Free Printable NEET - Qualifying III

1.

In light reaction, plastoquinone facilitates the transfer of electrons from

a)

PS-I to NADP+

b)

PS-I to ATP synthase

c)

PS-II to Cytb6f complex

d)

Cytb6f complex to PS-I

2.

sequence that controls the copy number of the linked DNA in the vector is termed

a)

Palindromic sequence

b)

Recognition site

c)

Selectable marker

d)

Ori site

3.

The specific palindromic sequence which is recognized by EcoRI is

a)

5’ - CTTAAG - 3’ 3’ - GAATTC - 5’

b)

5’ - GGATCC - 3’ 3’ - CCTAGG - 5’

c)

5’ - GAATTC - 3’ 3’ - CTTAAG - 5’

d)

5’ - GGAACC - 3’ 3’ - CCTTGG - 5’

4.

Identify the wrong statement with reference to immunity.

a)

Active immunity is quick and gives full response

b)

Foetus receives some antibodies from mother, it is an example for passive immunity

c)

When exposed to antigen (living or dead) antibodies are produced in the host’s body. It is called “Active immunity”

d)

When ready-made antibodies are directly given, it is called “Passive immunity”

5.

Experimental verification of the chromosomal theory of inheritance was done by

a)

Boveri

b)

Morgan

c)

Mendel

d)

Sutton

6.

Match the following concerning essential elements and their functions in plants

(a) Iron (i) Photolysis of water

(b) Zinc (ii) Pollen germination

(c) Boron (iii) Required for chlorophyll biosynthesis

(d) Manganese (iv) IAA biosynthesis

a)

(a) - (iii); (b) - (iv); (c) - (ii); (d) - (i)

b)

(a) - (iv); (b) - (i); (c) - (ii); (d) - (iii)

c)

(a) - (ii); (b) - (i); (c) - (iv); (d) - (iii)

d)

(a) - (iv); (b) - (iii); (c) - (ii); (d) - (i)

7.

In gel electrophoresis, separated DNA fragments can be visualized with the help of

a)

Acetocarmine in UV radiation

b)

Ethidium bromide in infrared radiation

c)

Acetocarmine in bright blue light

d)

Ethidium bromide in UV radiation

8.

Name the enzyme that facilitates opening of DNA helix during transcription.

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

RNA polymerase

c)

DNA ligase

d)

DNA helicase

9.

In which of the following techniques, the embryo are transferred to assist those females who cannot conceive?

a)

ICSI and ZIFT

b)

GIFT and ICSI

c)

ZIFT and IUT

d)

GIFT and ZIFT

10.

Identify the basic amino acid from the following

a)

Lysine

b)

Valine

c)

Tyrosine

d)

Glutamic Acid

11.

Identify the wrong statement with reference to transport of oxygen.

a)

Higher H+ conc. In alveoli favours the formation of oxyhaemoglobin

b)

Low pCO2 in alveoli favours the formation of oxyhaemoglobin

c)

Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is mainly related to partial pressure of O2

d)

Partial pressure of CO2 can interfere with O2 binding with haemoglobin

12.

Floridean starch has structure similar to

a)

Mannitol and algin

b)

Laminarin and cellulose

c)

Starch and cellulose

d)

Amylopectin and glycogen

13.

By which method was a new breed ‘Hisardale’ of sheep formed by using Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams?

a)

Cross breeding

b)

Inbreeding

c)

Out crossing

d)

Mutational breeding

14.

Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column-I Column-II

(a) Pituitary gland (i) Grave’s disease

(b) Thyroid gland (ii) Diabetes mellitus

(c) Adrenal gland (iii) Diabetes insipid us

(d) Pancreas (iv) Addison’s disease

a)

(a) - (iii); (b) - (i); (c) - (iv); (d) - (ii)

b)

(a) - (ii); (b) - (i); (c) - (iv); (d) - (iii)

c)

(a) - (iv); (b) - (iii); (c) - (i); (d) - (ii)

d)

(a) - (iii); (b) - (ii); (c) - (i); (d) - (iv)

15.

Select the option including all sexually transmitted diseases.

a)

AIDS Malaris, Filaria

b)

Cancer, AIDS, Syphilis

c)

Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes

d)

Gonorrhoea, Malaria, Genital herpes

16.

Choose the correct pair from the following:

a)

Nuclease - Separate the two strange of DNA

b)

Exonuclease - Make cuts at specific positions within DNA

c)

Ligases - Join the two DNA molecules

d)

Polymerases - Break the DNA into fragments

17.

Ray florets have

a)

Hypogenous ovary

b)

Half inferior ovary

c)

Inferior ovary

d)

Superior ovary

18.

Match the organism with its use in biotechnology

(a) Bacillus (i) Cloning vector

(b) Thermus aquaticus (ii) Construction of first rDNA

(c) Agrobacterium tumefociens (iii) DNA polymerase

(d) Salmonella typhimurium (iv) Cry proteins

Select the correct option from the following:

a)

(a) - (iii); (b) - (ii); (c) - (iv); (d) - (i)

b)

(a) - (iii); (b) - (iv); (c) - (i); (d) - (ii)

c)

(a) - (ii); (b) - (iv); (c) - (iii); (d) - (i)

d)

(a) - (iv); (b) - (iii); (c) - (i); (d) - (ii)

19.

The product(s) of reaction catalyzed by nitrogenase in root nodules of leguminous plants is/are:

a)

Ammonia and oxygen

b)

Ammonia and hydrogen

c)

Ammonia alone

d)

Nitrate alone

20.

Name the plant growth regulator which upon spraying on sugarcane crop increases the length of stem, thus increasing the yield of sugarcane crop

a)

Ethylene

b)

Abscisic acid

c)

Cytokinin

d)

Gibberellin

21.

The body of the ovule is fused within the funicle at

a)

Nucellus

b)

Chalaza

c)

Hilum

d)

Micropyle

22.

The process of growth is maximum during

a)

Senescence

b)

Dormancy

c)

Log phase

d)

Lag phase

23.

Bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomate animals are exemplified by

a)

Aschelminthes

b)

Annelida

c)

Ctenophora

d)

Platyhelminthes

24.

Which of the following is put into Anaerobic sludge digester for further sewage treatment?

a)

Effluents of primary treatment

b)

Activated sludge

c)

Primary sludge

d)

Floating debris

25.

Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column I Column-II

(a) Floating Ribs (i) Located between second & seventh ribs

(b) Acromion (ii) Head of the Humerus

(c) Scapula (iii) Clavicle

(d) Glenoid cavity (iv) Do not connect with the sternum

a)

(a) - (iii); (b) - (ii); (c) - (iv); (d) - (i)

b)

(a) - (iv); (b) - (iii); (c) - (i); (d) - (ii)

c)

(a) - (ii); (b) - (iv); (c) - (i); (d) - (iii)

d)

(a) - (i); (b) - (i); (c) - (ii); (d) - (iv)

26.

Identify the wrong statement with regard to Restriction Enzymes.

a)

They are useful in genetic engineering

b)

Sticky ends can be joined by using DNA ligases

c)

Each restriction enzyme functions by inspecting the length of a DNA sequence

d)

They cut the strand of DNA at palindromic sites

27.

Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column-I Column-II

(a) Gregarious, polyphagous pest (i) Asterias

(b) Adult with radial symmetry & (ii) Scorpion larva with bilateral symmetry

(c) Book lungs (iii) Ctenoplana

(d) Bioluminescence (iv) Locusta

a)

(a) - (iii); (b) - (ii); (c) - (i); (d) - (iv)

b)

(a) - (ii); (b) - (i); (c) - (iii); (d) - (iv)

c)

(a) - (i); (b) - (iii); (c) - (ii); (d) - (iv)

d)

(a) - (iv); (b) - (i); (c) - (ii); (d) - (iii)

28.

If the head of cockroach is removed, it may live for few days because:

a)

The head holds a small proportion of a nervous system while the rest is situated along the vetral part of its body

b)

The head holds a 1/3rd of a nervous system while the rest is situated along the dorsal part of its body

c)

The supra-oesophageal ganglia of the cockroach are situated in ventral part of abdomen

d)

The cockroach does not have nervous system

29.

Which of the following regions of the globe is exhibits highest species diversity?

a)

Himalayas

b)

Amazon forests

c)

Western Ghats of India

d)

Madagascar

30.

Which is the important site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids in eukaryotic cells?

a)

Golgi bodies

b)

Polysomes

c)

Endoplasmic reticulum

d)

Peroxisomes

31.

Which of the following pairs is of unicellular algae?

a)

Anaboena and Volvox

b)

Chlorella and Spirulina

c)

Laminaria and Sargossum

d)

Galidium ad Graciloria

32.

Which one of the following is the most abundant protein in the animals?

a)

Lectin

b)

Insulin

c)

Haemoglobin

d)

Collagen

33.

Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex occurs during:

a)

Diplotene

b)

Leptotene

c)

Pachytene

d)

Zygotene

34.

How many true breeding pea plant varieties did Mendel select as pairs, which were similar except in one character with contrasting traits?

a)

14

b)

8

c)

4

d)

2

35.

Cuboidal epithelium with brush border of micevilli is found in:

a)

Proximal convoluted tubule of nephron

b)

Eustachian tube

c)

Lining of intestine

d)

Ducts of salivary glanda

36.

Match the following with respect to meiosis:

(a) Zygotene (i) Terminalization

(b) Pachytene (ii) Chiasmata

(c) Diplotene (iii) Crossing over

(d) Diakinesis (iv) Synapsis

Select the correct option from the following:

a)

a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iv), d-(iii)

b)

a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(iii), d-(i)

c)

a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(ii)

d)

a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(i)

37.

Which of the following statements about inclusion bodies is no correct?

a)

They lie free in the cytoplasm

b)

These represent reserve material in cytoplasm

c)

They are not bound by any membrane

d)

These are involved in ingestion of food particles

38.

Which of the following would help in prevention of diuresis?

a)

Atrial natriuretic factor causes vasoconstriction

b)

Decrease in secretion of renin by JG cells

c)

More water reabsorption due to undersecretion of ADH

d)

Reabsorption of Na+ and water and from renal tubules due to aldosterone

39.

The transverse section of a plant shows following anatomical features:

(a) Large number of scattered vascular bundles surrounded by bundle sheath

(b) Large conspicuous parenchymatous ground tissues

(c) Vascular bundles conjoint and closed

(d) Phloem parenchyma absent

a)

Dicotyledonous stem

b)

Dicotyledonous root

c)

Monocotyledonous stem

d)

Monocotyledonous root

40.

Which of the following statements is correct?

a)

Adenine pairs with thymine through three H-bonds

b)

Adenine does not pair with thymine

c)

Adenine pairs with thymine through two H-bonds

d)

Adenine pairs with thymine through one H-bond

41.

Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column-I Column-II

(a) Bt cotton (i) Gene therapy

(b) Adenosine deaminase deficiency (ii) Cellular defence

(c) RNAi (iii) Detection of HIV infection

(d) PCR (iv) Bacillus thuringiensis

a)

(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), c-(iv), d-(i)

b)

(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv)

c)

(a)-(iv), (b)-(i), c-(ii), d-(iii)

d)

(a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), c-(i), d-(iv)

42.

Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are examples of:

a)

Industrial melanism

b)

Natural selection

c)

Adaptive radiation

d)

Convergent evolution

43.

The oxygenation activity of RuBinco enzyme is photorespiration leads to the formations of:

a)

1 molecule of 6-C compound

b)

1 molecule of 4-C compound and 1 molecule of 2- C compound

c)

2 molecules of 3-C compound

d)

1 molecule of 3-C compound

44.

The infectious stage of Plasmodium that enters the human body is:

a)

Female gametocytes

b)

Male gametocytes

c)

Trophozoites

d)

Sporozoites

45.

