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ENV Fall Semester Test Review

Total questions: 188

Worksheet time: 4hrs 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The solid part of earth that consists of all rock, as well as the soils and loose rock on the earth's surface. Extends from the center of the core to the surface of the crust.

a)

geosphere

b)

hydrosphere

c)

atmosphere

d)

biosphere

2.

What compositional layer of the earth is the most dense?

a)

mesosphere

b)

mantle

c)

core

d)

lithosphere

3.

What compositional layer makes up approximately 64% mass of the Earth?

a)

crust

b)

mantle

c)

core

d)

lithosphere

4.

What compositional layer of the earth is the thinnest?

a)

crust

b)

mantle

c)

core

d)

asthenosphere

5.

Seismologists learn about the interior structure of the Earth through measurement of the speed and direction of _______.

a)

air particles

b)

ocean currents

c)

seismic waves

d)

crustal soil deposits

6.

Which of the following is the most geologically active regions on the surface of the Earth?

a)

glacial valleys

b)

mountain peaks

c)

tectonic plate boundaries

d)

recharge zones

7.

What characteristics of the crust and mantle allow Earth to be tectonically active?

a)

Earth's solid surface layer rotates faster than the layers under it

b)

Earth's solid surface layer sits on a moving, semisolid layer

c)

Areas of Earth's solid surface layer are under great pressure from ocean water

d)

Areas of Earth's solid surface layer are thicker and heavier than others

8.

This is the name for the chain of volcanoes around the edge of the Pacific Plate.

a)

Circle of Fire

b)

Ring of Lava

c)

Ring of Fire

d)

Circle of Magma

9.

The outer core is a sphere of _______ nickel and iron, whereas the inner core is a sphere of _______ nickel and iron.

a)

solid, liquid

b)

liquid, solid

c)

only, no

d)

no, only

10.

What type of plate boundary is this?

a)

convergent

b)

divergent

c)

transform

d)

rift valley

11.

What type of plate boundary is this?

a)

convergent

b)

divergent

c)

transform

d)

rift valley

12.

What type of plate boundary is this?

a)

convergent

b)

divergent

c)

transform

d)

rift valley

13.

The Richter scale is used by scientists to measure the amount of energy (magnitude) release by a(n) _____.

a)

tornado

b)

hurricane

c)

earthquake

d)

tsunami

14.

What primarily causes a volcano to erupt?

a)

Clouds of ash, dust, and gases already moving through the atmosphere

b)

When underground rock suddenly breaks along a tectonic plate

c)

The pressure of the magma inside becomes so great that it blows open the solid surface inside of the volcano.

d)

Large, 30 m tall ocean waves crashing into the coastline

15.

In large volcanic eruptions, ash and gases can enter the atmosphere and reduce the amount of _____ that reaches Earth's surface.

a)

ash

b)

nitrogen

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

sunlight

16.

A physical layer, the _____ is the solid, outer layer of the Earth that consists of the crust and the rigid upper part of the mantle.

a)

lithosphere

b)

asthenosphere

c)

outer core

d)

inner core

17.

A physical layer, the ______ is the solid, pliable, flexible layer of the mantle beneath the lithosphere.

a)

mesosphere

b)

outer core

c)

inner core

d)

asthenosphere

18.

Smaller earthquakes that occur in the same area after a larger earthquake has occurred is/are _______________.

a)

tsunami

b)

aftershock

c)

liquification

d)

Richter

19.

The ______ is the point within the earth (under the surface) where an earthquake ruptures (directly below the epicenter)

a)

focus

b)

epicenter

c)

aftershock

d)

asthenosphere

20.

The _______ is the movement of matter due to differences in density that are caused by temperature variations and can result in the transfer of energy as heat.

a)

lithosphere

b)

fault

c)

focus

d)

convection current

21.

A(n) _____ is a break in Earth's crust along which blocks of the crust slide relative to one another.

a)

epicenter

b)

fault

c)

convection current

d)

aftershock

22.

