Hexokinase
b)
pyruvate kinase
c)
PFK
d)
none of the above
34.
This enzyme is the key that links glycolysis, TCA cycle, amino acid metabolism, and fatty acid oxidation.
a)
hexokinase
b)
pyruvate kinase
c)
PFK
d)
none of the above
35.
In the phosphorylation reaction, this metal is an essential cofactor?
a)
Cu
b)
Fe
c)
Mg
d)
Al
36.
This is the main pathway for the carbohydrate catabolism in all human tissues?
a)
glycolysis
b)
glycogenolysis
c)
fructose catabolism
d)
galactose catabolism
37.
Which of the following enzymes catalyze irreversible steps in glycolysis?
1. PFK
2. Hexokinase
3. Pyruvate kinase
4. Pyruvate dehydrogenase
a)
3 only
b)
1 and 2 only
c)
1, 2, 3
d)
2 and 4
38.
The NADH in glycolysis (cytosol) must be transported to the mitochondrion to undergo oxidative phosphorylation. However, neither NAD nor NADH can penetrate the mitochondrion. This problem is addressed by the use of shuttles. Which of the following statements regarding the shuttles is correct?
a)
glycerol-PO4 shuttle yields 3 ATP
b)
malate aspartate shuttle yields 2 ATP
c)
both statements are correct
d)
both statements are false
39.
Which of the following statements is/ are true regarding anaerobic glycolysis?
a)
The formation of lactate and 2ATP is the net yield
b)
There is a net of 2 NADH produced in the process
c)
The anaerobic glycolysis is slower than the aerobic glycolysis
d)
all of the above
e)
Both A and B
40.
240. The total bet ATP produced in aerobic glycolysis is ATPs per mole of hexose , depending on which shuttle predominates in the transport NAD/ NADH.
a)
4 to 6
b)
6 to 8
c)
4 to 8
d)
8 to 10
41.
The site of citric acid
a)
cytososl
b)
mitochondria
c)
ribosomes
d)
any of the above
42.
Among the different cells in the body, only these lack mitochondria, which render them incapable of TCA.
a)
platelets
b)
leukocytes
c)
erythrocytes
d)
brain cells
43.
Which of the following is the central hub in the metabolism of carbohydrates, lipids and amino acids?
a)
glycolysis
b)
pentose Phosphate Pathway
c)
beta –oxidation
d)
citric acid cycle
44.
What enzymes catalyze the conversion of Acetyl- CoA and oxaloacetate to citrate?
a)
citrate synthase
b)
isocitrate dehydrogenase
c)
fumarase
d)
malate dehydrogenase
45.
Which of the following is /are the control points in the TCA?
a)
the citrate reaction , which is inhibited by ATP
b)
Isocitrate dehydrogenase reaction, which is inhibited by ATP
c)
alpha ketoglutarate dehydrogenase reaction , which is inhibited by the end products Succinyl CoA and NADH
d)
all of the above
e)
a and B only
46.
The electron transport chain (ETC) is the final common pathway by which electrons derived from the different fuels of the body flow to oxygen. Where does ETC occur?
a)
outer mitochondrial membrane
b)
inner mitochondrial membrane
c)
cytosol
d)
ribosome
47.
This is the product of the complete reduction of oxygen?
a)
water
b)
superoxide anions
c)
hydrogen peroxide
d)
hydroxyl radicals
48.
248. Which of the following enzymes converts hydrogen peroxide in water?
a)
superoxide dismutase
b)
catalase
c)
cytochrome reductase
d)
cytochrome oxidase
49.
Tocopherol, carotene, glutathione are ascorbate are all examples of
a)
reducing agents
b)
antioxidants
c)
both A and B
d)
neither A nor B
50.
250. Gluconeogenesis, the formation of new glucose, have enzymes that are confined only in some organs, which include
a)
muscles
b)
liver
c)
kidneys
d)
Both A and B
e)
Both B and C
51.
What enzyme in gluconeogenesis is include to bypass the hexokinase reaction, which is the conversion of glucose to glucose- phosphate?
a)
pyruvate carboxylase
b)
PEP carboxykinase
c)
fructose biphosphate
d)
glucose -6 –phosphatase
52.
Which of the following enzymes in gluconeogenesis is used to bypass the PFK reaction?
a)
pyruvate carboxylase
b)
PEP carboxykinase
c)
fructose biphosphate
d)
glucose -6 –phosphatase
53.
What two enzymes are used to bypass the pyruvate kinase reaction of glycolysis?
