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Unit 6 Test Review Practice

Total questions: 78

Worksheet time: 58mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Put the following actions in order: DNA replicates, cell grows, cell divides, cell prepares for mitosis.

a)

DNA replicates, cell grows, cell prepares for mitosis, cell divides

b)

cell grows, cell prepares for mitosis, DNA replicates, cell divides

c)

cell grows, DNA replicates, cell prepares for mitosis, cell divides

d)

DNA replicates, cell prepares for mitosis, cell grows, cell divides

2.

Which statement below desribes the events during G2 of Interphase?

a)

The cell grows, develops, and makes new proteins

b)

The DNA replicates to form a new set of identical chromosomes

c)

The cell grows, makes new organelles, and prepares for mitosis

d)

the nucleolus disappears and the nuclear envelope disintegrates

3.

In which part of Interphase are the chromosomes replicated?

a)

G0

b)

G1

c)

S

d)

G2

4.

During which stage of the cell cycle does the nucleus divide?

a)

interphase

b)

mitosis

c)

endocytosis

d)

cytokinesis

5.

Which is not a phase of the cell cycle?

a)

Interphase

b)

Mitosis

c)

Cytokinesis

d)

Duplication

6.

Spinal cord injuries are difficult to treat because damaged nerce cells do not regenerate. Which of the following most accurately explains why damaged nerve cells no longer regenerate?

a)

Mature nerve cells are in a resting state; the no longer divide during mitosis

b)

Nerve damage disrupts the cell cycle at the G1 phase

c)

Nerve damage disrupts the cell cycle at the S phase

d)

Nerve damage prevents centrioles from being synthesized

7.

Which stage of the cell cycle is MOST critical for ensuring that daughter cells are identical?

a)

G1

b)

S

c)

Prophase

d)

G2

8.

Select all stages of interphase?

a)

G1

b)

S

c)

G2

d)

Mitosis

9.

What best explains the role of cellular division?

a)

to grow, develop, and repair tissue

b)

to eliminate unneeded cells

c)

to produce egg and sperm cells

d)

to eliminate waste from your body

10.

In which stage of the cell cycle does the cell split into two?

a)

Mitosis

b)

G1

c)

Cytokinesis

d)

S

11.

_____ is the uncontrolled growth of cells, often resulting in a tumor or mass of abnormal cells

a)

Cancer

b)

Apoptosis

c)

Radiation

12.

Apoptosis is

a)

programmed cell death

b)

mysterious cell death

c)

programmed cellular mutation

d)

mysterious cellular mutation

13.

If you look at a cell under a microscope, which phase is it MOST likely to be in?

a)

Cytokinesis

b)

M phase

c)

Interphase

d)

G1 Phase

14.

The correct sequence of mitosis:

a)

metaphase, anaphase, telophase, prophase

b)

prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

c)

prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase

d)

telophase, metaphase, prophase, anaphase

15.

What is cell differentiation?

a)

Process by which cells produce more cells

b)

Process by which cells become specialized

c)

Process by which cells become unspecialized

d)

Process by which cells die

16.

What is one goal of cellular differentiation/specialization?

a)

To create specialized cells to help organism maintain homeostasis.

b)

To many cells.

c)

To make stem cells

d)

to make single celled organisms

17.

Stem cells are

a)

cells that grow uncontrollably

b)

undifferentiated and can be any type of cell

c)

never go through cell division

d)

only found in embryos

18.

what is the role of stem cells in the body

a)

fight against infection

b)

provide specialized roles in the body

c)

used for fertility treatment

d)

they produce new specialized cells in the body to replace old cells that are used up

19.

Name the cellular process responsible for repair, growth, and development in living organisms.

a)

meiosis

b)

mitosis

c)

transcription

d)

translation

20.

Stem cell research is controversial because in involves?

a)

social issues

b)

ethical issues

c)

educational issues

d)

economical issues

21.

What is the difference between embryonic stem cells and adult stem cells?

a)

Embryonic stem cells can differentiate into more cell types than adult stem cells

b)

Adult stem cells are pluripotent, just like embryonic stem cells

c)

Adult stem cells can differentiate into more cell types than embryonic stem cells

d)

Adult stem cells grow bigger than embryonic stem cells

22.

Why are scientists interested in studying stem cells?

a)

They never die.

b)

They come from the brain stem.

c)

They can be transplanted into monkeys.

d)

They can become any type of cell.