A(n) _______ is a block of the lithosphere that consists of the crust and the rigid, outermost part of the mantle. These pieces glide on top of the asthenosphere.

a)

tectonic plate

b)

focus

c)

fault

d)

epicenter

23.

The _______ is the point on the Earth's surface vertically above the location under the surface where a seismic rupture begins.

a)

epicenter

b)

focus

c)

convection current

d)

asthenosphere

24.

Describe the local and global effects a volcano eruption can have on the environment.

4 lines
25.

What are the four main types of volcanoes?

4 lines
26.

An earthquake has just occurred and seismic waves radiating from the earthquake are detected at two recording stations. At Recording Station A, Δt = 90 s. At Recording Station B, Δt = 150 s. Which recording station is closer to the epicenter?

a)

Station A is closer to the epicenter than Station B.

b)

Station B is closer to the epicenter than Station A.

c)

Stations A and B are the same distance from the epicenter.

d)

Cannot be determined.

27.

An earthquake has just occurred and seismic waves radiating from the earthquake are detected at two recording stations. At Recording Station A, Δt = 150 s. At Recording Station B, Δt = 35 s. Which recording station is closer to the epicenter?

a)

Station A is closer to the epicenter than Station B.

b)

Station B is closer to the epicenter than Station A.

c)

Stations A and B are the same distance from the epicenter.

d)

Cannot be determined.

28.

What are some of the local and global effects an earthquake can have on the environment?

4 lines
29.

In general, the most destructive earthquake waves are the ___________.

a)

P waves

b)

S waves

c)

Surface waves

d)

Q waves

30.

With increasing travel time, the difference in arrival times between the P and S waves _________.

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

stays constant

d)

none of the options

31.

Earthquake A has a Richter magnitude of 7 as compared with earthquake B's 6. The amount of ground motion is one measure of earthquake intensity.

a)

A is 10x more intense than B

b)

A is 1000x more intense than B

c)

Richter magnitude does not measure intensity

d)

B is 0.01x as intense as A

32.

Body waves consist of

a)

P waves only

b)

S waves only

c)

Surface waves

d)

P waves and S waves

e)

P waves, S waves, and surface waves

33.

At least how many seismograph stations are needed to locate the epicenter of an earthquake?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

34.

How do rock particles move during the passage of a P wave through the rock?

a)

back and forth parallel to the direction of wave travel

b)

back and forth perpendicular to the direction of wave travel

c)

in a rolling circular motion

d)

the particles do not move

35.

Which of the following observations may indicate a forthcoming destructive earthquake?

a)

An increase in the frequency of smaller earthquakes in the region

b)

Rapid tilting of the ground

c)

Rapid changes in water levels in wells

d)

All of the options

36.

Which of the following statements best describes the state of earthquake prediction?

a)

Scientists can accurately predict the time and location of almost all earthquakes

b)

Scientists can accurately predict the time and location of about 50% of all earthquakes

c)

Scientists can accurately predict when an earthquake will occur, but not where

d)

Scientists can characterize the seismic risk of an area, but can not yet accurately predict most earthquakes

37.

Where is the focus of an earthquake with respect to the epicenter?

a)

Directly below the epicenter

b)

Directly above the epicenter

c)

In the P wave shadow zone

d)

In the S wave shadow zone

38.

Seismologists learn about the interior structure of the Earth through measurement of the speed and direction of _______.

a)

air particles

b)

ocean currents

c)

seismic waves

d)

crustal soil deposits

39.

What are the physical layers and compositional layers of the Earth? Can you diagram them?

4 lines
40.

What are the most geologically active regions of the Earth?

4 lines
41.

List the three plate boundaries and know how to draw them.

4 lines
42.

What physical structures or events do each of the plate boundaries cause?

4 lines
43.

In large volcanic eruptions, ash and gases can enter the atmosphere and reduce the amount of _____ that reaches Earth's surface.

a)

ash

b)

nitrogen

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

sunlight

44.