Identify the incorrect statement.

a)

Sapwood is the innermost secondary xylems and is lighter in colour

b)

Due-to deposition of tannins, resins, oils etc heart wood is dark in colour

c)

Heart wood does not conduct water but given mechanical support

d)

Sapwood is involved in conduction of water and minerals from root to leaf

46.

Which of the following is correct about viroida?

a)

They have DNA with protein coat

b)

They have free DNA without protein coat

c)

They have RNA with protein coat

d)

They have free RNA without protein coat

47.

Match the following diseases with the causative organism and select the correct option.

Column-I Column-II

(a) Typhoid (i) Wucheria

(b) Pneumonia (ii) Plasmodium

(c) Filariasis (iii) Salmonella

(d) Malaria (iv) Haemophilus

a)

(a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

b)

(a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

c)

(a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

d)

(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

48.

Identify the wrong statement with reference to the gene ‘I’ that controls ABO blood groups.

a)

When IA and IB are present together, they express same type of sugar

b)

Allele ‘i’ does not produce my any sugar

c)

The gene (1) has three alleles

d)

A person will have only two of the three alleles

49.

According to Robert May, the global species diversity is about

a)

50 million

b)

7 million

c)

1.5 million

d)

20 million

50.

Which of the following is not an attribute of a population?

a)

Mortality

b)

Species interaction

c)

Sex ration

d)

Natality

51.

In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination takes place by:

a)

Wind and water

b)

Insects and water

c)

Insects or wind

d)

Water currents only

52.

The QRS complex in a standard ECG represents:

a)

Depolarisation of ventricles

b)

Repolarisation of ventricles

c)

Repolarisation of auricles

d)

Depolarisation of auricles

53.

Select the correct match.

a)

Sickle cell anaemia - Autosomal recessive trait, chromosome-11

b)

Thalassemia - X linked

c)

Haemophilia - Y linked

d)

Phenylketonuria - Autosomal dominant traint

54.

The number of substrate level phosphorylations in one turn of citric and cycle is:

a)

Two

b)

Three

c)

Zero

d)

One

55.

Match the following:

(a) Inhibitor of catalytic activity (i) Ricin

(b) Possess peptide bonds (ii) Malonate

(c) Cell wall material in fungi (iii) Chitin

(d) Secondary metabolite (iv) Collagen

Choose the correct option from the following:

a)

(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

b)

(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

c)

(a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

d)

(a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

56.

Which of the following refer to correct example(s) of organisms which have evolved due to changes in environment brought about by anthropogenic action?

(a) Darwin’s Finches of Galapagos islands

(b) Herbicide resistant weeds

(c) Drug resistant eukaryotes

(d) Man-created breeds of domesticated animals like dogs

a)

(b) (c) and (d)

b)

Only (d)

c)

Only (a)

d)

(a) and (c)

57.

Some dividing cells exit the cell cycle and enter vegetative inactive stage. This is called quiescent stage (G0). This process at the end of:

a)

S phase

b)

G2 phase

c)

M phase

d)

G1 phase

58.

Secondary metabolites such as nicotine, strychnine and caffeine are produced by plants for their:

a)

Defence action

b)

Effect on reproduction

c)

Nutritive value

d)

Growth response

59.

Meiotic division of the secondary oocyte is completed:

a)

After zygote formation

b)

At the time of fusion of a sperm with an ovum

c)

Prior to ovulation

d)

At the time of copulation

60.

Which of the following statements is not correct?

a)

The functional insulin has A and B chains linked together by hydrogen bonds

b)

Genetically engineered insulin is produced in EColi

c)

In man insulin is synthesised as a proinsulin

d)

The proinsulin has a extra peptide called Cpeptide

61.

Show- blindness in antarctic region is due to:

a)

High reflection of light from snow

b)

Damage to retina caused by infra-red rays

c)

Freezing of fluids in the eye by low temperature

d)

Inflammation of cornea due to high dose of UV-B radiation

62.

Strobili or cones are found in:

a)

Marchantia

b)

Equisetum

c)

Salvinia

d)

Pteris

63.

From his experiments, S.L. Miller produced amino acids by mixing the following in a closed flask:

a)

CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 600o C

b)

CH3, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 600o C

c)

CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 800o C

d)

CH3, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 800o C

64.

In relation to gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity of an ecosystem, which one of the following statements is correct?

a)

Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity are one and same.

b)

There is no relationship between Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity.

c)

Gross primary productivity is always less than Net primary productivity.

d)

Gross primary productivity is always more than Net primary productivity

65.

Match the trophic levels with their correct species examples in grassland ecosystem.

(a) Fourth trophic level (i) Crow

(b) Second trophic level (ii) Vulture

(c) First trophic level (iii) Rabbit

(d) Third trophic level (iv) Grass Select the correct option:

a)

a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i

b)

a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

c)

a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i

d)

a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv

66.

Select the correct statement.

a)

Insulin acts on pancreatic cells and adipocytes.

b)

Insulin is associated with hyperglycemia

c)

Glucocorticoids stimulates gluconeogenesis

d)

Glucagon is associated with hypoglycemia.

67.

Select the correct events that occur during inspiration.

(a) Contraction of diaphragm

(b) Contraction of external inter-costal muscles

(c) Pulmonary volume decreases

(d) Intrapulmonary pressure increases

a)

(a), (b) and (d)

b)

Only (d)

c)

(a) and (b)

d)

(c) and (d)

68.

The roots that originate from the base of the stem are:

a)

Prop roots

b)

Lateral roots

c)

Fibrous roots

d)

Primary roots

69.

Goblet cells of alimentary canal are modified from:

a)

Chondrocytes

b)

Compound epithelial cells

c)

Squamous epithelial cells

d)

Columnar epithelial cells

70.

Montreal protocol was signed in 1987 for control of:

a)

Release of Green House gases

b)

Disposal of e-wastes

c)

Transport of Genetically modified organisms from one country to another

d)

Emission of ozone depleting substances

71.

Which of the following statement are true for the phylum-Chordata?

(a) In Urochordata notochord extends from head to tail and it is present throughout their life.

(b) In Vertebrates notochord is present during the embryonic period only.

(c) Central nervous system is doral and hollow.

