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IB Bio 2.7,2.6,7.1,7.2,7.3

Total questions: 99

Worksheet time: 2hrs 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is formed during transcription?

a)

RNA strand complementary to DNA strand, formed by RNA polymerase

b)

DNA strand complementary to DNA strand, formed by DNA polymerase

c)

RNA strand complementary to RNA strand, formed by DNA polymerase

d)

DNA strand complementary to RNA strand, formed by RNA polymerase

2.

Research has shown that the genetic code is not entirely universal. Which research finding has shown this?

a)

Some amino acids are coded for by more than one codon.

b)

There are differences between the base sequences of genes in different species.

c)

In some organisms the genetic code for mitochondria differs from the genetic code for the nucleus.

d)

Some codons code for the addition of an amino acid and some code for the termination of translation.

3.

This is a sequence of nucleotides from a section of mRNA.

AUGAAACGCACGCAG

From which DNA sequence has it been transcribed?

a)

ATGAAACGCACGCAG

b)

UACUUUGCGUGCGAC

c)

TACUUUGCGTGCGTC

d)

TACTTTGCGTGCGTC

4.

What is a codon?

a)

A sequence of nucleotides on rRNA that corresponds to an amino acid

b)

A sequence of nucleotides on mRNA that corresponds to an amino acid

c)

A sequence of nucleotides on tRNA that corresponds to an amino acid

d)

A sequence of nucleotides on DNA that corresponds to an amino acid

5.

The graph below shows the effect of temperature on the separation of the strands in DNA to form single strands. The temperature at which 50% of the DNA is single-stranded is called the melting temperature (TM). What do the results show?

a)

When the temperature reaches 85°C there are no more double-stranded DNA molecules.

b)

When the temperature reaches 85°C the DNA strands start separating rapidly.

c)

A TM of 85°C means that DNA is not stable at room temperature (25°C).

d)

The separation of the DNA strands is directly proportional to the increase in temperature.

6.

What will be the sequence on the mRNA molecule that is produced when the DNA base sequence ACTGATGCC is transcribed?

a)

ACTGATGCC

b)

ACUGAUGCC

c)

TGACTACGG

d)

UGACUACGG

7.

The table shows the genetic code. Which mRNA could code for the sequence Met-Ser-Leu-Arg-Phe?

a)

AUG UCA UCG UGG UUU

b)

AUG UCC ACC AGA UUC

c)

AUG UCU CCC AGA UUU

d)

AUG UCG CUG AGG UUC

8.

Which are necessary to make DNA replication semi-conservative?

I. Separation of the strands by RNA polymerase

II. Complementary base pairing

III. Use of a pre-existing strand as a template

a)

I and II only

b)

I and III only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II and III

9.

How is the information in the genetic code used?

a)

To predict the genotype of gametes

b)

To distinguish prokaryotic genomes from eukaryotic genomes

c)

To deduce phenotypes in pedigree charts

d)

To translate mRNA into polypeptides

10.

What sequence of processes is carried out by the structure labelled X during translation?

a)

Combining with an amino acid and then binding to an anticodon

b)

Binding to an anticodon and then combining with an amino acid

c)

Binding to a codon and then combining with an amino acid

d)

Combining with an amino acid and then binding to a codon

11.

A short sequence of nucleotides reads GGACAGAGCGCAGACGA. In which type of molecule could this sequence be found?

a)

DNA molecule only

b)

RNA molecule only

c)

Both in a DNA and an RNA molecule

d)

In double-stranded DNA only

12.

Which sequence of bases and amino acids could be produced by transcription and translation of the DNA molecule shown?

a)

A.

b)

B.

c)

C.

d)

D.

13.

What is replicated by a semi-conservative process?

a)

Messenger RNA (mRNA) only

b)

Messenger RNA (mRNA) and transfer RNA (tRNA) only

c)

Messenger RNA (mRNA), transfer RNA (tRNA) and DNA only

d)

DNA only

14.

What enables bacteria to produce human growth hormone?

a)

DNA replication is semi-conservative.

b)

The polymerase chain reaction can be used.

c)

They need the hormone for growth.

d)

The genetic code is universal.

