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AQA Chemistry Paper 2 Mock

Total questions: 188

Worksheet time: 2hrs 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the name of the alkane with two carbon atoms?

a)

Ethane

b)

Methane

c)

Butane

d)

Propane

2.

What chemicals are found in crude oil?

a)

Methane only

b)

A mixture of compounds, which are mostly hydrocarbons

c)

A mixture of elements

d)

Carbon only

3.

What is the definition of a hydrocarbon?

a)

A compound made of hydrogen and carbon only

b)

A compound that includes hydrogen or carbon

c)

A mixture that includes hydrogen and carbon

d)

A mixture of hydrogen and carbon only

4.

What is the first stage in the fractional distillation of crude oil?

a)

Heating, to vaporise the hydrocarbons

b)

Heating, to make it a hot liquid

c)

Cooling it

d)

Separating the fractions

5.

What happens to the viscosity of hydrocarbons as the length of the molecule increases?

a)

Longer hydrocarbons are more viscous

b)

All hydrocarbons have the same viscosity

c)

Hydrocarbons aren’t viscous

d)

Shorter hydrocarbons are more viscous

6.

What compounds are produced in the complete combustion of hydrocarbons?

a)

Carbon dioxide and water

b)

Carbon monoxide and water

c)

Carbon dioxide and nitrogen

d)

Water and nitrogen

7.

The alkanes are a homologous series.

What is the general formula of the alkanes?

a)

n carbon atoms, 2n hydrogen atoms

b)

2n carbon atoms, n hydrogen atoms

c)

n carbon atoms, n+2 hydrogen atoms

d)

n carbon atoms, 2n+2 hydrogen atoms

8.

What property allows us to separate hydrocarbons during fractional distillation?

a)

Different hydrocarbons have different boiling points

b)

Different hydrocarbons have different melting points

c)

Different hydrocarbons are different colours

d)

Some hydrocarbons have a positive charge and others have a negative charge

9.

Which is the best description of fractional distillation?

a)

Breaking down longer hydrocarbon chains into smaller ones that are more useful

b)

Separating the hydrocarbons in crude oil into fractions, with each fraction containing molecules with a similar number of carbon atoms

c)

Pumping crude oil out from under the sea

d)

Ensuring resources are used to meet the needs of current generations without compromising the needs of future generations

10.

Crude oil is finite because we use it before more can be formed.

How was crude oil formed?

a)

From the remains of an ancient biomass, consisting mainly of plankton, that was buried in mud

b)

Mostly from the remains of dinosaur bones

c)

By fractional distillation

d)

By cracking

11.

Why, in terms of column temperature, do the fractions condense at different levels in the fractionating column?

a)

The column is hotter at the bottom and cooler at the top

b)

The column is cooler at the bottom and hotter at the top

c)

All the column is at the same temperature

d)

The column has a hotter section halfway up

12.

What happens to the boiling point and flammability of hydrocarbons as the length of the molecules increases?

a)

Longer hydrocarbons have lower boiling points and are less flammable

b)

Longer hydrocarbons have higher boiling points and are more flammable

c)

Longer hydrocarbons have lower boiling points and are more flammable

d)

Longer hydrocarbons have higher boiling points and are less flammable

13.

Hydrocarbons with shorter carbon chains are more flammable.

What does this make them useful for?

a)

Lubricants

b)

Fuels

c)

Plastics

d)

Feedstock

14.

How many carbon atoms and hydrogen atoms are there in propane?

a)

2 carbon atoms, 6 hydrogen atoms

b)

4 carbon atoms, 8 hydrogen atoms

c)

3 carbon atoms, 8 hydrogen atoms

d)

3 carbon atoms, 6 hydrogen atoms

15.

Put the two processes used in fractional distillation in the correct order.

a)

Evaporating and then melting

b)

Evaporating and then condensing

c)

Condensing and then evaporating

d)

Melting and then condensing

16.

Which substances can be produced from crude oil?

a)

Metal alloys and glass

b)

Glass and concrete

c)

Limestone and steel

d)

Kerosene and polymers

17.