1. Pyruvate carboxylase
2. PEP carboxykinase
3. fructose biphosphate
4. Glucose -6 –phosphatase
a)
1 and 2
b)
1 and 3
c)
2 and 4
d)
3 and 4
54.
The pentose phosphate pathway occur in the liver, muscle and kidney.
a)
inner mitochondria
b)
outer mitochondria
c)
cytosol
d)
ribosomes
55.
Which of the following includes the main goals of Pentose Phosphate Pathway?
a)
produce ribose -5 –phosphate for nucleotide synthesis
b)
produce NAPDH and NADP for fatty acid and steroid biosynthesis
c)
to interconvert pentoses and hexoses
d)
all of the above
e)
A and B only
56.
Which of the following enzymes is present only in the liver and kidney and not in the muscles?
a)
pyruvate carboxylase
b)
PEP carboxykinase
c)
fructose biphosphate
d)
glucose – 6- phosphatase
57.
This is only the eraction coupled with substrate level phosphorylation in the TCA?
a)
citrate to isocitrate
b)
isocitrate to alpha –ketoglutarate
c)
succinyl CoA to succinyl
d)
succinate to fumarate
58.
This is only the reaction in TCA that involves FAD / FAD2?
a)
citrate to isocitrate
b)
isocitrate to alpha –ketoglutarate
c)
succinyl CoA to succinyl
d)
succinate to fumarate
59.
How many ATPs are produced for every acetyl CoA oxidized?
a)
10
b)
12
c)
14
d)
8
60.
How many ATPs are produced in the reduction of one mole of NAD to NADH?
a)
2
b)
3
c)
3
d)
12
61.
How many ATPs are produced in the convertion of one mole of FADH2 to FAD?
a)
2
b)
3
c)
4
d)
12
62.
This refers to aldose-ketose interconvertion?
a)
tautomerization
b)
mutarotation
c)
isomerism
d)
conjugation
63.
Which of the following occurs in the cytosol?
a)
TCA
b)
glycolysis
c)
PPP
d)
both A and B
e)
Both B and C
64.
The site of acylglycerol synthesis.
a)
ribosome
b)
endoplasmic reticulum
c)
cytosol
d)
mitochondrion
65.
This refers to the totality of the chemical reactions that occur in an organism?
a)
metabolism
b)
anabolism
c)
catabolism
d)
amphibolism
66.
The citric acid cycle is an example of a metabolism
a)
anabolic
b)
catabolic
c)
amphibolic
d)
none of the above
67.
Which of the following is true regarding anabolism?
a)
it is involved in the breakdown of larger molecules
b)
It consumes energy
c)
it commonly involves oxidative reactions
d)
It is exergonic
68.
Which of the following is/ are true example of catabolism?
a)
glycogenesis
b)
glycolysis
c)
beta oxidation of fatty acid
d)
both A and B
e)
Both B and C
69.
After digestion and absorption, all biopolymers are converted to the common product,
a)
acetyl CoA
b)
pyruvate
c)
citrate
d)
any of the above
70.
This refers to a class of a heterogeneous group of compound, which are more relate by their physical than by their chemical properties.
a)
proteins
b)
nucleic acids
c)
carbohydrates
d)
lipids
71.
These are esters of fatty acids and glycerol?
a)
fixed oils and fats
b)
waxes
c)
sterols
d)
phospholipids
72.
These are esters of high molecular weight, monohydric alcohols and high molecular weight fatty acids.
a)
fixed oils and fats
b)
waxes
c)
sterols
d)
phospholipids
73.
These are alcohols containing CPPP nucleus?
a)
fixed oils and fats
b)
waxes
c)
sterols
d)
phospholipids
74.
These are esters of glycerol in combination with fatty acids, phosphoric acid, and certain nitrogenous compounds.
a)
fixed oils and fats
b)
waxes
c)
sterols
d)
phospholipids
75.
Lard is an example of what chemical class of lipids?
a)
fixed oils and fats
b)
waxes
c)
sterols
d)
phospholipids
76.
Which of the following is a wax?
a)
cholesterol
b)
ergosterol
c)
spermacetti
d)
lecithin
77.
Lecithin is an example of
a)
fixed oils and fats
b)
waxes
c)
sterols
d)
phospholipids
78.
Which of the following is / are true regarding fats and fixed oils?
a)
the difference in consistency is caused by the glyceryl ester present.
b)
Fixed oils are fats that are solids at room temperature
c)
Fixed oils have a higher proportion of saturated glycerides.
d)
Fats have a higher proportion of unsaturated glycerides
e)
all of the above
79.
What phospholipids are associated with the process of blood clotting?
a)
lecithin
b)
cephalin
c)
spingomyelin
d)
none of the above
80.
