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Review: DNA & Protein Synthesis, Mitosis, & Meiosis

Total questions: 110

Worksheet time: 2hrs 4mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which sequence of complementary DNA bases would pair with this partial strand...


3' ATG TGA CAG 5'

a)

5' UAC ACU GUC 3'

b)

5' TAC ACT GTC 3'

c)

3' UAC ACU GUC 5'

d)

3' TAC ACT GTC 5'

2.
What is a monomer of DNA and/or RNA called?
a)
Nucleotide
b)
Nitrogenous base
c)
Sugar-phosphate backbone
d)
Adenosine Triphosphate
3.
Which of these nitrogenous bases is NOT in DNA?
a)
Uracil
b)
Thymine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Guanine
4.
Where does transcription take place?
a)
nucleus
b)
ribosome
c)
cytoplasm
d)
smooth ER
5.
DNA codes for...
a)
cholesterol
b)
proteins
c)
fatty acids
d)
a sandwich
6.
Translation takes place in the 
a)
ribosome
b)
chloroplast
c)
nucleus
d)
mitochondria
7.
Genes found on DNA contain instructions for creating...?
a)
Proteins
b)
Cytoplasm
c)
Anti-Codons
d)
Codons
8.
The process of making mRNA from DNA is called.
a)
Replication
b)
Transcription
c)
Translation
d)
Protein synthesis
9.
How many nucleotides code for each amino acid?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
64
10.

What happens in RNA processing and where does it occur?

a)

5' cap and 3' poly A tail added, introns spliced out; in nucleus

b)

3' cap and 5' poly A tail added, in cytoplasm

c)