(d) Chordata is divided into 3 subphyla: Hemichordata, Tunicata and Cephalochordata.

a)

(a) and (b)

b)

(b) and (c)

c)

(d) and (c)

d)

(c) and (a)

72.

Identify the substances having glycosidic bond and peptide bond, respectively in their structure:

a)

Cellulose, lecithin

b)

Inulin, insulin

c)

Chitin, cholesterol

d)

Glycerol, trypsin

73.

Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column-I Column-II

(a) Placenta (i) Androgens

(b) Zona pellucida (ii) Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG)

(c) Bulbourethral (iii) Layer of the ovum Glands

(d) Leydig cells (iv) Lubrication of the penis

a)

a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i

b)

a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i

c)

a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii

d)

a-i, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii

74.

If the distance between two consecutive base pairs is 0.34 nm and the total number of base pair os a DNA double helix in a typical mammalian cell is 6.6 X 109 bp, then the length of the DNA is approximately

a)

2.2 meters

b)

2.7 meters

c)

2.0 meters

d)

2.5 meters

75.

The ovary is half inferior in:

a)

Sunflower

b)

Plum

c)

Brinjal

d)

Mustard

76.

Identify the correct statement with regard to G1 phase (Gap 1) of interphase.

a)

Cell is metabolically active, grows but does not replicate its DNA

b)

Nuclear Division takes place.

c)

DNA synthesis or replication takes place.

d)

Reorganization of all cell components takes place.

77.

Which of the following hormone levels will cause release of ovum (ovulation) from the graafian follicle?

a)

Low concentration of LH

b)

Low concentration of FSH

c)

High concentration of Estrogen

d)

High concentration of progesterone

78.

Identify the correct statements with reference to human digestive system

a)

ILeum is a highly coiled part

b)

Vermiform appendix arise from duodenum.

c)

ILeum opens into small intestine.

d)

Serosa is the innermost layer of the alimentary canal

79.

Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column-I Column-II

(a) Eosinophils (i) Immune response

(b) basophils (ii) Phagocytosis

(c) neutrophils (iii) Release histaminase, destructive enzymes

(d) Lymphocytes (iv) Release granules

a)

a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii

b)

a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv

c)

a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii

d)

a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii

80.

The plant parts which consist of two generations one within the other:

(a) Pollen grains inside the anther

(b) Germinated pollen grain with two male gametes

(c) Seed inside the fruit

(d) Embryo sac inside the ovule

a)

(c) and (d)

b)

(a) and (d)

c)

(a) only

d)

(a), (b) and (c)

81.

Bt cotton variety that was developed by the introduction toxin gene of Bacillus thuringiensis (bt) is resistant to:

a)

Plant nematodes

b)

Insect predators

c)

Insect pest

d)

Fungal diseases

82.

The first phase of translation is:

a)

Aminoacylation of tRNA

b)

Recognition of an anti-codon

c)

Binding of mRNA to ribaotine

d)

Recognition of DNA molecules

83.

Embryological support for solution was disapproved by

a)

Charles Darwin

b)

Oparin

c)

Karl Ernst von Baer

d)

Alfred wallace

84.

Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column -I Column-II

(a) 6-15 pairs of gill slits (i) Trygon

(b) Heterocercal caudal fin (ii) Cyclostomes

(c) Air bladder (iii) chondrichthyes

(d) Poison sting (iv) osteichthyes

a)

a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i

b)

a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii

c)

a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i

d)

a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i

85.

Match the following columns and select the correct option

Column -I Column-II

(a) Clostridium butylicum (i) Cyclosporin-A

(b) Trichoderma polysporum (ii) Butyric acid

(c) Monascus purpureus (iii) Citric Acid

(d) Aspergillus niger (iv) Blood cholesterol lowering agent

a)

a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii

b)

a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i

c)

a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i

d)

a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii

86.

Which of the following is not and inhibitory substance governing seed dormancy?

a)

Phenolic acid

b)

Para-ascorbic acid

c)

Gibberellic acid

d)

Abscisic acid

87.

Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column -I Column-II

(a) Organ of corti (i) Connects middle ear and pharynx

(b) Cochles (ii) Coiled part of the labyrinth

(c) Eustachian tube (iii) Attached to the oval window

(d) Stapes (iv) Located on the basilar membrane

a)

a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii

b)

a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii

c)

a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv

d)

a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii

88.

The enzyme enterokinase helps in conversion of:

a)

Caseinogen into casein

b)

Pepsinogen into pepsin

c)

Protein into polypeptides

d)

Trypsinogen into trypsin

89.

Presence of which of the following conditions in urine are indicative of diabetes mellitus?

a)

Ketonuria and Glycosuria

b)

Renal calculi and Hyperglycaemia

c)

Uremia and ketonuria

d)

Uremia and Renal Calculi

90.

The process responsible for facilitating loss of water in liquid form the tip of grass blades at night and in early morning is:

a)

Imbibition

b)

Plasmolysis

c)

Transpiration

d)

Root pressure

91.

A short electric dipole has a dipole moment of $16×10^{-9}$ CM. The electric potential due to the dipole at a point at a distance of 0.6 m from the centre of the dipole, situated on a line making an angle of $60^{\degree}$ with the dipole axis is : $\frac{1}{4\pi e_o}=9\times10^9\ NM^2\ /\ C^2$

a)

400 v

b)

Zero

c)

50 v

d)

200 v

92.

A series LCR circuit is connected to an ac voltage source. When L is removed from the circuit, the phase difference between current and voltage Is π/3. If instead C is removed from the circuit, the phase difference is again π/3 between current and voltage. The power factor of the circuit is

a)

1.0

b)

-1.0

c)

Zero

d)

0.5

93.

Light of frequency 1.5 times the threshold frequency W incident on a photosensitive material. What will be the photoelectric current if the frequency is halved and intensity is doubled ?

a)

one – fourth

b)

zero

c)

doubled

d)

four times

94.