15.

Meselson and Stahl conducted experiments using the isotopes 14N and 15N which showed that DNA replication is semi-conservative. What would they have observed about the distribution of isotopes in the DNA after one round of replication if DNA replication was conservative rather than semi-conservative?

a)

Only 14N DNA

b)

Only 15N DNA

c)

All DNA half 14N and half 15N

d)

Half the DNA with only 14N and half with only 15N

16.

What occurs during DNA replication?

a)

DNA polymerase separates the two DNA strands.

b)

DNA molecules containing nucleotides from the original molecule are produced.

c)

Adenine forms a base pair with either thymine or uracil.

d)

New bases attach to the original sugar-phosphate backbone.

17.

What occurs during DNA replication?

a)

DNA polymerase separates the two DNA strands.

b)

DNA molecules containing nucleotides from the original molecule are produced.

c)

Adenine forms a base pair with either thymine or uracil.

d)

New bases attach to the original sugar-phosphate backbone.

18.

On which molecule is a codon found?

a)

DNA

b)

mRNA

c)

tRNA

d)

rRNA

19.

Which sequence represents the order of events in protein synthesis?

a)

A.

b)

B.

c)

C.

d)

D.

20.

The diagram shows the translation of a mRNA molecule. A tRNA molecule with anticodon CAG carries the amino acid phenylalanine. Which codon of mRNA will the tRNA join?

a)

CTG

b)

CAG

c)

GTC

d)

GUC

21.

Which of the following statements is/are correct for DNA replication?

I. It occurs during interphase.

II. It is semi-conservative.

III. It is a stage in protein synthesis.

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

I and II only

d)

I, II and III

22.

What is required to replicate DNA?

a)

Temperature of 37 °C

b)

Free nucleotides carrying A, C, G and T bases

c)

Plasmids

d)

Endonuclease

23.

Which of the following are involved in both replication and transcription?

a)

DNA only

b)

DNA and RNA

c)

DNA and ribosomes

d)

DNA, RNA and ribosomes

24.

What happens during translation?

a)

Copying of DNA to produce DNA

b)

Copying of DNA to produce tRNA

c)

Polypeptide synthesis

25.

A base substitution in a gene has changed a codon. Which of these consequences could result from a base substitution in a codon?

I. Another amino acid will be incorporated in the protein

II. A stop codon is generated

III. The same protein will be synthesized

a)

I only

b)

I and II only

c)

I and III only

d)

I, II and III

26.

A strand of mRNA consists of the following nucleotides:

AUUCUGGCUA

Which of the following represents the non-transcribed (sense) strand of the DNA?

a)

TAAGACCGAT

b)

ATTCTGGCTA

c)

UAAGACCAU

d)

AUUCUGGCUA

27.

The table below shows the codons that determine different amino acids in protein translation. What is the sequence of the amino acids that is being translated from the following mRNA sequence?

5′ AUGGGUGCUUAUUGGUAA 3′

a)

Met-Pro-Arg-Ile-Thr

b)

Met-Cys-Ser-Tyr-Trp

c)

Met-Gly-Ala-Tyr-Trp

d)

Met-Gly-Tyr-Ala-Thr

28.

What principle is necessary to prevent mutation of DNA during replication?

a)

Base pairing is complementary.

b)

One gene codes for one polypeptide.

c)

Substrates are specific to enzymes.

d)

The genetic code is universal.

29.

Cladograms can be created by comparing DNA or protein sequences. The cladogram on the left is based on DNA sequences and the cladogram on the right is based on comparing protein sequences. What is the reason that cladograms based on DNA sequences are more reliable predictors of the phylogenetic relationship of species than cladograms based on protein sequences?

a)

Amino acids are not as chemically stable as DNA nucleotides.

b)

Several different triplets of bases can code for the same amino acid.

c)

DNA mutates but amino acids do not.

d)

There are 20 different amino acids but only 4 nucleotides.

30.

For which discovery about DNA do Watson and Crick receive credit?

a)

DNA is the molecule that genes are made of...

b)

Phosphate–pentose bonding along the nucleotide backbone is covalent.

c)

The amount of adenine equals the amount of thymine in an organism.

d)

The shape of DNA is a double helix.