Exons cut out and introns reattached, cytoplasm

11.
What is an exon?
a)
section of mRNA that codes for protein
b)
section of mRNA that does not code for protein
c)
section of tRNA that codes for protein
d)
section of rRNA that codes for protein
12.
Where are anticodons found?
a)
on mRNA
b)
on DNA
c)
on rRNA
d)
on tRNA
13.
Where is the TATA box found?
a)
in the promoter sequence of prokaryotes
b)
in the terminator sequence of prokaryotes
c)
in the promoter sequence of eukaryotes
d)
in the terminator sequence of eukaryotes
14.
What process is going on in this photo? 
a)
Transcription 
b)
Translation 
c)
Replication 
d)
All the above 
15.
What is the correct amino acid sequence for the mRNA code AUGCCAGUAUGA
a)
Met-Pro-Ala-Val
b)
Met-Pro-Val
c)
Tyr-Gly-His
d)
Tyr-Gly-Arg-His
16.
Transcription begins at sequences called
a)
Start Codons
b)
Promoters
c)
Origins
d)
Introns
17.
The end of the growing RNA strand in transcription to which RNA polymerase can add nucleotides?
a)
3'
b)
5'
c)
1'
d)
2'
18.
Which represents the correct order of "the central dogma of molecular biology"?
a)
protein to DNA to mRNA to trait
b)
DNA to mRNA to protein to trait
c)
DNA to protein to mRNA to trait
d)
trait to DNA to protein to mRNA
19.
Transcribe this DNA sequence to mRNA: AAACCGGCC
a)
UUUGGCCGC
b)
TTTGGCGGG
c)
TTTGGCCGG
d)
UUUGGCCGG
20.
Which enzyme copies a segment of DNA called a gene to make a mRNA molecule?
a)
DNA polymerase
b)
DNA primase
c)
RNA primase
d)
RNA polymerase
21.
Type of point mutation that has no change on the protein being made.
a)
Nonsense Mutation
b)
Missense
c)
Silent Mutation
22.
This type of substitution codes for a stop codon
a)
Missense
b)
Nonsense
c)
Silent
d)
Deletion
23.
If you are missing or have an extra base  at the end of your mutated DNA . What type of mutation occurred?
a)
Substitution
b)
Frameshift
c)
Duplication 
d)
Insertion
24.
A type of substitution in which no  amino acids change is called 
a)
Missense
b)
Nonsense
c)
Silent
d)
Deletion
25.
Which of the following would result in a frameshift mutation?
a)
Insertions only
b)
Substitution only
c)
Deletion only
d)
Insertions and Deletions
26.
mRNA is read in chunks of three, called...
a)
quadralets
b)
anticodons
c)
codons
d)
capsids
27.
What are the 3 parts of any nucleotide?
a)
amino acid, sugar, nitrogen base
b)
sugar, phosphate, nitrogen base
c)
sugar, phosphate, amino acid
d)
sugar, phosphate, glycerol
28.
Which of the following is NOT a difference between RNA and DNA?
a)
RNA is single stranded while DNA is double stranded
b)
RNA has uracil while DNA has thymine
c)
RNA has ribose while DNA has deoxyribose
d)
RNA is a nucleic acid while DNA is a protein
29.
Which of the following is NOT a function of the 5' cap added in RNA processing?
a)
site of attachment of ribosome
b)
protect mRNA from degradation
c)
helps mRNA leave nucleus
d)
carries information to make protein
30.
Exons are
a)
left in the mRNA
b)
removed from the mRNA
31.
Cytosine makes up 42% of the nucleotides in a sample of DNA from an organism. Approximately what percentage of the nucleotides in this sample will be thymine? 
a)
8%
b)
16%
c)
31%
d)
42%
32.
In an analysis of the nucleotide composition of DNA, which of the following will be found? 
a)
A = C 
b)
 A = G and C = T 
c)
A + C = G + T 
d)
G + C = T + A
33.
What is meant by the description "antiparallel" regarding the strands that make up DNA? 
a)
The twisting nature of DNA creates nonparallel strands. 
b)
The 5' to 3' direction of one strand runs counter to the 5' to 3' direction of the other strand. 
c)
Base pairings create unequal spacing between the two DNA strands.
d)
One strand is positively charged and the other is negatively charged. 
34.
Which enzyme catalyzes the elongation of a DNA strand in the 5' → 3' direction?
a)
primase 
b)
DNA ligase 
c)
DNA polymerase III 
d)
topoisomerase 
35.
Which of the following provides some evidence that RNA probably evolved before DNA? 
a)
RNA polymerase uses DNA as a template.
b)
RNA polymerase makes a single-stranded molecule. 
c)
RNA polymerase does not require localized unwinding of the DNA. 
d)
DNA polymerase uses primer, usually made of RNA. 
36.

The two strands of a DNA molecule are held together by

a)

hydrogen bonds

b)

phosphodiester bonds

c)

glycolsyl bonds

d)

glycosidic linkages

37.

DNA is a polymer made of monomers called

a)

nucleotides

b)

ribosomes

c)

purines

d)

pyrimidines

38.

The term used to describe DNA replication is

a)

semi-conservative

b)

conservative

c)

antiparallel

d)

dispersive

39.

Which two molecules form the sides (backbone) of the DNA ladder?

a)

deoxyribose sugar and adenine

b)

ribose sugar and a phosphate

c)

ribose sugar and a nitrogenous base

d)

deoxyribose sugar and phosphate

40.

At a specific area of a chromosome, the following sequence of nucleotides is present where the chain opens to form a replication fork: 3' C C T A G G C T G C A A T C C 5'

An RNA primer is formed starting at the underlined T (T) of the template. Which of the following represents the primer sequence?

a)

5' G C C U A G G 3'

b)

5' G C C T A G G 3'

c)

5' A C G U U A G G 3'

d)

5' A C G T T A G G 3'

41.