A warm air mass pushes into a cold air mass and then a cold air mass pushes into that warm air mass.

a)

stationary front

b)

cold front

c)

warm front

d)

occluded front

45.

A cold air mass pushes into a warm air mass.

a)

cold front

b)

warm front

c)

stationary front

d)

occluded front

46.

A warm air mass pushes into a cold air mass.

a)

occluded front

b)

warm front

c)

cold front

d)

stationary front

47.

Two masses of air push against the other, but neither is strong enough to move the other.

a)

cold front

b)

occluded front

c)

stationary front

d)

warm front

48.

Air pressure is determined by which three factors?

a)

convection, conduction, radiation

b)

psychrometer, barometer, thermometer

c)

isotherm, isobar, isoline

d)

temperature, altitude, moisture

49.

In a low pressure system in the northern hemisphere, which of the following occurs?

a)

cool air descends

b)

cool air rises

c)

warm air descends

d)

warm air rises

50.

____ is the amount of water vapor in the air.

a)

humidity

b)

dew point

c)

air pressure

d)

air mass

51.

______ is the temperature at which the air is saturated and may form liquid or frost.

a)

dew point

b)

humidity

c)

conduction

d)

convection

52.

In a high pressure system in the northern hemisphere, what happens?

a)

Cool air descends

b)

Warm air rises

c)

Warm air converges

d)

Rotates counterclockwise

53.

_____ is the amount of force that air in the atmosphere puts on an object.

a)

weather front

b)

air mass

c)

air pressure

d)

Coriolis Effect

54.

_________ is the energy that is transferred as electromagnetic waves, such as visible light and infrared waves

a)

radiation

b)

conduction

c)

convection

d)

ozone

55.

_______ is the movement of matter due to differences in density that are caused by temperature variations and can result in the transfer of energy as heat.

a)

conduction

b)

convection

c)

radiation

d)

air pressure

56.

_____ is a large volume of air in the atmosphere that is uniform in temperature and moisture.

a)

weather front

b)

air mass

c)

air pressure

d)

Coriolis Effect

57.

_____ is a transition zone between two different air masses at the earth's surface.

a)

weather front

b)

air mass

c)

air pressure

d)

Coriolis Effect

58.

_______ is the transfer of energy as heat through a material; involves collisions of atoms (physical contact) between two objects.

a)

humidity

b)

radiation

c)

convection

d)

conduction

59.

_____ is a gas molecule made up of three oxygen atoms.

a)

ozone

b)

air mass

c)

radiation

d)

convection

60.

Cold air can hold more water vapor than warm air.

a)

True

b)

False

61.

When they are heated, most materials expand, which causes them to be more dense.

a)

True

b)

False

62.

What is the dewpoint temperature when the dry-bulb temperature is 16 degrees C and the wet bulb temperature is 11 degrees C?

a)

5*C

b)

9*C

c)

7*C

d)

-17*C

63.

What is the relative humidity if the dry-bulb temperature is 22*C and the wet-bulb temperature is 17*C?

a)

5%

b)

14%

c)

60%

d)

68%

64.

Draw the layers of the atmosphere in the proper order and list one fact for each layer.

4 lines
65.

These air masses are generally very cold (below freezing) and form over the North or South Poles.

a)

Tropical

b)

Polar

c)

Arctic

66.

These air masses are generally hot and form over the equatorial region of the world.

a)

Tropical

b)

Polar

c)

Arctic

67.

These air masses are generally cool (but above freezing) and/or mild in temperature and form between 45* latitude and 75* latitude in both the Northern Hemisphere and the Southern Hemisphere.

a)

Tropical

b)

Polar

c)

Arctic

68.

These air masses contain much moisture, result in high levels of humidity. and form over the ocean.

a)

maritime

b)

continental

69.

These air masses are generally dry and are formed over continents.

a)

maritime

b)

continental

70.

For each of the following air masses, list an example location.

continental Tropical (cT)

maritime Tropical (mT)

continental Polar (cP)

maritime Polar (mP)

continental Arctic (cA)

maritime Arctic (mA)

4 lines
71.