Dimensions of stress are :

a)

$\left[ML^0T^{-2}\right]$

b)

$\left[ML^{-1}T^2\right]$

c)

$\left[MLT^{-2}\right]$

d)

$\left[ML^2T^{-2}\right]$

95.

An electron is accelerated from rest through a potential difference of V volt. If the de Broglie wavelength of the electron is 1.227 x $10^{-2}$ nm, the potential difference is :

a)

$10^3v$

b)

$10^4v$

c)

$10v$

d)

$10^2v$

96.

The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor with air as medium is 6 𝜇F. With the introduction of a dielectric medium, the capacitance becomes 30 𝜇F. The permittivity of the medium is : $ε_0=8.85\ \times10^{-12}\ C^2\ N^{-1}\ m^{-2}$

a)

$0.44×10^{-10}C^2N^{-1}m^{-2}$

b)

$5.00\ C^2N^{-1}m^{-2}$

c)

$0.44×10^{-13}C^2N^{-1}m^{-2}$

d)

$0.77×10^{-12}C^2N^{-1}m^{-2}$

97.

The solids which have the negative temperature coefficient of resistance are :

a)

Semiconductors only

b)

Insulators and semiconductors

c)

Metals

d)

Insulators only

98.

For transistor action, which of the following statements is correct?

a)

Both emitter junction as well as the collector junction are forward biased.

b)

The base region must be very thin and lightly doped.

c)

Base, emitter and collector regions should have same doping concentrations

d)

Base, emitter and collector regions should have same size

99.

A screw gauge has least count of 0.01 mm and there are 50 divisions in its circular scale. The pitch of the screw guage is

a)

0.5 mm

b)

1.0 mm

c)

0.01 mm

d)

0.25 mm

100.

The phase difference between displacement and acceleration of a particle in a simple harmonic motion is :

a)

π/2 rad

b)

zero

c)

π rad

d)

3π/2 rad

101.

A long solenoid of 50 cm length having 100 turns carries a current 2.5 A. The magnetic field at the centre of the solenoid is $(μ_0=4π\times10^{-7}T\ m\ A^{-1})$

a)

$6.28×10^{-5}T$

b)

$3.14×10^{-5}T$

c)

$6.28×10^{-4}T$

d)

$3.14×10^{-5}T$

102.

A ball is thrown vertically downward with a velocity of 20 m/s from the top of a tower. It hits the ground after some time with a velocity of 80 m/s. The height of the tower is : (g = 10 m/ $s^2$ )

a)

320m

b)

300m

c)

360m

d)

340m

103.

The color code of a resistance is given below :

The values of resistances and tolerance, respectively are

a)

4.7 kΩ, 5%

b)

470 Ω, 5%

c)

470 kΩ, 5%

d)

47 kΩ, 10%

104.

The Brewsters angle $i_b$ for an interface should be:

a)

$45^0<i_b<90^0$

b)

$i_b=90^0$

c)

$0^0<i_b<30^0$

d)

$30^0<i_b<45^0$

105.

A ray is incident at an angle of incidence i on one surface of a small angle prism (with angle of prism A) and emerges normally from the opposite surface. If the refractive index of the material of the prism is μ, then the angle of incidence is nearly equal to

a)

µA

b)

µA/2

c)

A/2 µ

d)

2A/ µ

106.

An iron rod of susceptibility 599 is subjected to a magnetising field of 1200 $Am^{-1}$

The permeability of the material of the rod is : $\mu_0=4\pi\times10^{-7}Tm\ A^{-1}$

a)

$2.4\pi\times10^{-5}Tm\ A^{-1}$

b)

$2.4\pi\times10^{-7}Tm\ A^{-1}$

c)

$2.4\pi\times10^{-4}Tm\ A^{-1}$

d)

$8.0\times10^{-5}Tm\ A^{-1}$

107.

Find the torque about the origin when a force of acts on a particle whose position vector is

a)

b)

c)

d)

108.

The average thermal energy for a mono-atomic gas is : ( $k_b$

is Boltzmann constant and T, absolute temperature)

a)

$\frac{5}{2}k_BT$

b)

$\frac{7}{2}k_BT$

c)

$\frac{1}{2}k_BT$

d)

$\frac{3}{2}k_BT$

109.

Assume that light of wavelength 600 nm is coming from a star. The limit of resolution of telescope whose objective has a diameter of 2 m is :

a)

$7.32×10^{-7}$ rad

b)

$6.00×10^{-7}$ rad

c)

$3.66×10^{-7}$

d)

$1.83×10^{-7}$

110.

Light with an average flux of $20\ W/cm^2$

falls on a non-reflecting surface at normal incidence having surface area $20\ cm^2$ . The energy received by the surface during time span of 1 minute is :

a)

$24×10^3\ J$

b)

$48×10^3\ J$

c)

$10×10^3\ J$

d)

$12×10^3\ J$

111.

The ratio of contributions made by the electric field and magnetic field components to the intensity of an electromagnetic wave is : (c = speed of electromagnetic waves)

a)

1:c

b)

$1:c^2$

c)

c:1

d)

1:1

112.

Which of the following graph represents the variation of resistivity (𝜌) with temperature (T) for copper ?

a)

b)

c)

d)

113.

The quantities of heat required to raise the temperature of two solid copper spheres of radii $r_1\ and\ r_{2\ }(r_1=1.5r_2)$ through 1 K are in the ratio

a)

3/2

b)

5/3

c)

27/8

d)

9/4

114.

A resistance wire connected in the left gap of a metre bridge balances a 10 Ω resistance in the right gap at a point which divides the bridge wire in the ratio 3 : 2. If the length of the resistance wire is 1.5 m, then the length of 1 Ω of the resistance wire is :

a)

$1.5×10^{-1}\ m$

b)

$1.5×10^{-2}\ m$

c)

$1.0×10^{-2}\ m$

d)

$1.0×10^{-1}\ m$

115.

The increase in the width of the depletion region in a p-n junction diode is due to :

a)

Both forward bias and reverse bias

b)

Increase in forward current

c)

Forward bias only

d)

Reverse bias only

116.