At a specific area of a chromosome, the following sequence of nucleotides is present where the chain opens to form a replication fork: 3' C C T A G G C T G C A A T C C 5'

An RNA primer is formed starting at the underlined T (T) of the template. Which of the following represents the primer sequence?

a)

5' G C C U A G G 3'

b)

5' G C C T A G G 3'

c)

5' A C G U U A G G 3'

d)

5' A C G T T A G G 3'

42.
Seals the Okazaki fragments together
a)
DNA Polymerase
b)
ligase
c)
helicase
d)
primase
43.
Which of the following units are repeatedly joined together to form a strand of DNA?
a)
amino acids
b)
nucleotides
c)
fatty acids
d)
polysaccharides
44.
Which is larger guanine or cytosine
a)
guanine because it's a purine
b)
guanine because it's a pyrimidine
c)
cytosine because it's a purine
d)
cytosine because its a pyrimidine
45.
Which statement is TRUE regarding DNA and RNA?
a)
DNA's sugar is ribose; RNA's sugar is deoxyribose
b)
DNA is single stranded; RNA is double stranded
c)
DNA contains thymine; RNA contains uracil
d)
DNA is in cytoplasm; RNA is in nucleus
46.
How would overexposure to X-rays affect  most animal cells? (3.1.3)
a)
It would increase cell specialization in organs.
b)
It would change the sequence of DNA nucleotides in affected cells.
c)
It would produce new nucleotides for DNA molecules.
d)
It would cause an increase in red blood  cell production
47.

Erwin Chargaff investigated the nucleotide composition of DNA. He analyzed DNA from various organisms and measured the relative amounts of adenine (A), guanine (G), cytosine (C), and thymine (T) present in the DNA of each organism. Table 1 contains a selected data set of his results.


Which of the following statements best explains the data set?

a)

Since the %A and the %G add up to approximately 50 percent in each sample, adenine and guanine molecules must pair up in a double-stranded DNA molecule.

b)

Since the %A and the %T are approximately the same in each sample, adenine and thymine molecules must pair up in a double-stranded DNA molecule.

c)

Since the %(A+T) is greater than the %(G+C) in each sample, DNA molecules must have a poly-A tail at one end.

d)

Since the %C and the %T add up to approximately 50 percent in each sample, cytosine and thymine molecules must both contain a single ring.

48.

Which of the following best describes a characteristic of DNA that makes it useful as hereditary material?

a)

Nucleotide bases in one strand can only be paired with specific bases in the other strand.

b)

Nucleotide bases can be randomly replaced with different nucleotide bases to increase variation.

c)

The nucleotide bases can also be used to provide the energy needed for reproduction.

d)

There are many different types of nucleotide bases that can be incorporated into DNA.

49.

A model of a process involving nucleic acids is shown in Figure 1.


Which of the following best explains what process is represented in Figure 1?

a)

New DNA strands are being synthesized in the 3' to 5' direction from their DNA templates.

b)

New DNA strands are being synthesized in the 5' to 3' direction from their DNA templates.

c)

A new RNA strand is being synthesized in the 3' to 5' end from its DNA template.

d)

Two new RNA strands are being synthesized in both directions from their DNA templates.

50.

When DNA replicates, each strand of the original DNA molecule is used as a template for the synthesis of a second, complementary strand. Which of the following figures most accurately illustrates the enzyme-mediated synthesis of new DNA at a replication fork?

a)
b)
c)
d)
51.

Enzyme used during replication to attach Okazaki fragments to each other

a)

DNA Ligase

b)

DNA Polymerase III

c)

Topoisomerase

d)

Helicase

e)

Primase

52.

Figure 1 illustrates a model of the molecules involved in DNA replication and their placement relative to each other.


Which of the following correctly explains where DNA replication will begin on the strand oriented 5'→3', reading from left to right?

a)

DNA replication will be randomly initiated along the unwound portion of the DNA strand since base pairing will occur.

b)

DNA replication cannot occur since there is already an RNA base pairing with the template strand.

c)

DNA replication will be initiated immediately to the left of the RNA since DNA polymerase requires an RNA primer.

d)

DNA replication will be initiated at the site of the topoisomerase since that is where DNA begins to uncoil.

53.

Which of the following best explains why ligase is required for DNA replication?

a)

The lagging strand cannot be replicated continuously, and ligase is needed to join the Okazaki fragments.

b)

Ligase forms the hydrogen bonds between complementary bases in the two strands of DNA.

c)

Ligase facilitates the binding of RNA polymerase to the promoter region.

d)

Ligase enables the newly synthesized DNA to twist into a double helix.