What is the definition of an air mass?

a)

A small body of air with varying temperature, humidity, and pressure characteristics.

b)

A large body of air with varying temperature, humidity, and pressure characteristics.

c)

A large body of air with relatively uniform temperature, humidity, and pressure characteristics.

d)

A large body of water with relatively uniform temperature, humidity, and pressure characteristics.

72.

Explain the concept of density-driven movement of matter.

a)

The concept of density-driven movement of matter is the movement of substances or particles due to differences in their density.

b)

The concept of density-driven movement of matter is the movement of substances or particles due to differences in their temperature.

c)

The concept of density-driven movement of matter is the movement of substances or particles due to differences in their size.

d)

The concept of density-driven movement of matter is the movement of substances or particles due to differences in their color.

73.

How does the expansion of materials when heated affect their density?

a)

The expansion of materials when heated decreases their density.

b)

The expansion of materials when heated causes their density to remain constant.

c)

The expansion of materials when heated increases their density.

d)

The expansion of materials when heated has no effect on their density.

74.

What is the relationship between cold air and water vapor capacity?

a)

Cold air has a lower water vapor capacity compared to warm air.

b)

Water vapor capacity is not affected by the temperature of the air.

c)

Cold air has a higher water vapor capacity compared to warm air.

d)

Cold air and warm air have the same water vapor capacity.

75.

What happens in a high pressure system in the northern hemisphere?

a)

Air descends and converges counterclockwise

b)

Air rises and converges clockwise

c)

Air rises and diverges counterclockwise

d)

Air descends and diverges clockwise

76.

What happens in a high pressure system in the southern hemisphere?

a)

Air rises and converges counterclockwise

b)

Air rises and converges clockwise

c)

Air descends and diverges counterclockwise

d)

Air descends and diverges clockwise

77.

Where do hot air masses generally form and what is their characteristic?

a)

Near the poles and more dense than the surrounding air.

b)

Over the oceans and more dense than the surrounding air.

c)

Near the equator and less dense than the surrounding air.

d)

In the middle latitudes and less dense than the surrounding air.

78.

In which direction does the Coriolis effect deflect moving objects in the Northern Hemisphere? What about the Southern Hemisphere?

a)

Northward in both hemispheres.

b)

Southward in both hemispheres.

c)

Rightward in the Northern Hemisphere and leftward in the Southern Hemisphere.

d)

Leftward in the Northern Hemisphere and rightward in the Southern Hemisphere.

79.

How does the Coriolis effect affect weather systems, including the direction of winds and the rotation of cyclones and anticyclones?

a)

It makes weather systems move east to west.

b)

It influences wind direction and causes cyclones to rotate counterclockwise (Northern Hemisphere) and clockwise (Southern Hemisphere).

c)

It influences wind direction and causes cyclones to rotate clockwise (Northern Hemisphere) and counterclockwise (Southern Hemisphere).

d)

It causes winds to blow directly towards the equator.

80.

Why does the Coriolis effect become more pronounced as one moves closer to the poles and less pronounced near the equator?

a)

It is the same everywhere on Earth.

b)

Because the Earth's rotation is faster at the poles and slower at the equator.

c)

Because the Coriolis effect is only active in the polar regions.

d)

Because the equator has no Coriolis effect.

81.

What is the primary driving force behind global wind patterns?

a)

Ocean currents

b)

Solar radiation and temperature differences

c)

Earth's magnetic field

d)

Tectonic plate movements

82.

What weather phenomenon is often associated with the subtropical high-pressure belts?

a)

Frequent hurricanes

b)

Stormy weather and tornadoes

c)

Calm, clear skies

d)

Continuous rainfall

83.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the doldrums or the Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ)?

a)

Calm, light winds

b)

Frequent thunderstorms and heavy rainfall

c)

Strong, consistent winds

d)

Found near the equator

84.

