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Q2 Foundation Doc Biology

Total questions: 111

Worksheet time: 2hrs 47mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

distributes oxygen and nutrients to cells all over the body and carries carbon dioxide and waste away from the cells.

a)

Circulatory System

b)

Respiratory

c)

Digestive System

d)

Nervous System

e)

Muscular System

2.

absorbs oxygen gas (O2) into the body which is needed for cellular respiration.

a)

Circulatory System

b)

Respiratory

c)

Digestive System

d)

Nervous System

e)

Muscular System

3.

releases carbon dioxide gas (CO2) from of the body.

a)

Circulatory System

b)

Respiratory

c)

Digestive System

d)

Nervous System

e)

Muscular System

4.

breaks down food and absorbs nutrients needed for the growth and repair of the body.

a)

Circulatory System

b)

Respiratory

c)

Digestive System

d)

Endocrine System

e)

Muscular System

5.

It is aided by bacteria that live in the intestines and help break down complex nutrients.

a)

Circulatory System

b)

Respiratory

c)

Digestive System

d)

Endocrine System

e)

Muscular System

6.

responds to stimuli from inside and outside the

body.

a)

Circulatory System

b)

Muscular System

c)

Skeletal System

d)

Nervous System

e)

Integumentary System

7.

It controls the body’s actions and its responses to any

changes. All five senses are part of the nervous system.

a)

Circulatory System

b)

Muscular System

c)

Skeletal System

d)

Nervous System

e)

Integumentary System

8.

Hormones are chemical signals produced by the glands of the _______________. Hormones help maintain homeostasis and control growth and development.

a)

Circulatory System

b)

Muscular System

c)

Skeletal System

d)

Nervous System

e)

Endocrine System

9.

Skin is the primary organ of the

a)

Integumentary System

b)

Muscular System

c)

Skeletal System

d)

Nervous System

e)

Immune System

10.

serves as a protective barrier around your body preventing

water loss and helping to control body temperature.

a)

Integumentary System

b)

Muscular System

c)

Skeletal System

d)

Nervous System

e)

Immune System

11.

The bones of the _____________ provide the structure and support needed for movements and protect your internal organs. Bones store minerals and produce blood cells in the bone marrow.

a)

Integumentary System

b)

Muscular System

c)

Skeletal System

d)

Circulatory System

e)

Immune System

12.

responsible for all of the body’s movements, both voluntary

(jumping, chewing, walking, etc.) and involuntary (breathing,

stomach churning, heart pumping, etc.).

a)

Integumentary System

b)

Muscular System

c)

Skeletal System

d)

Circulatory System

e)

Immune System

13.

made of white blood cells and antibodies that protect your body from infection. HIV attacks a special type of white blood cell called a T helper cell.

a)

Integumentary System

b)

Muscular System

c)

Skeletal System

d)

Circulatory System

e)

Immune System

14.

Produces the gamete cells needed for sexual reproduction inside the gonads (testes or ovaries). The male gamete cells are called sperm, and the female gamete cells are called eggs.

a)

Excretory System

b)

Endocrine System

c)

Reproductive System

d)

Circulatory System

e)

Immune System

15.

As this fluid passes through lymph nodes, white

blood cells attack and kill parasites found in the fluid.

a)

Excretory System

b)

Endocrine System

c)

Lymphatic System

d)

Circulatory System

e)

Immune System

16.

removes fluid from around cells and returns it to the circulatory system.

a)

Excretory System

b)

Endocrine System

c)

Lymphatic System

d)

Circulatory System

e)

Immune System

17.

removes waste from the body and helps the body maintain homeostasis by preventing the buildup of excess fluid and solid material within the body.

a)

Excretory System

b)

Endocrine System

c)

Reproductive System

d)

Circulatory System

e)

Digestive System

18.
Which of the following best describes a DNA molecule?
a)
double helix
b)
contains ribose
c)
made of amino acids
d)
contains Uracil
19.

The information in DNA is written according to the genetic code and carried by the -

a)

sequence of nitrogen bases/nucleotides

b)

direction of the phosphate groups

c)

hydrogen bonds between nitrogen bases

d)

enzymes which unwind the double helix

20.

The genetic code describes the way that information is coded in DNA. This code is -

a)

unique to organisms like a fingerprint

b)

similar between closely related organisms

c)

determined by organism’s environment

d)

the same among all living organisms

21.

The genetic code seems to suggest that all organisms are related. This conclusion is based on the fact that –

a)

all living things have unique coding systems

b)

each species has some form of a code

c)

every living thing uses the same code

d)

living things pass DNA to offspring

22.