Which of the following statements is/ are true?
a)
Unsaturated fatty acids have lower melting point than saturated fatty acids
b)
vegetable oils are generally liquid
c)
vegetable oils are generally solid
d)
Both A and B
e)
Both B and C
81.
Which of the following statements is / are correct?
1. Although cocoa butter is a vegetable oil, it is solid at room temperature
2. Although cocoa butter is an animal fat , it is liquid at room temperature
3. Although cod liver is an animal fat, it is liquid at room temperature
4. Although cod liver oils is vegetable oil, it is solid at room temperature
a)
3 only
b)
1 and 3
c)
2 and 4
d)
2 only
82.
Which of the following statements is true when fats and fixed oils are heated strongly?
a)
fats liquefy
b)
oils becomes less viscous
c)
decomposition occurs accompanied by the production of acrid flammable vapors
d)
saponication occurs
83.
Which of the following is true when fats and fixed oils are heated moderately?
a)
fats becomes less viscous, oil liquefy
b)
fats liquefy, oils becomes less viscous
c)
decomposition occurs with the production of acrid flammable odor
d)
saponication occurs
84.
Which of the following is the common property of lipids?
a)
they are insoluble in water
b)
they are soluble in nonpolar solvents
c)
they are completely immiscible with hexane
d)
all of the above
e)
Both A and B
85.
Which of the following are properties of fats and fixed oils? 1. Greasy to touch 2. Leave a permanent oily stain upon the filter paper 3. A few of them are soluble in alcohol 4. They undergo saponification
a)
3 only
b)
1 and 2
c)
3 and 4
d)
1 and 4
86.
These are lipids that contain carbohydrate (galactose or glucose) one fatty acid and sphingosine, but no phosphoric acid or glycerol?
a)
cerebrosides
b)
gangliosides
c)
cytolipins
d)
any of the above
87.
These are compounds related to cerebrosides that contain sphingosine, long chain fatty acids, hexoses (usually galactose or glucose) and neuraminis acid?
a)
cerebrosides
b)
gangliosides
c)
cytolipins
d)
lecithins
88.
Gangliosides, cerebrosides and cytolipins are collectively called
a)
phospholipids or phosphatides
b)
glycolipids
c)
sulofolipids
d)
lipoproteins
89.
This is the disposition of lipid plaques on the lining of the arteries?
a)
Atherosclerosis
b)
Gaucher disease
c)
Tay Sac’s disease
d)
Hyperlipoprotenimia
90.
Which of the following is/are true regarding lipolysis?
a)
It is triglyceride hydrolysis
b)
It liberates free fatty acids from their main storage depots in the triglycerides
c)
It begins in the intestinal hydrolysis of dietary triglycerides by pancreatic lipase
d)
all of the above
91.
Beta oxidation of fatty occurs in the
a)
cytosol
b)
mitochondria
c)
endoplasmic reticulum
d)
ribosomes
92.
Fatty acid elongation occurs in the
a)
cytosol
b)
mitochondria
c)
endoplasmic reticulum
d)
microsomes
93.
293. This 3- carbon fatty acid derivatives arises from the catabolism of fatty acids containing odd numbered carbons.
a)
acetyl CoA
b)
acyl CoA
c)
propionyl CoA
d)
Butyryl CoA
94.
294. Which of the following are ketone bodies? 1. Acetone 2. acetic acid 3. Acetoacetic acid 4. Beta hydroxybutyric acid
a)
1 and 2
b)
1, 2 and 3
c)
1, 2 and 4
d)
1 , 3 and 4
95.
The state of high serum levels of acetoacetic acid and beta- hydroxybutyric acid is called
a)
ketonemia
b)
ketonuria
c)
ketosis
d)
ketoacidosis
96.
The Salkoowski test for cholesterol utilizes what strong acid?
a)
nitric acid
b)
sulfuric acid
c)
hydrochloric acid
d)
perchloric acid
97.
The acetic acid acid- sulfuric acid test for cholesterol is more commonly known as
a)
microscopic examination for cholesterol
b)
Salkowkis test
c)
Liebermann- Burchard test
d)
Formaldehyde test
98.
298. What is the positive visible result for Liebermann – Burchard test?
a)
yellow crystal
b)
black precipitate
c)
white amorphous precipitate
d)
bluish green color
99.
Which vitamin can be used in the management of hyperlipidemia?
a)
thiamine
b)
riboflavin
c)
niacin
d)
pantothenic acid
100.
300. Which of the following drugs is a structural analog of HMG- CoA?
a)
clofibrate
b)
colestipol
c)
cholestyramine
d)
lovastatin
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