What happens to carbon and hydrogen during combustion reactions?

a)

They are reduced

b)

They are oxidised

c)

They are cracked

d)

They are distilled

18.
What is the rate of a chemical reaction? Choose 2.
a)
How quickly the reactants in a reaction are used up
b)
How quickly the reactants in a reaction are made
c)
How quickly the products in a reaction are used
d)
How quickly the products in a reaction are formed
19.
How do we calculate mean rate of reaction?
a)
quantity of product made/time taken
b)
time taken/quantity of product made
20.
What are the two possible units for rate of reaction? Choose 2
a)

s/g

b)

g/m

c)

cm³/s

d)

g/s

e)
m/s
21.
On a rates graph, what type of line shows the reaction has ended?
a)
Sloped
b)
Curved
c)
Straight
d)
Vertical
e)
Horizontal
22.
What is "collision theory"?
a)
Reactions only occur when particles collide with sufficient energy
b)
Collisions occur when particles collide with no energy
c)
Collisions mean that particles hit each other gently
23.
What factors can affect the rate of a reaction? Choose 4
a)
Temperature
b)
Surface area of a solid
c)
Concentration in solution, pressure of gases
d)
Bigger beaker
e)
Pressure of gases
24.
State the effect of increasing the surface area on the rate of a reaction
a)
Increases
b)
Decreases
c)
Stays the same
25.
Why does increasing surface area increase the rate of a reaction?
a)
Less particles available to collide, so more frequent effective collisions.
b)
More particles available to collide, so more frequent effective collisions.
c)
Less particles available to collide, so less frequent effective collisions.
d)
More particles available to collide, so less frequent effective collisions.
26.
Increasing the concentration …........................ the rate of reaction
a)
Increases
b)
Decreases
c)
Stays the same
27.
Why does increasing concentration increase the rate of reaction?
a)
More particles in more space, so more frequent effective collisions.
b)
More particles in same space, so less frequent effective collisions.
c)
More particles in same space, so more frequent effective collisions.
28.
How does increasing gas pressure change the rate of reaction?
a)
Increases
b)
Decreases
c)
Stays the same
29.
Why does increasing gas pressure increase the rate of a reaction?
a)
Less space for the particles to move, therefore more frequent collisions
b)
More space for particles to move, so more collisions
30.
Increasing the temperature …....................... the rate of reaction
a)
Increases
b)
Decreases
c)
Stays the same
31.
What is the activation energy?
a)
The minimum energy a particle needs to react
b)
The maxmum energy a particle needs to react
32.
Why does increasing temperature increase the rate of reaction?
a)
Increases the speed at which particles move therefore more frequent effective collisions
b)
Increases the number of particles which have the activation energy therefore more collisions result in a reaction.
c)
Decreases the speed at which particles move therefore more frequent effective collisions
d)
Decreases the number of particles which have the activation energy therefore more collisions result in a reaction.
33.
What is a catalyst? Choose 2
a)
Something which decreases the rate of a reaction
b)
It is used up
c)
Something which increases the rate of a reaction
d)
It is not used up
34.
How do catalysts speed up reactions?
a)
They provide another route for the reaction
b)
They give particles more energy
c)

They increase surface area

d)
They lower activation energy
35.

Look at the graph. At what time does the reaction finish?

a)

4 minutes

b)

5 minutes

c)

6 minutes

d)

7 minutes

36.

What would the rate be if 10g of product are produced in 20 seconds?

a)

5 g/s

b)

0.5 g/s

c)

1.5 g/s

d)

2 g/s

37.

Increasing the pressure of a reaction in which reactants are gaseous will lead to the rate of reaction...

a)

... decreasing

b)

... increasing

38.

Sulfur dioxide (SO2) is

a)

a compound

b)

an element

c)

a mixture

39.

When the pressure of the gases is increased

a)

the rate of reaction decreased

b)

the rate of reaction stayed the same

c)

the rate of reaction increased

40.

Phosphoric acid is made by reacting phosphate rock with sulfuric acid.

Only three of the methods shown below will increase the rate of this reaction.

Put a tick next to each of the three methods that will increase the rate of this reaction.

a)

Use a more concentrated solution of sulfuric acid

b)

Use larger lumps of phosphate rock

c)

Cool the mixture of phosphate rock and sulfuric acid

d)

Grind the phosphate rock into a powder before adding the acid

e)

Increase the temperature of the sulfuric acid

41.
This symbol indicates that a reaction is ____________
a)
reversible
b)
irreversible
42.
When the rate of the forward reaction is equal to the rate of backward reaction, the system is said to be in
a)
Chemical Equilibrium
b)
Chemical Balance
c)
Stoichiometry
d)
Chemical Reaction
43.
What is the rate of reaction?
a)
How fast a reaction is 
b)
How big a reaction is
c)
How loud a reaction is
d)
How much gas a reaction produces
44.
What does collision thoery mean?
a)
How quickly particles collide
b)
How much energy colliding particles have
45.
In an exothermic reaction, heat is ...
a)
taken in
b)
given out
46.
In an endothermic reaction, heat is ,,,
a)
taken in
b)
given out
47.