23.

What is the importance of apoptosis?

a)

To eliminate damaged or unnecessary cells

b)

To create specialized cells

c)

To produce two identical cells

d)

To cause uncontrolled cell growth

24.

DNA replication is important for mitosis because...

a)

it results in a variety of traits amongst the same type of cells

b)

it ensures more genetic material in the strongest cells

c)

it ensures both cells will have identical, correct genetic information

d)

it creates variety amongst cells

25.

A substance that is known to cause cancer is called a

a)

carcinogen

b)

retrovirus

c)

pathogen

d)

paramecium

26.

Which of these is a tumor that is noncancerous and does not spread?

a)

Malignant

b)

Benign

27.

When cancer spreads to other tissues of the body, it is called...

a)

Metastasis

b)

Invasiveness

c)

Angiogenesis

d)

Chemotherapy

28.

A benign tumor differs from a malignant tumor in that a benign tumor

a)

is cancerous

b)

spreads from the original site

c)

does not metastisize

d)

never causes health problems

29.

________________is a critical point where stop and go signals can regulate the cycle

a)

Metastasis

b)

Checkpoint

c)

Malignant

d)

Benign

30.

Which of the following are checkpoints that the cell must pass before dividing?

a)

Have enough nutrients

b)

Be large enough to divide

c)

Have correctly copied all DNA

d)

All of the above

31.

Identical chromosomes are checked for attachment to the spindle fibers during which cell cycle checkpoint?

a)

G1

b)

G2

c)

M

d)

G0

32.

A mutation in a tumor suppressor gene or a proto-oncogene would cause which of the following?

a)

A cell will remain in G0.

b)

A cell will perform apoptosis.

c)

The cell cycle would not be regulated.

d)

The chromosomes will not attach properly to spindle fibers.

33.

Name the phase:

a)

Anaphase

b)

Telophase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Prophase

34.

What is the next phase of mitosis? What phase comes AFTER the one pictured here...?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

35.
a)

Prophase

b)

Interphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

36.

a)

Anaphase

b)

Cytokinesis

c)

Telophase

d)

Metaphase

37.

a)

Anaphase

b)

Cytonkinesis

c)

Interphase

d)

Prophase

38.

a)

Cytokinesis

b)

Anaphase

c)

Telophase

d)

Prophase

39.

The phase in mitosis where chromosomes move away and are pulled apart by spindles to opposite sides of the cell.

a)

prophase

b)

anaphase

c)

metaphase

d)

telephase

40.

A chromatid is attached to a spindle fiber by the

a)

nucleolus

b)

deep furrow

c)

centromere

d)

centriole

41.

the two halves of the doubled chromosome structure

a)

centromeres

b)

sister chromatids

c)

spindle

d)

tissues

42.

In mitosis, the two resulting cells are

a)

different from the starting cell and identical to each other.

b)

different from the starting cell and different from each other.

c)

identical to the starting cell and different from each other.

d)

identical to the starting cell and identical to each other.

43.

What is the name of the structure labeled X?

a)

Centriole

b)

Centrosome

c)

Chromatid

d)

Chromosome

44.

A turkey sperm cell contains 80 chromosomes. How many chromosomes will be found in a turkey muscle cell?

a)

40

b)

80

c)

120

d)

160

45.

Which of the following cells is diploid?

a)

sperm cell

b)

egg cell

c)

gamete

d)

zygote

46.

Beaver muscle cells have 48 chromosomes. How many chromosomes would be found in a beaver egg cell?

a)

96

b)

48

c)

24

d)

12

47.

Which of the following occurs only in meiosis?

a)

crossing over between homologous chromosomes

b)

pulling apart of sister chromatids

c)

splitting of cytoplasm

d)

repication of DNA in interphase

48.

Which of the following could be produced by meiosis?

a)

muscle cell

b)

nerve cell

c)

gamete

d)

zygote

49.

A guinea pig cell has 64 chromosomes. After mitosis, each daughter contains ___ chromosomes.

a)

128

b)

64

c)

32

d)

16

50.

Why is meiosis important for sexual reproduction?

a)

It allows the zygote formed from fertilization to have triple the chromosome number of the organism.

b)

It allows gametes to have twice the original number of chromosomes of the organism.

c)

It allows gametes to have half the original number of chromosomes of the organism.

d)

It allows the zygote formed from fertilization to have half the original number of chromosomes of the organism.