How do the trade winds and westerlies differ in terms of their direction, location, and influence on weather patterns?

a)

Trade winds blow from east to west near the equator, while westerlies blow from west to east in the mid-latitudes, and both bring dry, sunny weather.

b)

Trade winds blow from west to east in the mid-latitudes, while westerlies blow from east to west near the equator, and both bring heavy rainfall.

c)

Trade winds blow from east to west near the equator, while westerlies blow from west to east in the mid-latitudes, and both play a role in the formation of hurricanes.

d)

Trade winds blow from north to south in the polar regions, while westerlies blow from south to north in the tropics, and both affect ocean currents.

85.

Air pressure is determined by which three factors?

a)

convection, conduction, radiation

b)

psychrometer, barometer, thermometer

c)

isotherm, isobar, isoline

d)

temperature, altitude, moisture

86.

____ is the amount of water vapor in the air.

a)

humidity

b)

dew point

c)

air pressure

d)

air mass

87.

______ is the temperature at which the air is saturated and may form liquid or frost.

a)

dew point

b)

humidity

c)

conduction

d)

convection

88.

_________ is the energy that is transferred as electromagnetic waves, such as visible light and infrared waves

a)

radiation

b)

conduction

c)

convection

d)

ozone

89.

_______ is the movement of matter due to differences in density that are caused by temperature variations and can result in the transfer of energy as heat.

a)

conduction

b)

convection

c)

radiation

d)

air pressure

90.

_______ is the transfer of energy as heat through a material; involves collisions of atoms (physical contact) between two objects.

a)

humidity

b)

radiation

c)

convection

d)

conduction

91.

What is a station model?

a)

a graphical template showing current weather conditions at a weather station

b)

a symbolic model projecting volcano eruption patterns

c)

a graphical template that shows earthquake recovery data

d)

a symbolic model showing the severity of hurricane damage

92.

Translate this station model.

4 lines
93.

Climate in a region is

a)

the long-term, prevailing atmospheric conditions.

b)

determined only by seasonal daylight hours.

c)

the atmospheric conditions on a given day.

d)

never affected by ocean currents.

94.

Explain the circulation patterns of air in the atmosphere.

4 lines
95.

What is the Coriolis Effect?

a)

The rotation of the Earth on its axis.

b)

The bending of ocean currents due to underwater topography.

c)

The deflection of moving objects caused by the Earth's rotation.

d)

The changing of seasons on Earth.

96.

T or F. The Coriolis Effect is stronger at the equator and decreases toward the poles.

a)

True

b)

False

97.

T or F. The Coriolis effect has a significant impact on the direction of short-distance movements, such as water draining from a sink.

a)

True

b)

False

98.

Which factor determines the strength of the Coriolis effect on an object?

a)

Object's mass

b)

Object's velocity

c)

Object's color

d)

Object's temperature

99.

What is a hydrogen bond? Explain and draw a diagram.

4 lines
100.

List the properties of water.

4 lines
101.

T or F. Water has a high specific heat.

a)

True

b)

False

102.

T or F. Water has a high heat of vaporization.

a)

True

b)

False

103.

T or F. Water is called the universal solvent, which means it can dissolve most polar or ionic substances.

a)

True

b)

False

104.

_____ is reduction in temperature due to increased movement of the particles in a liquid (converting to gaseous form), which removes heat from the surface of the substance the liquid is leaving

a)

Evaporative cooling

b)

Specific heat

c)

Cohesion

d)

Density

105.

____ is the sticking together of particles of different substances.

a)

Cohesion

b)

Adhesion

c)

Solute

d)

Solvent

106.

____ is the property of having a partial positive and partial negative charge on either side of the molecule.

a)

Density

b)

Solvent

c)

Polarity

d)

Surface tension

107.

____ the name of a substance when it is able to dissolve other substances.

a)

Specific heat

b)

Evaporative cooling

c)

Solute

d)

Solvent

108.

____ is the amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of 1 g of substance by 1 degree C.

a)

Evaporative cooling

b)

Specific heat

c)

Density

d)

Surface tension

109.