Such reactions which continue in both directions are called:

a)

Irreversible reactions

b)

Reversible reactions

c)

Non-reactive reactions

d)

dynamic reactions

48.
If a reaction is reversible and has reached equilibrium, what can be said about the amounts of reactants and products?
a)
some reactant, some product
b)
no reactant, all product
c)
all reactant, no product
49.
This gas was in high concentrations in the early atmosphere, and later condensed to form Earth's oceans. 
a)
oxygen
b)
carbon dioxide
c)
sulfur oxides
d)
water vapor
50.
This gas was in high concentrations in the developing atmospheres and later dissolved into rainwater, added to the oceans, then settled to the bottom of the ocean. 
a)
oxygen
b)
carbon dioxide
c)
argon
d)
water vapor
51.
What gas were we missing in Earth's early atmosphere?
a)
carbon dioxide
b)
oxygen
c)
water vapor
d)
sulfur oxides
52.
What happened to the carbon dioxide that was dissolved in the early oceans?
a)
It evaporated
b)
It turned into sediment
c)
It was changed into oxygen
d)
I can't think of another good wrong answer
53.
Which gas in our atmosphere is most abundant?
a)
Argon
b)
Oxygen
c)
Nitrogen
d)
Carbon Dioxide
54.

What percentage of our atmosphere is made up of other gases such as argon, carbon dioxide, helium?

a)

<1%

b)

21%

c)

78%

d)

<0.1%

55.
What is the percentage of oxygen in Earth's atmosphere?
a)
1%
b)
21%
c)
78%
d)
90%
56.
What is the percentage of nitrogen in Earth's atmosphere?
a)
1%
b)
21%
c)
78%
d)
90%
57.
What causes acid rain?
a)
High concentrations of sulfuric or nitric acid from pollution
b)
Fertilizer use
c)
Pesticide use
d)
CFCs
58.
Dust, ash and pollen are examples of this air pollutant
a)
Lead
b)
Ground-level ozone
c)
Particulate matter
d)
Nitrogen oxides
59.
Combines with other pollutants to form acid rain
a)
Nitrogen oxides & sulfur dioxide
b)
Particulate matter & lead
c)
Nitrogen oxides & ground-level ozone
d)
Sulfur dioxide & ground-level ozone
60.
Source of carbon monoxide
a)
Incomplete combustion of fuel
b)
Combustion of fossil fuel
c)
Decomposition of plant and animal matters
61.
What process is the main contributor to the acid rain problem?
a)
Car exhaust
b)
Burning coal and oil
c)
Burning wood
d)
Air conditioners
62.
Who am I?
I am colorless and odorless, am formed from the incomplete combustion of fossil fuels, and have the ability to take oxygen's place on a hemoglobin molecule, disrupting its transport.
a)
NOx
b)
SO2
c)
CO
d)
CO2
63.

What are greenhouse gases?

a)

gases that warm the earth

b)

gases that emit green smoke

c)

Gases commonly found in greenhouses

d)

Gases that must all be removed from the atmosphere

64.
Visible light reaches Earth’s surface while infrared light is trapped as heat. Which characteristic of Earth’s atmosphere causes this to happen?
a)
the hole in the ozone
b)
the greenhouse effect
c)
atmospheric pressure
d)
the inversion layer
65.
The average temperature of the surface of Earth has increased approximately 1°C in the past century. Which reason best explains this increase in temperature?
a)
lower levels of ozone in the atmosphere
b)
lower levels of nitrogen in the atmosphere
c)
higher levels of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
d)
higher levels of oxygen in the atmosphere
66.
Which of the following is the best conclusion that can be made from this graph?
a)
atmospheric carbon dioxide levels have been decreasing since 1960
b)
Hawaii has a lot of carbon dioxide
c)
humans have been working hard to decrease carbon dioxide levels
d)
atmospheric carbon dioxide levels have increased steadily since 1960
67.
Which of the following gases DOES NOT trap heat?
a)
carbon dioxide
b)
nitrogen
c)
water vapor
d)
methane
68.
Which of the following have been linked to climate change?  
a)
droughts
b)
flooding
c)
melting of polar ice caps
d)
all of the above
69.
The main human activity that releases greenhouse gases is
a)
using bottled water
b)
burning fossil fuels
c)
texting on cellphones
d)
eating meat
70.
Which of the following is contributing to an increase in carbon dioxide in the atmosphere?
a)
deforestation
b)
photosynthesis
c)
oceans
d)
all of the above
71.
Carbon is stored in
a)
Trees and other living things
b)
Oceans
c)
underground in soil and fossil fuels
d)
All are correct
72.