54.

A scientist adds a chemical to a culture of dividing cells in order to disrupt DNA replication. The replicated DNA produced by the cells is double-stranded, but sections of it lack covalent bonds between adjacent nucleotides (Figure 1).


Which of the following claims is best supported by the data?

a)

The chemical prevents the formation of RNA primers.

b)

The chemical inhibits DNA ligase.

c)

The chemical blocks DNA polymerase.

d)

The chemical disrupts hydrogen bonding.

55.
DNA found at the end of each chromosome is called a:
a)
Telomere
b)
Centromere
c)
Kinetochore
d)
Histone
56.
Why is DNA important?
a)
it is very small and very complicated
b)
it's in everything
c)
it serves as the blueprint for traits of all living things
d)
because we eat it every day for energy
57.

How many amino acids are coded for by this sequence of nucleotides:


ATGGGAACTCCAAATTCG

(a)  

58.

Which amino acid is coded from the mRNA codon:

AGU

(a)  

59.

What amino acid is represented by the anticodon GUC?

(a)  

60.

If you take this codon of DNA (a)   ATA. What will the amino acid be?

61.

If you take this piece of tRNA [ ACU ] what will the Amino Acid be?

(a)  

62.

What would be the tRNA sequence for the DNA codon GTC?

(a)  

63.

What would be the tRNA sequence for the mRNA codon GUC?

(a)  

64.

What is the name for the physical characteristic expressed by a gene?

(a)  

65.

What amino acid is represented by the anticodon CUG?

(a)  

66.

What amino acid is represented by the sequence of DNA AAG?

(a)  

67.

DNA will condense into...

(a)  

68.

What phase of mitosis is pictured?

(a)  

69.

Structure A refers to the _____.

a)

sister chromatid

b)

homologous chromosome

c)

centromere

d)

chromosome

70.

Name the phase:

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

e)

Interphase

71.

If a cell has 20 chromosomes & undergoes mitosis twelve times, how many chromosomes will each daughter cell have?

(a)  

72.

Name this phase of the cell cycle...

a)

prophase

b)

anaphase

c)

metaphase

d)

telophase

e)

interphase

73.

Name this phase of the cell cycle...

a)

prophase

b)

anaphase

c)

metaphase

d)

telophase

e)

interphase

74.

Name this phase of the cell cycle...

a)

prophase

b)

anaphase

c)

metaphase

d)

telophase

e)

interphase

75.
Which of the following is a type of protein that regulates the cell cycle? 
a)
actin 
b)
myosin 
c)
cyclin 
d)
pepsin 
76.
Highly coiled strand of DNA
a)
Chromatin
b)
Chromosome
c)
Sister Chromatid
d)
Centeromere
77.

Which of these is a tumor that is noncancerous and does not spread?

a)

Malignant

b)

Benign

78.

What is Apoptosis?

a)

A tumor

b)

A protein

c)

Programmed cell death

d)

Cell cycle checkpoints

79.

The graph represents the amount of DNA in the nucleus of each cell during the cell cycle.

Which region represents the G2 phase?

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

IV

e)

V

80.
How does the concentration of cyclin dependent kinases (Cdk) change as the cell proceeds through the cell cycle?
a)
Cdk concentration remains constant.
b)
Cdk concentration increases during interphase and decreases during mitosis.
c)
Cdk concentration decreases during interphase and increases during mitosis.
d)
Cdk concentration correlates directly with MPF concentration.
81.
How does the concentration of cyclin change as a cell goes through the cell cycle?
a)
Cyclin concentration remains constant.
b)
Cyclin concentration increases during interphase and decreases during mitosis.
c)
Cyclin concentration decreases during interphase and increases during mitosis.
d)
Cyclin concentration is inversely related to MPF concentrations.
82.
When it occurs at the proper time, programmed cell death (apoptosis)
a)
will disrupt homeostasis
b)
may cause defective genetic info to be passed to the next generation of cells
c)
is an important regulatory process that maintains the health of a multicellular organism
d)
can contribute to the development of cancer
83.
What kind of a gene is p53?
a)
Proto-Oncogene
b)
Oncogene
c)
Tumor Suppressor Gene
d)
Proto-Tumor Suppressor Gene
84.
Chiasmata are most closely related to which of the following?
a)
crossing over
b)
fertilization
c)
cytokinesis
d)
mitosis
85.