31.

What is a similarity between DNA and RNA?

a)

Both are polymers of nucleotides.

b)

Both contain adenine, cytosine and thymine.

c)

Both are composed of antiparallel strands.

d)

Both contain ribose sugar.

32.

Which sequence shows increasing relative size?

a)

A.

b)

B.

c)

C.

d)

D.

33.

The image shows a DNA nucleotide. Which correctly identifies the parts labelled I and II?

a)

I Base:

II Phosphate

b)

I Deoxyribose:

II Base

c)

I Ribose:

II Uracil

d)

I Ribose:

II Adenine

34.

The diagram shows a dinucleotide. Which type of bond is identified by the arrow?

a)

Phosphate

b)

Covalent

c)

Hydrogen

d)

Peptide

35.

What links the pairs of complementary bases in a DNA double helix?

a)

Covalent bonds

b)

Ionic bonds

c)

Hydrogen bonds

d)

Peptide bonds

36.

The percentage of thymine in the DNA of an organism is approximately 30 %. What is the percentage of guanine?

a)

70 %

b)

20 %

c)

30 %

d)

40 %

37.

Which of the following are connected by hydrogen bonds?

a)

Hydrogen to oxygen within a molecule of water

b)

Base to sugar in a DNA molecule

c)

Phosphate to sugar in a DNA molecule

d)

Hydrogen to oxygen between two different molecules of water

38.

The following diagram shows a short stretch of DNA. What bases are indicated by labels Y and Z?

a)

Y thymine: 

Z adenine

b)

Y uracil:

Z guanine

c)

Y thymine:

Z guanine

d)

Y uracil:

Z adenine

39.

Which molecules form the nucleotide marked in the diagram?

a)

phosphate, deoxyribose and nitrogenous base

b)

phosphorus, deoxyribose and guanosine

c)

phosphorus, ribose and nitrogenous base

d)

phosphate, ribose and guanine

40.

This question refers to the following diagram of DNA. What does the structure labelled X represent?

a)

Hydrogen bond

b)

Covalent bond

c)

Phosphate

d)

Base

41.

This question refers to the following diagram of DNA. What does the structure labelled Y represent?

a)

Ribose

b)

Guanine

c)

Thymine

d)

Deoxyribose

42.

What usually distinguishes DNA from RNA?

a)

A.

b)

B.

c)

C.

d)

D.

43.

Organisms can be genetically modified to produce the human blood clotting factor IX. What characteristic of the genetic code makes this possible?

a)

It is conservative.

b)

It is complementary.

c)

It is degenerate.

d)

It is universal

44.

The base sequence of a fragment of DNA is:

ACC GTG CAG GAT

What is the base sequence on the messenger RNA (mRNA) molecule transcribed from it?

a)

TGG CAC GTC CTA

b)

UGG CTC GUC CUT

c)

TGG CUC GTC CTU

d)

UGG CAC GUC CUA

45.

What type of bond is labelled X?

a)

Ionic

b)

Covalent

c)

Peptide

d)

Hydrogen

46.

In the model of the DNA molecule shown below, which arrows point to covalent bonds?

a)

I, II and III only

b)

I, III and IV only

c)

II, III and IV only

d)

I, II and IV only

47.

If 15 % of a sample of DNA is thymine, what percentage of the DNA is guanine?

a)

15 %

b)

35 %

c)

30 %

d)

It cannot be determined from the information given.

48.

This question refers to the following DNA diagram. Which points to the 3′ end of a strand of DNA?

a)

I

b)

III

c)

II

d)

IV

49.

This question refers to the following DNA diagram. What type of bond does Z represent?

a)

Covalent bond

b)

Peptide bond

c)

Hydrogen bond

d)

Semi-conservative bond

50.

Organisms can be genetically modified to produce the human blood clotting factor IX. What characteristic of the genetic code makes this possible?

a)

It is conservative.

b)

It is complementary.

c)

It is degenerate.

d)

It is universal.

51.