____ is the mass of a substance for a specific volume

a)

Density

b)

Solvent

c)

Solute

d)

Adhesion

110.

____ the name of a substance when it dissolves into another substance.

a)

Cohesion

b)

Solvent

c)

Solute

d)

Surface tension

111.

____ is the sticking together of particles of the same substance.

a)

Specific heat

b)

Cohesion

c)

Polarity

d)

Adhesion

112.

____ is the property of the top layer of a liquid that allows it to resist an external force, due to the cohesive nature of its molecules.

a)

Surface tension

b)

Evaporative cooling

c)

Polarity

d)

Specific heat

113.

What properties of water are most commonly attributed to causing molecules to bunch up like a bubble on a penny?

a)

specific heat and surface tension

b)

cohesion and surface tension

c)

heat of vaporization and cohesion

d)

surface tension and density

114.

What property of water allows it to form a meniscus in a beaker (the slight curve seen as water clings to the side of the glass and crawls up it)?

a)

cohesion and surface tension

b)

adhesion

c)

cohesion

d)

specific heat and surface tension

115.

Order the forms of water from the most dense to the least dense.

4 lines
116.

Order the forms of water from the least dense to the most dense.

4 lines
117.

Of the water on Earth, what percent is usable freshwater?

a)

3%

b)

5%

c)

15%

d)

30%

118.

What is the freezing point of water in degrees Celsius?

a)

0*C

b)

32*F

c)

100*C

d)

212*F

119.

What is the freezing point of water in degrees Fahrenheit?

a)

0*C

b)

32*F

c)

100*C

d)

212*F

120.

What is the boiling point of water in degrees Fahrenheit?

a)

0*C

b)

32*F

c)

100*C

d)

212*F

121.

What is the boiling point of water in degrees Celsius?

a)

0*C

b)

32*F

c)

100*C

d)

212*F

122.

Order the Earth's oceans (5 of them) from smallest to largest.

4 lines
123.

Order the Earth's oceans (5 of them) from largest to smallest.

4 lines
124.

T or F. Surface currents can be warm or cold water currents and are driven by wind.

a)

True

b)

False, they are always warm currents.

125.

T or F. Deep ocean currents are driven by wind.

a)

True

b)

False, they are driven by density differences and temperature.

126.

T or F. Water flows toward the highest point.

a)

True

b)

False, water flows towards the lowest point to establish equilibrium.

127.

T or F. Cold water is less dense than warm water.

a)

True

b)

False, cold water is more dense than warm water.

128.

Water with high salinity is less dense than water with low salinity.

a)

True

b)

False, water with high salinity is more dense than water with low salinity

129.

T or F. The deepest point of the ocean is called Challenger Deep and is found in the Mariana Trench.

a)

True

b)

False, the deepest point is called the Tonga Trench and is found in Horizon Deep.

130.

Salinity is ____ in places with much rain or in places where freshwater flows into the sea.

a)

lower

b)

higher

c)

insignificant

d)

warm

131.

Salinity is ____ in places where water evaporates quickly and leaves the salts behind.

a)

lower

b)

higher

c)

insignificant

d)

cold

132.

What are the three different temperature zones of the ocean? Draw a diagram and label.

4 lines
133.

Which is a major warm water surface current that flows along the eastern coast of North America?

a)

Coriolis Current

b)

Pacific Current

c)

Gulf Stream

d)

Equatorial Current

134.

Which key factors impact the density of ocean water?

a)

salinity and temperature

b)

temperature only

c)

salinity only

d)

temperature and wind patterns

135.

In the global conveyer belt, which of the following both drives the conveyer belt and collects the water at the floor of the Atlantic Ocean?

a)

North Atlantic Deep Water

b)

Florida Current

c)

Okhotsk Current

d)

South Indian Deep Water

136.

The sinking, cold water near the north geographic pole, pushes the deep ocean water south in a slow, deep, underwater current. At Antarctica, this current flows east and sometimes a little north and is called ______.

a)

Indonesian Circumpolar Current

b)

Antarctic Circumpolar Current

c)

Artic Circle

d)

Warm Antarctic Current

137.