The radiation re-emitted from the earth's surface has a ______________ wavelength than the radiation received from the sun

a)

Shorter

b)

Longer

c)

Equal

73.

What objects gave the Earth its first atmosphere

a)

Plants

b)

Algae

c)

Volcanos

d)

Humans

74.

State the name of the process that increased the levels of oxygen in Earth's early atmosphere

a)

Photosynthesis

b)

Respiration

c)

Combustion

d)

Breathing

75.

State what gas ammonia and methane reacted with, removing them from the earth's early atmosphere

a)

Nitrogen

b)

Carbon dioxide

c)

Water

d)

Oxygen

76.

Explain why there is so much nitrogen in the Earth's atmosphere

a)

because it is unreactive

b)

because it is very light

c)

it is produced when ammonia breaks down in the atmosphere

d)

it was produced by volcanoes

77.

For the last ............. .......... ........... the proportion of gases in the atmosphere has been much the same

a)

200 million years

b)

800 million years

c)

1 billion years

d)

200 billion years

78.

The current proportion of gases is approximately

a)

20% nitrogen, 80% oxygen and small proportions of various other gases.

b)

80% nitrogen, 20% oxygen and small proportions of various other gases.

c)

70% nitrogen, 30% oxygen and small proportions of various other gases.

d)

30% nitrogen, 70% oxygen and small proportions of various other gases.

79.

The early atmosphere of Earth contained gases due to ...

a)

Plant life

b)

Algae

c)

Volcanic activity

d)

Dinosaurs

80.

The Early atmosphere of Earth was similar to that of ................... .... .............. today

a)

Mars and Venus

b)

Neptune and Mercury

c)

Uranus and Mars

d)

Venus and Jupiter

81.

What was the composition of Earth's early atmosphere?

a)

Mostly methane, little to no carbon dioxide

b)

Mostly oxygen, little to no carbon dioxide

c)

Mostly nitrogen, some oxygen

d)

Mostly carbon dioxide, little to no oxygen

82.

True or false. Volcanoes produced carbon dioxide, water vapour, methane and ammonia.

a)

True

b)

False

83.

Oceans could only form when............

a)

the boiling point of water changed

b)

the melting point of water changed

c)

the Earth cooled enough

d)

photosynthesis began

84.

The carbon dioxide in the early atmosphere reduced due to it .........

a)

dissolving in oceans

b)

forming carbonates in water

c)

forming sedimentary rocks such as limestone

d)

photosynthesising plants

e)

All of the previous points

85.

Oxygen in the atmosphere increased due to .....

a)

Respiration

b)

Photosynthesis

c)

Distillation

d)

Evaporation

86.

Which is the correct equation for photosynthesis?

a)

carbon dioxide + oxygen → glucose + water

b)

carbon dioxide + water→ glucose + oxygen

c)

carbon dioxide + glucose → water + oxygen

87.

How did the evolution of plants change the composition of the atmosphere?

a)

Increase carbon dioxide and decrease oxygen

b)

Decrease carbon dioxide and increase oxygen

88.

Why are greenhouse gases important?

a)

They maintain temperature to support life

b)

They maintain atmospheric pressure to support life

c)

They maintain oxygen concentration to support life

d)

All of the previous answers.

89.

Which of the following are greenhouse gases?

a)

Water vapour, oxygen and methane.

b)

Oxygen, carbon dioxide and methane.

c)

Water vapour, carbon dioxide and oxygen.

d)

Water vapour, carbon dioxide and methane.

90.

As humans, we contribute to global warming by burning fossil fuels and deforestation which releases ..............

a)

Carbon dioxide

b)

Methane

91.