The base sequence of a fragment of DNA is:

ACC GTG CAG GAT

What is the base sequence on the messenger RNA (mRNA) molecule transcribed from it?

a)

TGG CAC GTC CTA

b)

UGG CTC GUC CUT

c)

TGG CUC GTC CTU

d)

UGG CAC GUC CUA

52.

What type of bond is labelled X?

a)

Ionic

b)

Covalent

c)

Peptide

d)

Hydrogen

53.

In the model of the DNA molecule shown below, which arrows point to covalent bonds?

a)

I, II and III only

b)

I, III and IV only

c)

II, III and IV only

d)

I, II and IV only

54.

If 15 % of a sample of DNA is thymine, what percentage of the DNA is guanine?

a)

15 %

b)

35 %

c)

30 %

d)

It cannot be determined from the information given.

55.

This question refers to the following DNA diagram. Which points to the 3′ end of a strand of DNA?

a)

I

b)

III

c)

II

d)

IV

56.

What is correct for the DNA double helix?

a)

Deoxyribose bonds to a… phosphate and a base

Hydrogen bonds form the bond between the… phosphates and the bases

Complementary base pairing between… adenine and uracil

b)

Deoxyribose bonds to a… deoxyribose and a phosphate

Hydrogen bonds form the bond between the… deoxyribose molecules

Complementary base pairing between… thymine and guanine

c)

Deoxyribose bonds to a… base and a deoxyribose

Hydrogen bonds form the bond between the… phosphate and the deoxyribose

Complementary base pairing between… adenine and thymine

d)

Deoxyribose bonds to a… base and a phosphate

Hydrogen bonds form the bond between the… bases

Complementary base pairing between… cytosine and guanine

57.

The diagram below represents part of the DNA molecule. What are the parts labelled I, II and III?

a)

I: hydrogen bond

II: base

III: deoxyribose

b)

I: covalent bond

II: base

III: deoxyribose

c)

I: hydrogen bond

II: deoxyribose

III: phosphate group

d)

I: covalent bond

II: deoxyribose

III: phosphate group

58.

The bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae causes infections related to the human reproductive system. The graph shows the percentage of samples in which this bacterium showed resistance to six antibiotics over a period of ten years. What is a possible explanation for the total percentage resistance being larger than 100% in 2010?

a)

People do not take the antibiotics as prescribed.

b)

There was an epidemic of Neisseria gonorrhoeae in that year.

c)

More people have been sampled in that year.

d)

Some bacteria are resistant to more than one antibiotic.

59.

The diagram shows how pre-mRNA is processed into mature mRNA. Which structures are indicated by the letters W and X?

a)

W: Exon

X: Poly-A tail

b)

W: Intron

X: Exon

c)

W: Poly-A tail

X: Exon

d)

W: Exon

X: Intron

60.

How does DNA replicate?

a)

The deoxyribose of a free nucleotide is linked to the phosphate of the last nucleotide in the chain.

b)

Nucleotides are linked in a 3′ to 5′ direction and the new strands are anti-parallel to the  template strands.

c)

The phosphate of a free nucleotide is linked to the deoxyribose of the last nucleotide in the chain.

d)

Nucleotides are linked in a 5′ to 3′ direction and the new strands are parallel to the template strands.

61.

What are Okazaki fragments?

a)

Short lengths of RNA primase attached to the DNA during replication

b)

Nucleotides added by DNA polymerase I in the same direction as the replication fork

c)

Short sections of DNA formed during DNA replication

d)

Sections of RNA removed by DNA polymerase III and replaced with DNA

62.

What does a nucleosome consist of?

a)

DNA and histones

b)

Chromatin and nucleotides

c)

DNA and chromatin

d)

Mature RNA and histones

63.

What is a nucleosome?

a)

A region in a prokaryotic cell where DNA is found

b)

A ribosome of a prokaryotic cell

c)

A DNA molecule wrapped around histone proteins

d)

A molecule consisting of a sugar, a base and a phosphate

64.

What are the fundamental packaging units of eukaryotic chromosomes?

a)

Nucleosomes

b)

Histones

c)

Centromeres

d)

Nucleoids

65.