As the waters travel through the ocean, the deep, cold current mixes with warmer water. What happens as this mixing occurs?

a)

The water warms up and sinks.

b)

The water warms up and rises.

c)

The water cools down more and sinks.

d)

The water cools down more and rises.

138.

The description of what occurs after the mixing of deeper, cold currents and warmer surface currents is ________.

a)

upwelling

b)

aquifer

c)

groundwater

d)

salinity

139.

What would happen if one part of the global conveyer belt broke down?

4 lines
140.

What are the 5 life zones of the ocean?

4 lines
141.

What are the parts of the ocean floor? Describe the ones we discussed in class.

4 lines
142.

Which of the following does NOT address how oceans affect climactic conditions on land?

a)

Water cools Earth because it reflects the most sunlight

b)

Oceans are the source of most water that falls as precipitation.

c)

Coastal areas have more moderate climates than inland areas.

d)

Ocean currents redistribute warm and cold masses of water.

143.

List the properties of water.

4 lines
144.

T or F. Water has a high specific heat.

a)

True

b)

False

145.

T or F. Water has a high heat of vaporization.

a)

True

b)

False

146.

T or F. Water is called the universal solvent, which means it can dissolve most polar or ionic substances.

a)

True

b)

False

147.

_____ is reduction in temperature due to increased movement of the particles in a liquid (converting to gaseous form), which removes heat from the surface of the substance the liquid is leaving

a)

Evaporative cooling

b)

Specific heat

c)

Cohesion

d)

Density

148.

____ is the sticking together of particles of different substances.

a)

Cohesion

b)

Adhesion

c)

Solute

d)

Solvent

149.

____ is the property of having a partial positive and partial negative charge on either side of the molecule.

a)

Density

b)

Solvent

c)

Polarity

d)

Surface tension

150.

____ the name of a substance when it is able to dissolve other substances.

a)

Specific heat

b)

Evaporative cooling

c)

Solute

d)

Solvent

151.

____ is the amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of 1 g of substance by 1 degree C.

a)

Evaporative cooling

b)

Specific heat

c)

Density

d)

Surface tension

152.

____ is the mass of a substance for a specific volume

a)

Density

b)

Solvent

c)

Solute

d)

Adhesion

153.

____ the name of a substance when it dissolves into another substance.

a)

Cohesion

b)

Solvent

c)

Solute

d)

Surface tension

154.

____ is the sticking together of particles of the same substance.

a)

Specific heat

b)

Cohesion

c)

Polarity

d)

Adhesion

155.

____ is the property of the top layer of a liquid that allows it to resist an external force, due to the cohesive nature of its molecules.

a)

Surface tension

b)

Evaporative cooling

c)

Polarity

d)

Specific heat

156.

What is the water distribution on Earth? (Think salt water vs. freshwater, types of freshwater and where it is stored, etc.)

4 lines
157.

T or F. Water flows toward the highest point.

a)

True

b)

False, water flows towards the lowest point to establish equilibrium.

158.

T or F. Cold water is less dense than warm water.

a)

True

b)

False, cold water is more dense than warm water.

159.

Water with high salinity is less dense than water with low salinity.

a)

True

b)

False, water with high salinity is more dense than water with low salinity

160.

Salinity is ____ in places with much rain or in places where freshwater flows into the sea.

a)

lower

b)

higher

c)

insignificant

d)

warm

161.

What are the 5 oceans of the world and how would they be organized largest to smallest or smallest to largest? (Be able to do both.)

4 lines
162.

Know the physical features of the ocean floor and be able to diagram them.

4 lines
163.
The law of superposition states ___________.
a)
the oldest rocks are on the bottom of a rock section unless there has been overturning or a disruption of the rock layer
b)
layers of rock are continuous until they encounter other solid bodies that block their deposition or until they are acted upon by agents that appeared after deposition took place
c)
layers of rock that are tilted now, must originally have been deposited flat
d)
an intrusion or fault is younger than the rocks that it cuts through
164.