As humans, we contribute to global warming by over farming cattle and growing rice in paddy fields which releases ..............

a)

Carbon dioxide

b)

Methane

92.

Greenhouse gases warm up the lower atmosphere by.......

a)

Absorbing infrared radiation

b)

Reflecting infrared radiation into space

c)

Passing radiation of almost all wavelengths down to Earth

93.

Define carbon footprint.

a)

The carbon footprint is the total amount of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases emitted over a person's lifetime.

b)

The carbon footprint is the total amount of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases emitted over a company's lifetime.

c)

The carbon footprint is the total amount of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases emitted over the full life cycle of a product, service or event.

94.

What two products are produced in incomplete combustion but not complete combustion?

a)

Water and carbon dioxide

b)

Carbon and carbon monoxide

c)

Water and carbon monoxide

d)

Water and carbon

95.

The element ............... can be found as an impurity in fuels which can contribute to acid rain.

a)

Carbon

b)

Hydrogen

c)

Nitrogen

d)

Sulfur

96.

Which of the following are properties of carbon monoxide?

a)

Odourless, colourless and toxic

b)

Odourless, black and toxic

c)

Odourless, colourless and non-toxic

d)

Odourless, black and non-toxic

97.

Sulfur dioxides and nitrogen oxides

a)

Cause respiratory problems

b)

Cause acid rain

c)

Both

98.

Particulates cause ..............

a)

Global warming

b)

Global dimming

c)

Global epidemics

99.

What is the name of the alkane with two carbon atoms?

a)

Ethane

b)

Methane

c)

Butane

d)

Propane

100.

What chemicals are found in crude oil?

a)

Methane only

b)

A mixture of compounds, which are mostly hydrocarbons

c)

A mixture of elements

d)

Carbon only

101.

What is the definition of a hydrocarbon?

a)

A compound made of hydrogen and carbon only

b)

A compound that includes hydrogen or carbon

c)

A mixture that includes hydrogen and carbon

d)

A mixture of hydrogen and carbon only

102.

What is the first stage in the fractional distillation of crude oil?

a)

Heating, to vaporise the hydrocarbons

b)

Heating, to make it a hot liquid

c)

Cooling it

d)

Separating the fractions

103.

What happens to the viscosity of hydrocarbons as the length of the molecule increases?

a)

Longer hydrocarbons are more viscous

b)

All hydrocarbons have the same viscosity

c)

Hydrocarbons aren’t viscous

d)

Shorter hydrocarbons are more viscous

104.

What compounds are produced in the complete combustion of hydrocarbons?

a)

Carbon dioxide and water

b)

Carbon monoxide and water

c)

Carbon dioxide and nitrogen

d)

Water and nitrogen

105.

The alkanes are a homologous series.

What is the general formula of the alkanes?

a)

n carbon atoms, 2n hydrogen atoms

b)

2n carbon atoms, n hydrogen atoms

c)

n carbon atoms, n+2 hydrogen atoms

d)

n carbon atoms, 2n+2 hydrogen atoms

106.

What property allows us to separate hydrocarbons during fractional distillation?

a)

Different hydrocarbons have different boiling points

b)

Different hydrocarbons have different melting points

c)

Different hydrocarbons are different colours

d)

Some hydrocarbons have a positive charge and others have a negative charge

107.

Which is the best description of fractional distillation?

a)

Breaking down longer hydrocarbon chains into smaller ones that are more useful

b)

Separating the hydrocarbons in crude oil into fractions, with each fraction containing molecules with a similar number of carbon atoms

c)

Pumping crude oil out from under the sea

d)

Ensuring resources are used to meet the needs of current generations without compromising the needs of future generations

108.

Crude oil is finite because we use it before more can be formed.

How was crude oil formed?

a)

From the remains of an ancient biomass, consisting mainly of plankton, that was buried in mud

b)

Mostly from the remains of dinosaur bones

c)

By fractional distillation

d)

By cracking

109.

Why, in terms of column temperature, do the fractions condense at different levels in the fractionating column?

a)

The column is hotter at the bottom and cooler at the top

b)

The column is cooler at the bottom and hotter at the top

c)

All the column is at the same temperature

d)

The column has a hotter section halfway up

110.