Which of the following chemicals is a component of eukaryotic chromosomes?

a)

Protein

b)

Fatty acid

c)

Triglyceride

d)

RNA

66.

What is the reason for Okazaki fragments being formed during DNA replication?

a)

To enable replication of the 3′ → 5′ (lagging) strand

b)

To initiate replication on the 5′ → 3′ (leading) strand

c)

To form the template for the RNA primers

d)

To help the DNA helicase unwinding the DNA helix 27

67.

Which of the following forms the nucleosome?

a)

DNA and histone molecules

b)

RNA and histone molecules

c)

DNA only

d)

Histone molecules only

68.

What happens during the formation of Okazaki fragments?

a)

DNA polymerase III adds nucleotides in the 3′→ 5′ direction.

b)

DNA polymerase I adds nucleotides in the 5′→ 3′ direction.

c)

DNA polymerase III adds nucleotides in the 5′→ 3′ direction.

d)

RNA polymerase adds nucleotides in the 3′→ 5′ direction.

69.

The diagram below shows part of a DNA molecule that is being replicated. Where would DNA polymerase link the next nucleotide during replication?

a)

I

b)

III

c)

II

d)

IV

70.

After which process are introns removed?

a)

Replication

b)

Translation

c)

Transcription

d)

Translocation

71.

Which structure found in eukaryotes has a single membrane?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Chloroplast

c)

Lysosome

d)

Mitochondrion

72.

Which is a valid comparison between prokaryotic and eukaryotic DNA?

a)

A.

b)

B.

c)

C.

d)

D.

73.

Which letter (A–D) indicates where a new nucleotide would attach?

a)

A.

b)

B.

c)

C.

d)

D.

74.

In which process(es) do nucleosomes play a role in eukaryotes?

I. tRNA activation

II. Transcription regulation

III. DNA supercoiling

a)

I only

b)

II and III only

c)

II only

d)

I, II and III

75.

Very soon after fertilization, parental epigenetic methylation is reversed in the DNA.Later, tissue-specific epigenetic modifications are made to the embryonic DNA. The graph follows the degree of methylation from different sources during embryonic development. According to the graph, what are the changes in DNA methylation during embryonic development?

a)

Only the paternal DNA becomes demethylated.

b)

The methylation patterns of the parents’ DNA are erased before fertilization.

c)

The maternal DNA becomes demethylated first

d)

The methylation patterns of both parents are erased after fertilization.

76.

What is a feature of transcription?

a)

Both strands of a DNA molecule act as a template for mRNA.

b)

RNA polymerase binds to the promoter region.

c)

Nucleoside triphosphates become nucleotides by losing three phosphates.

d)

The sense strand acts as a template for mRNA.

77.

What are introns?

a)

Sequences of nucleotides that are removed to form mature RNA in eukaryotes

b)

Sequences that remain in mature RNA after exons have been removed

c)

Sequences of nucleotides that are removed to form mature RNA in prokaryotes

d)

Small pieces of circular DNA that are found in prokaryotes

78.

What makes up eukaryotic RNA immediately after transcription?

a)

Exons, introns and primers

b)

Introns only

c)

Exons and introns

d)

Exons only

79.

The sequence of nucleotides in a section of RNA is: GCCAUACGAUCG

What is the base sequence of the DNA sense strand?

a)

CGGUAUGCUAGC

b)

CGGTATGCTAGC

c)

GCCATACGATCG

d)

GCCAUACGAUCG

80.

Which statement applies to transcription in eukaryotic cells but not to prokaryotic cells?

a)

RNA polymerase transcribes the antisense strand of DNA to produce a strand of RNA.

b)

Transcription takes place in the cell nucleus.

c)

During transcription, uracil replaces thymine in RNA.

d)

Initiation of transcription requires a promoter sequence of DNA.

81.

The antisense strand on the DNA molecule coding for three codons of a gene is

TATCGCACG

What are the anticodons of the three tRNA molecules that correspond to this sequence?

a)

UAU, CGC and ACG

b)

AUA, GCG and UGC

c)

ATA, GCG and TGC

d)

TAT, CGC and ACG

82.