The law of lateral continuity states ___________.

a)
the oldest rocks are on the bottom of a rock section unless there has been overturning or a disruption of the rock layer
b)
layers of rock are continuous until they encounter other solid bodies that block their deposition or until they are acted upon by agents that appeared after deposition took place
c)
layers of rock that are tilted now, must originally have been deposited flat
d)
an intrusion or fault is younger than the rocks that it cuts through
165.
The law of cross-cutting relationships states ________________.
a)
the oldest rocks are on the bottom of a rock section unless there has been overturning or a disruption of the rock layer
b)
layers of rock are continuous until they encounter other solid bodies that block their deposition or until they are acted upon by agents that appeared after deposition took place
c)
layers of rock that are tilted now, must originally have been deposited flat
d)
an intrusion or fault is younger than the rocks that it cuts through
166.

The law of original horizontality states ________________.

a)
the oldest rocks are on the bottom of a rock section unless there has been overturning or a disruption of the rock layer
b)
layers of rock are continuous until they encounter other solid bodies that block their deposition or until they are acted upon by agents that appeared after deposition took place
c)
layers of rock that are tilted now, must originally have been deposited flat
d)
an intrusion or fault is younger than the rocks that it cuts through
167.
An individual living thing.
a)
ecosystem
b)
organism
c)
species
d)
abiotic factor
168.
Prokaryotes that lived in extreme environments and are distinguished from the other prokaryote domain by differences in their genetics and makeup of their cell wall.
a)
archaea
b)
bacteria
c)
vertebrate
d)
invertebrate
169.
Extremely small, single-celled prokaryotes that have a cell wall and reproduce by cell dividion. Typically very common organisms that can be found in both soil and the human body.
a)
archaea
b)
bacteria
c)
gymnosperms
d)
angiosperms
170.
A woody vascular seed plant whose seeds are not enclosed by an ovary or fruit.
a)
angiosperm
b)
gymnosperm
c)
invertebrate
d)
vertebrate
171.
A flowering plant that produces seeds within a fruit.
a)

vertebrate

b)

bacteria

c)

angiosperm

d)

gymnosperm

172.

Which of the following are the three domains?

a)

archaea, bacteria, animalia

b)

plantae, fungi, bacteria

c)

bacteria, eukarya, fungi

d)

archaea, bacteria, eukarya

173.

Which time period is the first trilobite in?

a)

Silurian

b)

Ordovician

c)

Mississippian

d)

Permian

174.

Which time period is the second cephalopod in?

a)

Pennsylvanian

b)

Devonian

c)

Mississippian

d)

Permian

175.

Which of the following characteristics is shared by archaea, bacteria, fungi, and plants?

a)

They usually have cell walls.

b)

They have cell nuclei.

c)

They are single-celled.

d)

They have the ability to make their own food.

176.

What is the taxa classification system in order from most general classification to most specific classification?

4 lines
177.

List the four kingdoms of Eukarya.

4 lines
178.

One way that bacteria and fungi are important to the environment is that they ____.

a)

break down dead organisms

b)

are a major food source in many ecosystems

c)

they both contain a nucleus

d)

they are both part of the same kingdom

179.

What is an angiosperm? What is a gymnosperm? Describe them.

4 lines
180.

How are archaea and bacteria different from one another?

4 lines
181.

Explain the difference between a prokaryotic organism and a eukaryotic organism.

4 lines
182.

What are the roles played by prokaryotes in ecosystems?

4 lines
183.

How are protists organized in their kingdom?

4 lines
184.

What roles do protists play in their ecosystems? Explain.

4 lines
185.

What are some characteristics of fungi? How are they organized within their kingdom?

4 lines
186.

What roles do fungi play in an ecosystem? Explain.

4 lines
187.

What are some characteristics of plants? Explain. How are plants organized within their kingdom? Explain their groups.

4 lines
188.

How does pollination impact plant characteristics?

4 lines

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