What happens to the boiling point and flammability of hydrocarbons as the length of the molecules increases?

a)

Longer hydrocarbons have lower boiling points and are less flammable

b)

Longer hydrocarbons have higher boiling points and are more flammable

c)

Longer hydrocarbons have lower boiling points and are more flammable

d)

Longer hydrocarbons have higher boiling points and are less flammable

111.

Hydrocarbons with shorter carbon chains are more flammable.

What does this make them useful for?

a)

Lubricants

b)

Fuels

c)

Plastics

d)

Feedstock

112.

How many carbon atoms and hydrogen atoms are there in propane?

a)

2 carbon atoms, 6 hydrogen atoms

b)

4 carbon atoms, 8 hydrogen atoms

c)

3 carbon atoms, 8 hydrogen atoms

d)

3 carbon atoms, 6 hydrogen atoms

113.

Put the two processes used in fractional distillation in the correct order.

a)

Evaporating and then melting

b)

Evaporating and then condensing

c)

Condensing and then evaporating

d)

Melting and then condensing

114.

Which substances can be produced from crude oil?

a)

Metal alloys and glass

b)

Glass and concrete

c)

Limestone and steel

d)

Kerosene and polymers

115.

What happens to carbon and hydrogen during combustion reactions?

a)

They are reduced

b)

They are oxidised

c)

They are cracked

d)

They are distilled

116.

What do human’s use the Earth’s resources for?

a)

Warmth

b)

Shelter

c)

Food

d)

Transport

e)

All of the above

117.

What should drinking water have low levels of?

a)

Dissolved salts and microbes

b)

Carbon dioxide

c)

Oxygen

118.

What is potable water?

a)

Dirty water

b)

Expensive water

c)

Water that is safe to drink

119.

Is potable water pure?

a)

No

b)

Yes

120.

What two things can we use as sterilising agents?

a)

Chlorine

b)

Fluorine

c)

UV light

d)

Bleach

121.

What is desalination?

a)

Adding salt from water

b)

Removing salt from water

122.
River water is filtered then sterilised to make drinking water. Why is it filtered?
a)
kills bacteria
b)
removes solids
c)
removes dissolved salts
d)
adds chlorine
e)
removes germs
123.
River water is filtered then sterilised to make drinking water. Why is it sterilised?
a)
kills bacteria
b)
removes solids
c)
removes dissolved salts
d)
adds chlorine
e)
removes germs
124.
Why is distilling sea water to make drinking water expensive?
a)
uses a lot of chemicals
b)
it's slow
c)
needs expensive equipment
d)
takes lots of time
e)
takes a lot of energy
125.
Give a difference between pure and potable water?
a)
Pure water is suitable for drinking
b)
Potable water contains dissolves solids & chlorine
c)
Pure water contains dissolved solids & chlorine
d)
Potable water is not safe to drink
126.
The percentage by mass of dissoved solids in a 12g sample is 3.4%. What is the mass to 2sf?
a)
0.40g
b)
42g
c)
0.41g
d)
0.408g
e)
42.3g
127.
Give an advantage of recycling copper ore
a)
Increases greenhouse gases
b)
More jobs for miners
c)
Increases landfill
d)
Conserves copper ore
e)
Requires more energy
128.
Which of these is a reason for using paper bags over plastic?
a)
Stronger
b)
Stretchier
c)
Renewable resource
d)
Non-recyclable
e)
Non-biodegradable
129.
Which of these is a way of conserving limited resources?
a)
Reverse
b)
Release
c)
Reverse
d)
Reuse
e)
Repair
130.
Which is a method of water treatment?
a)
Anaerobic digestion
b)
Cracking
c)
Electrolysis
d)
Phytomining
e)
Desalination
131.

Which is not a reason why iron should be recycled?

a)

saves resources

b)

saves energy

c)

decreases waste

d)

decreases CO2 released

e)

quicker

132.
What does a LCA assess?
a)
the carbon footprint
b)
the energy needed for a process
c)
the pollution
d)
the sustainability of a product
e)
the environmental impact of a product
133.

Give one way that CO2 emissions can be reduced when manufacturing a plastic bottle?

a)

use recycled plastic

b)

recycle the bottle

c)

use thicker plastic

d)

burn it afterwards

e)

sell it locally

134.

(HT ONLY) Which is not a reason why biological methods are used to extract metals?

a)

Cheaper

b)

Ores are becoming scarce

c)

Low grade ore can be used

d)

Mining not required

e)

Produces less greenhouse gases

135.