What is the relationship between enzymes and DNA?

a)

Enzymes contain the code for DNA.

b)

Enzymes act on DNA during translation.

c)

Both enzymes and DNA have similar shapes.

d)

The structure of enzymes is determined by DNA.

83.

What is removed during the formation of mature RNA in eukaryotes?

a)

Exons

b)

Codons

c)

Introns

d)

Nucleosomes

84.

The antisense strand of a DNA molecule has the sequence TACCCGATC. What would be the resulting mRNA strand sequence?

a)

TACCCGATC

b)

UACCCGAUC

c)

ATGGGCTAG

d)

AUGGGCUAG

85.

Some regions of DNA do not code for the production of proteins. What are these regions of DNA used as?

a)

They have no known function and are recycled to provide nucleotides

b)

Telomeres and coding for production of tRNA

c)

Gene regulation and coding for production of enzymes used in translation

d)

Introns and coding for production of structural proteins

86.

Scientists have heated a solution containing the protein albumin and measured its relative alpha helix content, shown on the graph. What does the zone labelled X indicate?

a)

Rapid increase in beta pleated sheets

b)

Rapid formation of hydrogen bonds

c)

Rapid increase in denatured protein molecules

d)

Rapid decrease in peptide bonds

87.

This image is taken from a visualization of a eukaryotic ribosome. The arrows show the direction of movement of mRNA. Which letter represents a tRNA exiting from the E site?

a)

A.

b)

B.

c)

C.

d)

D.

88.

Which types of interactions are found in a part of a protein with secondary but not tertiary structure?

I. Hydrogen bonds

II. Disulphide bridges

III. Ionic bonds

a)

I only

b)

I and II only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II and III

89.

Variations in the types of antibodies are produced by mRNA splicing. What is an advantage of this process?

a)

Reduces the size of mRNA required for the translation of antibodies

b)

Increases the number of different antibodies that can be synthesized

c)

Ensures that one gene codes for one antibody

d)

Speeds up transcription of antibodies

90.

What does post-transcriptional modification of eukaryotic mRNA include?

I.   Introns are removed from mRNA.

II.  Exons are joined together to form mature mRNA.

III. A 5′ cap and 3′ poly-A tail are added to mRNA.

a)

I only

b)

I and III only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II and III

91.

Where does a tRNA-activating enzyme attach the appropriate amino acid to the tRNA molecule?

a)

A.

b)

B.

c)

C.

d)

D.

92.

The image represents a model of the protein transthyretin. Which level of structure is indicated by X on the image?

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Tertiary

d)

Quaternary

93.

The image shows the structure of hemoglobin. What determines the primary structure of hemoglobin?

a)

Genetic information

b)

Hydrogen bonding

c)

Four polypeptide chains

d)

Side chain interactions

94.

The following diagram shows a ribosome during translation. What describes the specific stage of translation?

a)

Initiation

b)

Elongation

c)

Termination

d)

Translocation

95.

Which best describes the tertiary structure of a protein?

a)

The interaction of polypeptide subunits and prosthetic groups

b)

Interactions forming hydrogen bonds between the amino acids

c)

The sequence of amino acids in the polypeptide chain

96.

Which cell component synthesizes actin and myosin?

a)

Free ribosomes

b)

Rough endoplasmic reticulum

c)

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

d)

Nuclear membrane

97.

The diagram is a three-dimensional molecular model of a protein. Which bonds stabilize the shape of the area labelled X?

a)

Covalent bonds between adjacent amino acids

b)

Hydrogen bonds between N–H and C=O groups of amino acids

c)

Hydrophobic interactions between R groups of amino acids

d)

Disulphide bridges between cysteine molecules

98.

The diagram shows the cross section of a plasma membrane. What is found in area X?

a)

Glycolipid

b)

Glycoprotein

c)

Polar amino acid

d)

Non-polar amino acid

99.

What is the distinction between highly repetitive DNA sequences and single-copy genes?

a)

The highly repetitive sequences have greater amounts of guanine.

b)

The highly repetitive sequences have greater amounts of cytosine.

c)

The highly repetitive sequences are not transcribed.

d)

The highly repetitive sequences are not replicated.