The three parts of a nucleotide are:

a)

Ribose sugar, phosphate group, nitrogenous base

b)

Hydrogen bond, Deoxyribose sugar, nitrogenous base

c)

Deoxyribose sugar, phosphate group, nitrogen base

d)

Glucose sugar, phosphate group, nitrogen base

23.

Every nucleotide has ___________ parts

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

24.

Nucleic acids like DNA are long chains of:

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Proteins

c)

Nucleotides

d)

Lipids

25.

What holds the strands of DNA together?

a)

Sugar phosphate backbone

b)

Nitrogenous bases

c)

Hydrogen bonds

d)

Nucleotides

26.

What provides the shape and structure of DNA?

a)

Hydrogen bonds

b)

Double helix

c)

Nitrogenous bases

d)

The sugar-phosphate backbone

27.

What is the shape of DNA called?

a)

A twisted ladder

b)

X-ray

c)

Sugar Phosphate

d)

Double Helix

28.

Which nitrogen base pairs with A?

a)

A

b)

T

c)

C

d)

G

29.

Which nitrogen base pairs with G?

a)

A

b)

T

c)

G

d)

C

30.

What carries the instructions for specific traits?

a)

the sequence of nucleotides

b)

the double helix shape

c)

the sugar phosphate backbone

d)

the number of proteins

31.

The information in DNA is written according to the genetic code and carried by the -

a)

sequence of nitrogen bases/nucleotides

b)

direction of the phosphate groups

c)

hydrogen bonds between nitrogen bases

d)

enzymes which unwind the double helix

32.

What is a change to the sequence of nucleotides in DNA called?

a)

Foundation

b)

Simulation

c)

Mutation

d)

Remediation

33.

What causes an insertion mutation?

a)

Adding nucleotide bases

b)

Removing nucleotide bases

c)

Replacing nucleotide bases

d)

Shortening nucleotide bases

34.

What causes a deletion mutation?

a)

Adding nucleotide bases

b)

Removing nucleotide bases

c)

Replacing nucleotide bases

d)

Shortening nucleotide bases

35.

What causes a substitution mutation?

a)

Adding nucleotide bases

b)

Removing nucleotide bases

c)

Replacing nucleotide bases

d)

Shortening nucleotide bases

36.

Mutations can cause codon sequences to be incorrect. What does this change?

a)

The DNA

b)

The RNA

c)

The amino acids that make a protein

d)

The carbohydrates

37.

What is a silent mutation?

a)

An insertion to a sequence of amino acids

b)

A deletion to a sequence of amino acids

c)

No change to a sequence of amino acids

d)

A replacement to a sequence of amino acids

38.

What is a frameshift mutation?

a)

A silent mutation that causes no change

b)

An insertion or deletion that changes the reading frame of a gene

c)

Adding a new frame to the gene

d)

A stop codon causes the gene to be shorter than normal

39.

Any mutation to the DNA can be passed on to that organism's offspring.

a)

True

b)

False

40.

Only mutations to what cells will be passed on to offspring?

a)

Brain Cell

b)

Skin Cell

c)

Eye cell

d)

Gamete Cell

41.

Inherited diseases are the result of what?

a)

Changes to the DNA

b)

Meiosis

c)

Mitosis

d)

Cellular Division

42.

Mutations are also a source of what?

a)

Sexual reproduction

b)

Genetic Variation

c)

Cloning

d)

Asexual reproduction

43.
Identify the mutation in the picture.
a)
Inversion
b)
Deletion
c)
Duplication
d)
Translocation
44.
Identify the mutation in the picture.
a)
Inversion
b)
Duplication
c)
Deletion
d)
Translocation
45.
Identify the mutation in the picture.
a)
Deletion
b)
Inversion
c)
Duplication
d)
Translocation
46.
What process occurs during meiosis that can result in chromosomal disorders?
a)
crossing over
b)
non-disjunction
c)
anaphase I
d)
prophase II
47.
What type of chromosomal mutation has occurred?
a)
substitution
b)
insertion
c)
deletion
d)
nondisjunction
48.
What mutation has occurred here? 
T-G-A-C-C-A
T-G-A-G-C-A
a)
Substitution
b)
Deletion
c)
Insertion
d)
Frameshift 
49.
DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG
The mutated DNA segment is TTCGCAAG. This is an example of ___ mutation.
a)
Substitution
b)
Deletion
c)
Insertion
d)
Inversion
50.

What term does this image represent?

a)

Insertion

b)

Inversion

c)

Translocation

d)

Nondisjunction

e)

Duplication

51.