(HT ONLY) Which of these do bioleaching and phytomining have in common?

a)

Done by bacteria

b)

Done by plants

c)

Involves burning

d)

Slow process

e)

Done on contaminated land

136.

(HT ONLY) Using plants to extract metals is called….

a)

phytomining

b)

photosynthesis

c)

polymerisation

d)

bioleaching

e)

bioaccumulation

137.

(HT ONLY) Using bacteria to extract metals is called….

a)

phytomining

b)

photosynthesis

c)

polymerisation

d)

bioleaching

e)

bioaccumulation

138.
How do you test for hydrogen gas?
a)
Relight a glowing splint
b)
Makes a squeaky pop with a lit splint
c)
Turns limewater milky
d)
Bleaches damp limtus paper
139.
How do you test for oxygen gas?
a)
Makes a squeaky pop with a lit splint
b)
Relights a glowing splint
c)
Bleaches damp litmus paper
d)
Turns limewater milky
140.
How do you test for carbon dioxide gas?
a)
Turns limewater milky
b)
Relights a glowing splint
c)
Makes a squeaky pop with a splint
d)
Bleaches damp litmus paper
141.
How do you test for Chlorine gas?
a)
Bleaches damp litmus paper
b)
Makes a squeaky pop with a lit splint
c)
Relights a glowing splint
d)
Turns limewater milky
142.
Which gas bleaches a damp litmus paper ?
a)
Hydrogen
b)
Ammonia
c)
Chlorine
d)
Carbondioxide
143.

To test for gas is to

a)

observe the colour and odour of the gas

b)

test with litmus paper

c)

carry out specific test to identify gas

d)

all of the above

144.

Define "compound"

a)

Two or more elements chemically bonded together

b)

Two or more elements or compounds not chemically bonded together

c)

one element or compounds only

d)

two atoms chemically bonded

145.

Define "mixture"

a)

Two or more elements chemically bonded together

b)

Two or more elements or compounds not chemically bonded together

c)

one element or compounds only

d)

two atoms chemically bonded

146.

Define a pure substance

a)

Two or more elements mixed together

b)

Two or more elements or compounds not chemically bonded together

c)

One element or compound only

d)

A solid

147.

How do you calculate Rf value in chromatography?

a)
b)
c)
d)
148.

what is the stationary phase in chromatography?

a)

Beaker

b)

Solvent

c)

Paper

d)

Water

149.

what is the mobile phase in chromatography?

a)

Beaker

b)

Solvent

c)

Paper

d)

Substance

150.

What is a formulation?

a)

A pure substance

b)

A mixture

c)

A pure substance which has been designed as a useful product.

d)

A mixture which has been designed as a useful product.

151.

How can you identify a pure substance?

a)

Pure substances melt and boil over a range of temperatures

b)

Pure substances have fixed, known boiling points and melting points.

c)

Pure substances are clear

d)

It says pure on the label

152.

What is a formulation?

a)

A simple mixture designed as an useless product

b)

A complex mixture designed as a useful product

c)

A simple mixture

153.

Name some examples of formulations

a)

medicines

b)

pure gold

c)

pure acid

154.

What is the mobile phase?

a)

paper

b)

beaker

c)

ink

d)

water

155.

Look the middle image. is it pure or impure?

a)

pure

b)

impure

156.

Look at the right image. Is it a a pure or impure substance?

a)

pure

b)

impure

157.

Why must the start line be drawn in pencil?

a)

pencil does not dissolve in to the water

b)

pencil dissolves in to the water

c)

pencil will separate out

158.
The physical separation of mixtures into individual components is..
a)
chromatography
b)
opacity 
c)
latent
d)
trace evidence 
159.
The diagram below shows a chromatogram obtained when a sample X was analysed together with four other known dyes P, Q, R and S. Dye Q was known to cause cancer. Which of the following dye(s) is/are safe for use?
a)
P only
b)
S only
c)
P and S
d)
P and X
160.
The retention factor is used
a)
to zero the chromatography scale
b)
to identify unknown compounds in a sample
c)
to retain solvent
d)
as a starting tool for chromatography
161.

What colour precipitate do chloride ions produce?

a)

White

b)

Cream

c)

Yellow

d)

Green

162.

What is the test for hydrogen?

a)

turns limewater cloudy

b)

relights a glowing splint

c)

bleaches damp litmus paper white

d)

makes a squeaky pop

163.