A 40 𝜇F capacitor is connected to a 200V, 50 Hz ac supply. The rms value of the current in the circuit is, nearly :

a)

2.5 A

b)

25.1 A

c)

1.7 A

d)

2.05 A

117.

Taking into account of the significant figures, what is the value of 9.99m - 0.009 m ?

a)

9.980 m

b)

9.9 m

c)

9.901 m

d)

9.98 m

118.

A charged particle having drift velocity $7.5\times10^{-4}\ ms^{-1}$ of in an electric field of $3\times10^{-10}\ Vm^{-1}$ , has a mobility in $m^2V^{-1}s^{-1}$ of :

a)

$2.5×10^{-6}$

b)

$2.25×10^{-15}$

c)

$2.25×10^{15}$

d)

$2.5×10^6$

119.

.In a guitar, two strings A and B made of same material are slightly out of tune and produce beats of frequency 6 Hz. When tension in B is slightly decreased, the beat frequency increases to 7 Hz. If the frequency of A is 530 Hz, the original frequency of B will be:

a)

536 Hz

b)

537 Hz

c)

523 Hz

d)

524 Hz

120.

Two particles of mass 5 kg and 10 kg respectively are attached to the two ends of a rigid rod of length 1 m with negligible mass. The centre of mass of the system from the 5 kg particle is nearly at a distance of :

a)

67 cm

b)

80 cm

c)

33 cm

d)

50 cm

121.

A short electric dipole has a dipole moment of $16\times10^{-9}$ cm. The electric potential due to the dipole at a point at a distance of 0.6 m from the centre of the dipole, situated on a line making an angle of $60\degree$ with the dipole axis is : $\frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0}=9\times10^{9\ }NM^2$ / $C^2$

a)

400 v

b)

Zero

c)

50 v

d)

200 v

122.

A series LCR circuit is connected to an ac voltage source. When L is removed from the circuit, the phase difference between current and voltage Is π/3. If instead C is removed from the circuit, the phase difference is again π/3 between current and voltage. The power factor of the circuit is

a)

1.0

b)

-1.0

c)

Zero

d)

0.5

123.

Light of frequency 1.5 times the threshold frequency W incident on a photosensitive material. What will be the photoelectric current if the frequency is halved and intensity is doubled ?

a)

One - Fourth

b)

zero

c)

doubled

d)

four times

124.

An electron is accelerated from rest through a potential difference of V volt. If the de Broglie wavelength of the electron is 1.227 x $10^{-2}$

nm, the potential difference is :

a)

$10^3v$

b)

$10^4v$

c)

$10v$

d)

$10^2v$

125.

The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor with air as medium is 6 𝜇F. With the introduction of a dielectric medium, the capacitance becomes 30 𝜇F. The permittivity of the medium is : $(ε_0=8.85x10^{-12}\ C^2\ N^{-1}\ m^{-2})$

a)

$0.44\times10^{-10}\ C^2\ N^{-1}\ m^{-2}$

b)

$5.00\ C^2\ N^{-1}\ m^{-2}$

c)

$0.44\times10^{-13}\ C^2\ N^{-1}\ m^{-2}$

d)

$1.77\times10^{-12}\ C^2\ N^{-1}\ m^{-2}$

126.

The solids which have the negative temperature coefficient of resistance are :

a)

Semiconductors only

b)

Insulators and semiconductors

c)

Metals

d)

Insulators only

127.

For transistor action, which of the following statements is correct?

a)

Both emitter junction as well as the collector junction are forward biased.

b)

The base region must be very thin and lightly doped.

c)

Base, emitter and collector regions should have same doping concentrations

d)

Base, emitter and collector regions should have same size

128.

A screw gauge has least count of 0.01 mm and there are 50 divisions in its circular scale. The pitch of the screw gauge is

a)

0.5 mm

b)

1.0 mm

c)

0.01 mm

d)

0.25 mm

129.

The phase difference between displacement and acceleration of a particle in a simple harmonic motion is :

a)

π/2 rad

b)

zero

c)

π rad

d)

3π/2 rad

130.

A long solenoid of 50 cm length having 100 turns carries a current 2.5 A. The magnetic field at the centre of the solenoid is $(μ_0=4π\times10^{-7}\ T\ m\ A^{-1})$

a)

$6.28×10^{-5}\ T$

b)

$3.14×10^{-5}\ T$

c)

$6.28×10^{-4}\ T$

d)

$3.14×10^{-4}\ T$

131.

A ball is thrown vertically downward with a velocity of 20 m/s from the top of a tower. It hits the ground after some time with a velocity of 80 m/s. The height of the tower is : (g = 10 m/ $s^2$ )

a)

320m

b)

300m

c)

360m

d)

340m

132.

Two cylinders A and B of equal capacity are connected to each other via a stop cock. A contains an ideal gas at standard temperature and pressure. B is completely evacuated. The entire system is thermally insulated. The stop cock is suddenly opened. The process is :

a)

isochoric

b)

isobaric

c)

isothermal

d)

adiabatic

133.

For which one of the following, Bohr model is not valid ?

a)

Deuteron atom

b)

Singly ionised neon atom $(Ne^+)$

c)

Hydrogen atom

d)

Singly ionised helium atom $(He^+)$

134.

Two bodies of mass 4 kg and 6 kg are tied to the ends of a massless string. The string passes over a pulley which is frictionless (see figure). The acceleration of the system in terms of acceleration due to gravity (g) is :

a)

g/5

b)

g/10

c)

g

d)

g/2

135.

When a uranium isotope $_{92}^{235}$ U is bombarded with a neutron, it generates $_{36}^{89}$ Kr, three neutrons and :

a)

$_{36}^{101}$ Kr

b)

$_{36}^{103}$ Kr

c)

$_{56}^{144}$ Ba

d)

$_{40}^{91}$ Zr

136.

The type of isomerism shown by the complex $\left[CoCl_2\left(en\right)_2\right]$ is

a)

Geometrical isomerism

b)

Linkage isomerism

c)

Ionization isomerism

d)

Coordination isomerism

137.