If a stem cell has 24 chromosomes, how many chromosomes will be in each cell after meiosis II?

(a)  

86.

When does crossing over occur?

a)

Interphase

b)

Prophase 1

c)

Prophase 2

d)

Prophase

87.
Human eggs and sperm are _____, and each has ____ chromosomes.
a)
diploid, 23
b)
diploid, 46
c)
haploid, 23
d)
haploid, 46
88.

During meiosis I, what happens?

a)

Sister chromatids are split

b)

Homologous chromosomes/tetrads are split

c)

Four cells are created

d)

None of the other choices are correct

89.

A male shark has 40 chromosomes in each of its sex cells. How many would be present in its body cells?

(a)  

90.

Identify the phase.

a)

Metaphase I

b)

Metaphase II

c)

Cytokinesis

d)

Anaphase II

e)

Anaphase I

91.

What is the object labeled A?

a)

Nucleolus

b)

Nuclear Membrane

c)

Centrioles

d)

Spindle Fiber

e)

Chromosomes

92.

What is the object labeled B?

a)

Nucleolus

b)

Nuclear Membrane

c)

Centrioles

d)

Spindle Fiber

e)

Chromosomes

93.

What is the object labeled D?

a)

Nucleolus

b)

Nuclear Membrane

c)

Centrioles

d)

Spindle Fiber

e)

Chromosomes

94.

What is the object labeled G?

a)

Chromatids

b)

Centrioles

c)

Spindle Fiber

d)

Fishing Line

95.

What is the object labeled G?

a)

Chromatids

b)

Centrioles

c)

Spindle Fiber

d)

Fishing Line

96.
Does this body cell diagram (karyotype) show case duplicated homologous chromosomes or unduplicated homologous chromosomes?
a)
Duplicated
b)
Unduplicated
97.
Which process and type of resulting cells are represented?
a)
mitosis, gametes
b)
mitosis, body cells
c)
meiosis, gametes
d)
meiosis, body cells
98.

Which of the following best describes the cells that result from the process of meiosis in mammals?

a)

They are diploid.

b)

They can be used to repair injuries.

c)

They are genetically different from the parent cell.

d)

They are genetically identical to all the other cells in the body.

e)

They are identical to each other.

99.

Within a forest ecosystem, there is a large amount of diversity among members of a warbler species. Of the following stages of meiosis illustrated for a typical cell, which contributes most to diversity among the warblers?

a)
b)
c)
d)
100.

The diploid number of chromosomes in the cell of a domesticated dog is 78

. Which of the following options includes the correct number of chromosomes in a cell after each cellular process (G2 checkpoint, meiosis, and fertilization, respectively)?

a)
b)
c)
d)
101.

The events listed below generally take place during meiosis.


I. Synapsis occurs.

II. Crossing-over is completed.

III. Condensation of chromosomes begins.

IV. Separation of homologous chromosomes begins.


Which of the following is the correct sequence of these events?

a)

I, II, III, IV

b)

II, I, III, IV

c)

III, I, II, IV

d)

III, IV, II, I

e)

IV, II, III, I

102.

The relative amount of DNA in a cell at various stages of the cell cycle is shown in Figure 1. Which of the following best describes how the amount of DNA in the cell changes during M?

phase?

a)

The amount of DNA doubles as the DNA is replicated.

b)

The amount of DNA slightly increases as a result of new organelle synthesis.

c)

The amount of DNA does not change while the cell grows.

d)

The amount of DNA is halved as the cell divides into two daughter cells.

103.