What is the test for chlorine?

a)

turns limewater cloudy

b)

relights a glowing splint

c)

bleaches damp litmus paper white

d)

makes a squeaky pop

164.

What is the test for oxygen?

a)

turns limewater cloudy

b)

relights a glowing splint

c)

bleaches damp litmus paper white

d)

makes a squeaky pop

165.

What is the test for carbon dioxide?

a)

turns limewater cloudy

b)

relights a glowing splint

c)

bleaches damp litmus paper white

d)

makes a squeaky pop

166.

What colour do sodium ions go in a flame test?

a)

Red

b)

Yellow

c)

Brick-red

d)

Lilac

167.

Which two solutions are added to test for the presence of halide ions?

a)

Silver chloride and nitric acid

b)

Barium chloride and hydrochloric acid

c)

Silver nitrate and nitric acid

d)

Barium chloride and sulphuric acid

168.

What colour precipitate to iodide ions form?

a)

White

b)

Cream

c)

Yellow

d)

Green

169.

Which ion produces a brick-red colour in a flame test?

a)

Sodium

b)

Calcium

c)

Copper

d)

Lithium

170.

Copper (II) ions form what colour precipitate test?

a)

Blue

b)

Green

c)

Red/Brown

d)

Cream

171.

What colour precipitate to bromide ions form?

a)

White

b)

Cream

c)

Yellow

d)

Green

172.

What colour precipitate does barium sulphate form?

a)

White

b)

Green

c)

Yellow

d)

Cream

173.

When a student adds a dilute hydrochloric acid to a sample of sodium sulfite to detect the sulfite ion, a colorless gas with a very irritating odor is evolved.What is the name of this gas?

a)

Sulfur dioxide gas

b)

Hydrogen gas

c)

Sulfur monoxide gas

d)

Hydrogen sulfide gas

174.

Suggest two reasons why platinum is a suitable metal to use as the wire in flame test.

4 lines
175.

Why is a luminous Bunsen flame not suitable for carrying out a flame test?

4 lines
176.

To test for metal ions add a few drops of sodium hydroxide and if COPPER II ions are present

a)

The precipitate will be blue

b)

The precipitate will be green

177.

To test for metal ions add a few drops of sodium hydroxide and if IRON II ions are present

a)

green

b)

blue

178.

To test for metal ions add a few drops of sodium hydroxide and if IRON III (3+) ions are present the precipitate will be

a)

blue

b)

green

c)

brown

179.

To test for metal ions add a few drops of sodium hydroxide and if Aluminium 3+ ions are present

a)

the solution will become white but redissolve in excess NaOH

b)

the solution will be white

c)

the solution will be green

180.

To test for magnesium ions add a few drops of sodium hydroxide and if Magnesium ions are present the solution will go

a)

brown

b)

blue

c)

white

d)

silver

181.

The state symbol for a precipitate is

a)

(L)

b)

(s)

c)

(aq)

d)

(g)

182.

Sodium hydroxide is added to a solution of an unknown metal ion. At first a white precipitate forms which redissolves with excess NaOH. The unknown ion is....

a)

calcium

b)

Magnesium

c)

Aluminium

d)

Iron III

183.

Sodium hydroxide is added to a solution of an unknown metal ion. At first a white precipitate forms which does NOT redissolves with excess NaOH. The unknown ion is....

a)

iron III

b)

magnesium

c)

calcium

d)

iron II

184.

To test for metal ions add a few drops of sodium hydroxide and if calcium ions are present

a)

The precipitate will be white

b)

The precipitate will be blue

c)

The precipitate will be red

d)

The precipitate will be brown

185.

Sodium hydroxide is added to a solution of an unknown metal ion. A Blue precipitate forms. The unknown ion is....

a)

magnesium

b)

calcium

c)

copper II

d)

brown

186.

Sodium hydroxide is added to a solution of an unknown metal ion. A brown precipitate forms. The unknown ion is....

a)

Copper

b)

Iron II

c)

Iron III

d)

Magnesium

187.

Sodium hydroxide is added to a solution of an unknown metal ion. A blue precipitate forms. The unknown ion is....

a)

Calcium

b)

Aluminium

c)

Iron III

d)

Copper II

188.

If you add sodium hydroxide solution to a solution containing calcium ions a white precipitate will form

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

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