Which one of the following ions exhibits d-d transition and paramagnetism as well ?

a)

$CrO_{\ 4}^{\ 2-\ }$

b)

$MnO_{\ 4}^{\ 2-\ }$

c)

$MnO_{\ 4}^{\ -\ }$

d)

$Cr_2O_{\ 7}^{\ 2-\ }$

138.

Match the metal ions given in Column I with the spin magnetic moments of the ions given in Column II and assign the correct code :

a)

a-iv, b-v, c-ii, d-i

b)

a-iii, b-v, c-i, d-ii

c)

a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii

d)

a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

139.

Iron carbonyl, $Fe(CO)_5$ is

a)

tetranuclear

b)

dinuclear

c)

trinuclear

d)

mononuclear

140.

The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the complex $[Ni(CO)_4]$

are

a)

square planar geometry and diamagnetic

b)

tetrahedral geometry and paramagnetic

c)

square planar geometry and paramagnetic

d)

tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic

141.

The correct order of N-compounds in its decreasing order of oxidation states is

a)

$HNO_3,\ NO,\ N_2,\ NH_4Cl$

b)

$NH_4Cl,\ N_2,\ NO,\ HNO_3$

c)

$HNO_3,\ NH_4Cl,\ NO,\ N_2$

d)

$HNO_3,\ NO,\ NH_4Cl,\ N_2$

142.

Which one of the following elements is unable to form $MF_{\ 6}^{\ 3-}$

ion ?

a)

Ga

b)

In

c)

B

d)

Al

143.

Considering Ellingham diagram, which of the following metals can be used to reduce alumina ?

a)

Fe

b)

Cu

c)

Mg

d)

Zn

144.

The correct order of atomic radii in group 13 elements is

a)

B < Al < In < Ga < Tl

b)

B < Ga < Al < In < Tl

c)

B < Ga < Al < Tl < In

d)

B < Al < Ga < In < Tl

145.

Which of the following statements is not true for halogens ?

a)

All form monobasic oxyacids.

b)

Chlorine has the highest electron-gain enthalpy.

c)

All but fluorine show positive oxidation states.

d)

All are oxidizing agents.

146.

In the structure of $ClF_3$

, the number of lone pairs of electrons on central atom ‘Cl’ is

a)

one

b)

three

c)

four

d)

two

147.

In the reaction

the electrophile involved is

a)

b)

c)

d)

148.

Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points than aldehydes, ketones and even alcohols of comparable molecular mass. It is due to their

a)

formation of intramolecular H-bonding

b)

formation of intermolecular H-bonding

c)

more extensive association of carboxylic acid via van der Waals force of attraction

d)

formation of carboxylate ion

149.

Compound A, $C_8H_{10}O$ , is found to react with NaOI (produced by reacting Y with NaOH) and yields a yellow precipitate with characteristic smell.

A and Y are respectively

a)

b)

c)

d)

150.

Which oxide of nitrogen is not a common pollutant introduced into the atmosphere both due to natural and human activity ?

a)

$N_2O_5$

b)

$NO$

c)

$N_2O$

d)

$NO_2$

151.

The compound A on treatment with Na gives B, and with $PCl_5$

gives C. B and C react together to give diethyl ether. A, B and C are in the order

a)

$C_2H_5OH,\ C_2H_6,\ C_2H_5Cl$

b)

$C_2H_5OH,C_2H_5ONa,C_2H_5Cl$

c)

$C_2H_5Cl,\ C_2H_6,\ C_2H_5OH$

d)

$C_2H_5OH,\ C_2H_5Cl,\ C_2H_5ONa$

152.

The compound $C_7H_8$ undergoes the following reactions

: The product ‘C’ is

a)

m-bromotoluene

b)

p-bromotoluene

c)

3-bromo-2,4,6-trichlorotoluene

d)

o-bromotoluene

153.

Hydrocarbon (A) reacts with bromine by substitution to form an alkyl bromide which by Wurtz reaction is converted to gaseous hydrocarbon containing less than four carbon atoms. (A) is

a)

$CH=CH$

b)

$CH_4$

c)

$CH_3–CH_3$

d)

$CH_2\ =\ CH_2$

154.

Which of the following molecules represents the order of hybridisation $sp_2,\ sp_2,\ sp,\ sp$ from left to right atoms?

a)

$HC=C\ –\ C=CH$

b)

$CH_3\ –\ CH=CH\ –\ CH_3$

c)

$CH_2=CH\ –\ CH=CH_2$

d)

$CH_2=CH\ –\ C=CH$

155.

Which of the following carbocations is expected to be most stable?

a)

b)

c)

d)

156.

Which of the following is correct with respect to – I effect of the substituents ? (R = alkyl)

a)

$–NH_2<–OR<–F$

b)

$–NR_2>–OR>–F$

c)

$–NH_2>–OR>–F$

d)

$–NR_2<–OR<–F$

157.

A mixture of 2·3 g formic acid and 4·5 g oxalic acid is treated with conc. $H_2SO_4$ . The evolved gaseous mixture is passed through KOH pellets. Weight (in g) of the remaining product at STP will be

a)

1.4

b)

4.4

c)

2.8

d)

3.8

158.

The difference between amylose and amylopectin is

a)

Amylopectin have 1 $\rightarrow$ 4 $\alpha$ -linkage and 1 $\rightarrow$ 6 $\alpha$ -linkage

b)

Amylose is made up of glucose and galactose

c)

Amylopectin have 1 $\rightarrow$ 4 $\alpha$ -linkage and 1 $\rightarrow$ 6 $\beta$ -linkage

d)

Amylose have 1 $\rightarrow$ 4 $\alpha$ -linkage and 1 $\rightarrow$ 6 $\beta$ -linkage

159.

Which of the following compounds can form a zwitterion ?

a)

Aniline

b)

Glycine

c)

Benzoic acid

d)

Acetanilide

160.

Regarding cross-linked or network polymers, which of the following statements is incorrect ?

a)

They contain covalent bonds between various linear polymer chains.

b)

They contain strong covalent bonds in their polymer chains.

c)

Examples are bakelite and melamine.

d)

They are formed from bi- and tri-functional monomers.