A certain mutation in the gene for hemoglobin results in the red blood cells becoming sticky, rigid, and irregularly shaped. These irregularly shaped red blood cells block the flow of blood throughout the body. A single base mutation is responsible for these irregularly shaped blood cells.


Which of these mutations most likely results in the mutated hemoglobin gene?

a)

Insertion

b)

Deletion

c)

Duplication

d)

Substitution

52.

Which of the following is a true statement about the process of Transcription?

a)

Transcription is a process in which information from DNA is copied into mRNA. The product of Transcription is mRNA.

b)

Transcription is a process in which mRNA is decoded into proteins. The product of Transcription are proteins.

53.

What process is this?

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

54.

What process is this?

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

55.

What process is this?

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

56.

Using a codon chart, what does the codon GUC translate into?

a)

Leucine

b)

Lysine

c)

Valine

d)

Alanine

57.

Using a codon chart, what does the codon UAA translate into?

a)

Leucine

b)

Stop

c)

Valine

d)

Tyrosine

58.

Using a codon chart, what does the codon AUG translate into?

a)

Methionine

b)

Stop

c)

Valine

d)

Isoleucine

59.

What is the product of Translation?

a)

mRNA

b)

proteins

60.

Which process is defined as copying information in DNA so that it can be used by the cell?

a)

Replication

b)

Transcription

c)

Translation

d)

Mutation

61.

What is the product of transcription?

a)

DNA

b)

mRNA

c)

Uracil

d)

Proteins

62.

How is base pairing in RNA different than DNA?

a)

A pairs with C

b)

A pairs with U

c)

C pairs with T

d)

G pairs with A

63.

Which cellular process turns the genetic code into a sequence of amino acids?

a)

Replication

b)

Transcription

c)

Translation

d)

Mutation

64.

The product of Translation is:

a)

DNA

b)

mRNA

c)

Uracil

d)

Proteins

65.

Proteins are made of:

a)

nucleic acids

b)

sugars

c)

lipids

d)

amino acids

66.

Which organelle makes proteins?

a)

nucleus

b)

ribosomes

c)

endoplasmic reticulum

d)

the cell membrane

67.

The purpose of cellular division is to create what?

a)

Four identical daughter cells

b)

Two identical daughter cells

c)

Gamete cells

d)

Skin cells

68.

Repeated cell divisions help an organism do what?

a)

reproduce

b)

create proteins

c)

grow

d)

communicate

69.

What percent of the cell cycle is spend in interphase?

a)

10%

b)

50%

c)

90%

d)

100%

70.

Interphase contains the G1, S, and G2 phases. G stands for gap, but also what other process that occurs during the g stage?

a)

Grunt

b)

Go

c)

Gain

d)

Growth

71.

What is the purpose of a checkpoint during the cell cycle?

a)

To ensure that daughter cells are healthy and functional

b)

To create additional proteins

c)

To slow down the cycle

d)

To allow communication with the cell membrane

72.

What does the "S" in S phase stand for?

a)

Sign

b)

Synchronize

c)

Super

d)

Synthesis

73.

What is created during the S phase?

a)

A second set of DNA

b)

A new cellular membrane

c)

Additional proteins

d)

mRNA

74.

How many complete sets of DNA exist after the S phase?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

4

d)

0

75.

What is the purpose of mitosis?

a)

To allow new cells to create proteins

b)

To synthesize a new set of DNA

c)

To allow each new daughter cell to have a complete set of DNA

d)

To allow cells to grow before separating

76.

What are the four stages of mitosis?

a)

1,2,3,4

b)

Prophase, Monotone, Anaphase, Telephone

c)

Protest, Metalphase, Anniephase, Telophase

d)

Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase

77.

What occurs during prophase?

a)

Spindle fibers attach to chromosomes and line them up

b)

Spindle fibers separate the chromosomes into two sets

c)

Chromosomes condense and the nucleus dissolves

d)

Nuclei reform around each set of DNA

78.

What occurs during metaphase?

a)

Spindle fibers attach to chromosomes and line them up

b)

Spindle fibers separate the chromosomes into two sets

c)

Chromosomes condense and the nucleus dissolves

d)

Nuclei reform around each set of DNA

79.

What occurs during anaphase?

a)

Spindle fibers attach to chromosomes and line them up

b)

Spindle fibers separate the chromosomes into two sets

c)

Chromosomes condense and the nucleus dissolves

d)

Nuclei reform around each set of DNA

80.

What occurs during telophase?

a)

Spindle fibers attach to chromosomes and line them up

b)

Spindle fibers separate the chromosomes into two sets

c)

Chromosomes condense and the nucleus dissolves

d)

Nuclei reform around each set of DNA

81.