Cancer can result from a variety of different mutational events. Which of the following is LEAST likely to result in the initiation of a cancerous tumor?

a)

A mutation results in activation of a cell-division pathway in the absence of the appropriate checkpoints in G1 & G2 phases

b)

A mutation results in the loss of the ability to produce a tumor-suppressor protein

c)

A defect in a cell-cycle checkpoint prevents a cell from entering the S phase

d)

At the anaphase checkpoint, separation of chromatids occurs without all centromeres being attached to kinetochore microtubules from both poles

104.

Researchers performed an experiment to determine the effect of certain genetic mutations on mitosis in tropical fruit fly embryos. They determined the percentage of cells in each of four phases of mitosis as shown in Figure 1. [Wild type = normal]

Which of the following patterns is shown by the data?

a)

Mutant 1 cells are more similar to mutant 3 cells than to wild-type cells

b)

In wild/normal-type cells, the percent of cells in anaphase is twice the amount of those in telophase

c)

In mutant 3 cells, more time is spent in prophase/prometaphase than in the later stages of mitosis

d)

The percent of mutant 2 cells in anaphase is higher than that of mutant 1 cells

105.

Researchers have identified a molecule produced by Ecteinascidia turbinata, a marine invertebrate, from which the drug trabectedin is produced. Soft-tissue tumors treated with trabectedin rapidly decrease in size. In a preliminary study, healthy cells and tumor cells sampled from skin cancer patients treated with trabectedin were collected, and several characteristics of the cells were observed. The observed results of the study are shown in the table.


Which of the following best explains the most likely method by which this antitumor drug works?

a)

Trabectedin increases the production of cyclin proteins that signal the cancer cells to enter prophase.

b)

Trabectedin interferes with the plasma membrane, causing it to break down and expose the DNA to damage.

c)

Trabectedin interferes with the duplication of DNA during interphase and thus prevents cancer cells from passing the G2 checkpoint.

d)

Trabectedin interferes with the regulations of cyclin proteins, causing their levels to increase and creating errors in DNA.

106.

Which of the following best describes the role of mitosis in the cell cycle?

a)

Distributing replicated chromosomes to daughter nuclei

b)

Dividing the cytoplasm to form four gametes

c)

Producing organelles and replicating chromosomes

d)

Exchanging genetic material between homologous chromosomes

107.

Based on the model of eukaryotic cell cycle regulation shown in the figure, which of the following best describes the effect of a drug that blocks the production of the mitotic cyclin?

a)

The cell cycle would proceed uncontrollably, and the cell would become cancerous.

b)

The G1 cyclin would functionally replace mitotic cyclin, and the cell would continue dividing normally.

c)

DNA synthesis would be prevented, and the cell would stop dividing.

d)

The cell would be prevented from entering mitosis, and the cell would stop dividing.

108.

Which of the following describes a mutation that would lead to an increase in the frequency of nondisjunction?

[Nondisjuction: failure of the chromosomes to separate, which produces daughter cells with abnormal numbers of chromosomes]

a)

A mutation affecting checkpoint 1 proteins that force cells to enter G0

b)

A mutation affecting checkpoint 2 proteins that allow cells to divide with DNA damage

c)

A mutation affecting checkpoint 3 proteins that prevent attachment of spindle fibers

d)

A mutation affecting checkpoint 2 proteins that prevent duplication of the chromosomes

109.

A researcher examining a root tip observes a plant cell with condensed sister chromatids, kinetochores with attached microtubules, and individual chromosomes that are aligned at the equatorial plate of the cell. Which of the following best describes what the next process will be in the cell?

a)

Homologous chromosomes (each with two sister chromatids) will move toward opposite poles of the cell.

b)

Paired chromatids will separate, and the new daughter chromosomes will move toward opposite poles of the cell.

c)

The nuclear envelope will break down, and the spindle will begin to form.

d)

The chromatin will decondense, and the daughter cell will enter the interphase.

110.

Researchers determined the average amount of time that a particular type of eukaryotic cell spends in each phase of the cell cycle. The data collected by the researchers are represented in Figure 1.


Based on Figure 1, what percent of the time required to complete a full cycle do the cells typically spend in interphase?

a)

5%

b)

35%

c)

50%

d)

95%