51.

Identify the following stage of the life cycle of the cell in the picture.

a)

interphase

b)

prophase

c)

metaphase

d)

anaphase

e)

telophase

52.

Identify the following stage of the life cycle of the cell in the picture.

a)

interphase

b)

prophase

c)

metaphase

d)

anaphase

e)

telophase

53.

Identify the following stage of the life cycle of the cell in the picture.

a)

interphase

b)

prophase

c)

metaphase

d)

anaphase

e)

telophase

54.

Identify the following stage of the life cycle of the cell in the picture.

a)

interphase

b)

prophase

c)

metaphase

d)

anaphase

e)

telophase

55.

Identify the following stage of the life cycle of the cell in the picture.

a)

interphase

b)

prophase

c)

metaphase

d)

anaphase

e)

telophase

56.

Crossing over occurs in which phase of Meiosis ?

a)

metaphase I

b)

anaphaseII

c)

telophaseII

d)

prohase I

57.

A fertilized egg is called

a)

egg

b)

lettuce

c)

zygote

d)

sperm

58.

Which letter(s) in the diagram correspond to cells that are haploid?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

A and B

59.

What is one of the advantages, why is it better to reproduce sexually versus asexually?

a)

survival of the fittest

b)

overproduction

c)

genetic variation

d)

cloning

60.

Identify the phase of Meiosis:

a)

Metaphase I

b)

Metaphase II

c)

Anaphase I

d)

Anaphase II

61.

Identify the phase of Meiosis.

a)

Telophase I

b)

Telophase II

c)

Metaphase I

d)

Metaphase II

62.

Is the following cell diploid or haploid?

a)

Diploid

b)

Haploid

63.

Identify the phase of Meiosis.

a)

Metaphase I

b)

Metaphase II

c)

Anaphase I

d)

Anaphase II

64.

What kind of cells are made in MEIOSIS?

a)

Haploid Gametes

b)

Diploid Somatic Cells

c)

Skin Cells

d)

Liver Cells

65.

The failure of one or more pairs of homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids to separate "normally" during meiosis is called _____________________.

a)

nondisjunction

b)

anaphase I

c)

nondiploidy

d)

karyotype

66.

Nondisjunction can result in

a)

trisomy conditions

b)

monosomy conditions

c)

additional sex chromosomes

d)

all of these

67.

Chromosome pairs 1-22 are referred to as

a)

sex chromosomes

b)

sister chromatids

c)

a karyotype

d)

autsomes

68.

Chromosomes that are paired by size and content are called _______ chromosomes.

a)

homeostasis

b)

homologous

c)

matching

d)

sister

69.

Body cells are also called _________ cells.

a)

normal

b)

prokaryotic

c)

pathogens

d)

somatic

70.

Cells that contain 2 sets of chromosomes are called _________ (2n).

a)

diploid

b)

haploid

c)

triploid

d)

polyploid

71.

The 2 female sex chromosomes are ___.

a)

XY

b)

XX

72.

The 2 male sex chromsomes are _____.

a)

XY

b)

XX

73.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: What is true for the two "sides" of the X of a chromosome?

a)

Each side is called a sister chromatid

b)

Each side is called a homologous chromosome

c)

Each side is composed of identical DNA

d)

Each side is composed of different DNA

74.

A person with Turner syndrome has only one X chromosome. This means one of their gametes was missing a chromosome.

Which of the following is why gametes sometimes lack a complete chromosome?

a)

Incomplete dominance

b)

Nondisjunction

c)

Inversion mutation

d)

Substitution mutation

75.

What is the chromosomal condition of the individual whose karyotype is seen in the image?

a)

Monosomy X (Turner's Syndrome)

b)

Trisomy 21 (Down's Syndrome)

c)

Trisomy 13 (Patau Syndrome)

d)

Trisomy 18 (Edwards's Syndrome)

76.

The process of oogenesis results in

a)

one egg cell and three polar bodies

b)

4 sperm cells

c)

one sperm cell and three polar bodies

d)

4 egg cells

77.

If chromosomes fail to separate properly during either anaphase I or ii, a chromosomal error occurs known as

a)

disjunction

b)

crossing over

c)

non-disjunction

d)

synapsis

78.

Which of the following sex cells contains stored food for the developing embryo?

a)

sperm cells

b)

egg cells

c)

all of the above

d)

none of the above