When does cytokinesis occur?

a)

After prophase

b)

After Telophase

c)

After Anaphase

d)

After Metaphase

82.

Every cell in your body contains a full set of DNA.

a)

True

b)

False

83.

Gene expression is regulated, which means it is controlled by the:

a)

Brain

b)

Skin

c)

Heart

d)

Cell

84.

Stem cells are undifferentiated. They can later transform/specialize/differentiate into a specialized cell.

a)

True

b)

False

85.

What disease can occur if the cell cycle is disrupted?

a)

HIV

b)

Measles

c)

Diabetes

d)

Cancer

86.

When cells divide too rapidly, they can create:

a)

Tumors

b)

Blisters

c)

Pustules

d)

Nodules

87.

What is a change to the sequence of nucleotides in DNA called?

a)

Foundation

b)

Simulation

c)

Mutation

d)

Remediation

88.

Meiosis is important to the reproduction of organisms. Meiosis prevents the accumulation of extra genetic material by producing -

a)

haploid gamete cells

b)

mutations that destroy extra DNA

c)

genetically identical daughter cells

d)

offspring through asexual reproduction

89.

Meiosis benefits a population by allowing for sexual reproduction. Unlike asexual reproduction, sexual reproduction actively increases the amount of –

a)

autosomal DNA

b)

genetic variations

c)

available nutrients

d)

dominant alleles

90.

Animals that reproduce sexually differ from animals that reproduce asexually in that sexually reproducing animals have

a)

a larger number of offspring

b)

more genetic variation among their offspring

c)

offspring that are nearly identical to their parents

d)

offspring that are perfectly adapted to their parent’s habitat

91.

Which situation is a result of crossing-over during meiosis?

a)

Genes are duplicated exactly, ensuring that offspring will be identical to the parents.

b)

Chromatids thicken and align themselves, helping to ensure genetic continuity.

c)

Genes are rearranged, increasing the variability of offspring.

d)

Chromatids fail to sort independently, creating abnormal chromosome numbers.

92.

Crossing-over most commonly results in

a)

new species

b)

new populations

c)

new combination of genes

d)

new numbers of chromosomes

93.

The diagram above shows the process of meiosis. The segregation that occurs during meiosis results in a -

a)

decrease in the number of cells per organism

b)

reduction in the number of chromosomes per cell

c)

single fertilized egg cell

d)

group of genetically identical cells

94.
What causes genetic variation in meiosis?
a)
chromosomes lining up
b)
crossing over of chromosomes
c)
separation of chromosomes
d)
chromosomes pulling apart
95.
How many alleles (letters) do each person carry for a trait?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
96.
Dominant alleles are represented by a:
a)
Male gene
b)
lowercase letter
c)
recessive trait
d)
capital letter
97.
Aa, DD, bB, yy are all examples of
a)
genotypes
b)
phenotypes
98.
In a heterozygous genotype, the ___________ allele takes over in the phenotype.
a)
recessive
b)
dominant
c)
lower case letter
d)
both 
99.
What you see, or the physical appearance.
a)
Genotype
b)
Phenotype
c)
Homozygous
d)
Heterozygous
100.
T - tall and t = short
In the punnett square below, what belongs in the missing square
a)
tt
b)
Tt
c)
Bb
d)
TT
101.
Aa is
a)
homozygous
b)
heterozygous
102.
What ratio of the offspring from the cross shown will be homozygous recessive for the  trait of tallness? 
a)
0 in 4
b)
1 in 4
c)
2 in 4
d)
4 in 4
103.
What percentage of the offspring will have this recessive disease?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
104.
What do we use pedigrees for?
a)
To look at families
b)
To make determinations about the offspring
c)
To track traits in families
d)
Nothing
105.
This is an example of ___________?
a)
Incomplete dominance
b)
Co-Dominance
106.
If you cross a black chicken with a white chicken, only checkered chickens would be produced.  What kind of inheritance pattern does this follow?
a)
incomplete Dominance
b)
Co-Dominance
107.

What type of inheritance pattern is shown here?

a)

Codominance

b)

Incomplete Dominance

108.
What are the possible genotypes for this cross?
a)
TT = 25% Tt= 50% tt=25%
b)
all tall
c)
TT= 75% tt = 25%
d)
Tt = 100%
109.

the science that studies how traits are inherited through the interactions of alleles

a)

heredity

b)

genetics

c)

biology

110.

blue eyes, curly hair

a)

genotype

b)

phenotype

111.

the weaker trait; you need 2 genes for the trait to show up in an organism

a)

dominant

b)

recessive