161.

Nitration of aniline in strong acidic medium also gives m-nitroaniline because

a)

In spite of substituents nitro group always goes to only m-position.

b)

In acidic (strong) medium aniline is present as anilinium ion.

c)

In absence of substituents nitro group always goes to m-position.

d)

In electrophilic substitution reactions amino group is meta directive.

162.

Identify the major products P, Q and R in the following sequence of reactions :

a)

b)

c)

d)

163.

Which of the following oxides is most acidic in nature ?

a)

MgO

b)

CaO

c)

BaO

d)

BeO

164.

Following solutions were prepared by mixing different volumes of NaOH and HCl of different concentrations :

a)

b)

c)

d)

pH of which one of them will be equal to 1 ?

a)

b

b)

c

c)

d

d)

a

165.

On which of the following properties does the coagulating power of an ion depend ?

a)

The magnitude of the charge on the ion alone

b)

The sign of charge on the ion alone

c)

Both magnitude and sign of the charge on the ion

d)

Size of the ion alone

166.

Given van der Waals constant for $NH_3,H_3,O_2$ and $CO_2$ are respectively 4·17, 0·244, 1·36 and 3·59, which one of the following gases is most easily liquefied ?

a)

$NH_3$

b)

$CO_2$

c)

$O_2$

d)

$H_2$

167.

The solubility of

in water is $2·42\times10^{-3}\ gL^{-1}$ at 298 K. The value of its solubility product ( $K_{sp}$ ) will be (Given molar mass of $BaSO_4=233\ g\ mol^{-1}$ )

a)

$1·08\times10^{-10}\ mol^2\ L^{-2}$

b)

$1·08\times10^{-8}\ mol^2\ L^{-2}$

c)

$1·08\times10^{-14}\ mol^2\ L^{-2}$

d)

$1·08\times10^{-12}\ mol^2\ L^{-2}$

168.

For the redox reaction $Mn\ O_4^-+C_2O_4^{2-}\ H^+\rightarrow\ Mn^{2+}+CO_2+H_2O$

the correct coefficients of the reactants for the balanced equation are

Mn\ O_4^-\ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ C_2O_4^{2-}\ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ H^+

a)

16 5 2

b)

5 16 2

c)

2 16 5

d)

2 5 16

169.

Which one of the following conditions will favour maximum formation of the product in the reaction

a)

Low temperature and high pressure

b)

High temperature and low pressure

c)

High temperature and high pressure

d)

Low temperature and low pressure

170.

When initial concentration of the reactant is doubled, the half-life period of a zero order reaction

a)

is halved

b)

remains unchanged

c)

is tripled

d)

is doubled

171.

The bond dissociation energies of $X_2,\ Y_2\$ and XY are in the ratio of 1 : 0·5 : 1. $\Delta$ H for the formation of XY is – 200 kJ $mol^{-1}$ . The bond dissociation energy of $X_2$ will be

a)

$200\ kJ\ mol^{-1}$

b)

$400\ kJ\ mol^{-1}$

c)

$800\ kJ\ mol^{-1}$

d)

$100\ kJ\ mol^{-1}$

172.

In which case is the number of molecules of water maximum ?

a)

18 mL of water

b)

$10^{-3}$ mol of water

c)

0·00224 L of water vapours at 1 atm and 273 K

d)

0·18 g of water

173.

The correction factor ‘a’ to the ideal gas equation corresponds to

a)

density of the gas molecules

b)

forces of attraction between the gas molecules

c)

electric field present between the gas molecules

d)

volume of the gas molecules

174.

The correct difference between first- and second-order reactions is that

a)

the rate of a first-order reaction does not depend on reactant concentrations; the rate of a second-order reaction does depend on reactant concentrations

b)

the rate of a first-order reaction does depend on reactant concentrations; the rate of a second-order reaction does not depend on reactant concentrations

c)

a first-order reaction can be catalyzed; a second-order reaction cannot be catalyzed

d)

the half-life of a first-order reaction does not depend on $\left[A\right]_0$ ; the half-life of a second-order reaction does depend on $\left[A\right]_0$

175.

Among , the order of ionic character is $CaH_2,\ BeH_2,\ BaH_2$

a)

$BeH_2<CaH_2<BaH_2$

b)

$BaH_2<BeH_2<CaH_2$

c)

$BeH_2<BaH_2<CaH_2$

d)

$CaH_2<BeH_2<BaH_2$

176.

Consider the change in oxidation state of Bromine corresponding to different emf values as shown in the diagram below :

Then the species undergoing disproportionation is

a)

$BrO_3^-$

b)

$HBrO$

c)

$Br_2$

d)

$BrO_4^-$

177.

Consider the following species : $CN^+,\ CN^-$

, NO and CN Which one of these will have the highest bond order ?

a)

NO

b)

CN

c)

$CN^+$

d)

$CN^-$

178.

Which one is a wrong statement ?

a)

Total orbital angular momentum of electron in ‘s’ orbital is equal to zero

b)

The value of m for 2 z d is zero.

c)

d)

An orbital is designated by three quantum numbers while an electron in an atom is designated by four quantum numbers.

179.

Iron exhibits bcc structure at room temperature. Above $900\degree$

C, it transforms to fcc structure. The ratio of density of iron at room temperature to that at

C (assuming molar mass and atomic radii of iron remains constant with temperature) is

a)

$\frac{\sqrt{3}}{\sqrt{2}}$

b)

$\frac{1}{2}$

c)

$\frac{3\sqrt{3}}{4\sqrt{2}}$

d)

$\frac{4\sqrt{3}}{3\sqrt{2}}$

180.

Magnesium reacts with an element (X) to form an ionic compound. If the ground state electronic configuration of (X) is $1s^2\ 2s^2\ 2p^3$

, the simplest formula for this compound is

a)

$Mg_2X_3$

b)

$Mg_3X_2$

c)

$Mg_2X$

d)

$MgX_2$

NEET - Qualifying III

Total questions: 180

Worksheet time: 23hrs 15mins

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