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A&P Exam 2 (Ch 4, 5, 6): Cell, Tissue and integumentary sys

Total questions: 263

Worksheet time: 2hrs 12mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What unit of measurement is often used to measure cell size?

a)

Millimeter

b)

Micrometer

c)

Hectometer

d)

Centimeter

2.

The microscope of choice for a detailed three-dimensional study of the surface of a specimen is the

a)

scanning electron microscope.

b)

transmission electron microscope.

c)

light microscope.

d)

telescope.

3.

An image produced by passing visible light through a specimen is obtained using the

a)

transmission electron microscope.

b)

light microscope.

c)

scanning electron microscope.

d)

dissecting scope.

e)

ocular examination method.

4.

Some of the largest spherical cells in the human body (for example, oocytes) have a diameter of approximately

a)

1 nm.

b)

1 cm.

c)

1 μm.

d)

100 nm.

e)

100 μm.

5.

The shape of skeletal muscle cells is described as

a)

columnar.

b)

biconcave.

c)

cylindrical.

d)

spherical.

e)

irregular.

6.

Another name for the intracellular fluid is

a)

cytosol.

b)

interstitial fluid.

c)

intercellular matrix.

d)

cytoplasm.

e)

cisternae.

7.

Which is not considered part of the cytoplasm?

a)

Cytosol

b)

Nucleus

c)

Organelles

d)

Inclusions

8.

The _______ is responsible for forming the outer, limiting barrier of a cell.

a)

peroxisome

b)

ribosome

c)

mitochondrion

d)

plasma membrane

e)

centrosome

9.

The largest internal cellular structure is known as the ______ and is the cell's control center.

a)

Golgi apparatus

b)

nucleus

c)

lysosome

d)

cytosol

e)

smooth ER

10.

Which is a non-membrane-bound organelle?

a)

Microtubule

b)

Lysosome

c)

Golgi apparatus

d)

Rough endoplasmic reticulum

e)

Mitochondrion

11.

The pigment melanin is a(n)

a)

membrane-bound organelle.

b)

non-membrane-bound organelle.

c)

inclusion.

d)

nutrient.

e)

triglyceride.

12.

If the nutrient glycogen is found stored inside a cell, it is considered a(n)

a)

inclusion.

b)

membrane-bound organelle.

c)

non-membrane-bound organelle.

d)

pigment.

13.

Which of the following choices describes three general functions cells must perform?

a)

Maintain shape, obtain nutrients, and dispose of wastes

b)

Respond to all hormones, maintain a waterproof barrier, give rise to gametes

c)

Grow until dividing, store complex carbohydrates, generate antibodies

d)

Take up oxygen, prevent water entry, undergo mitosis frequently

14.

The lipid that stabilizes the membrane at extreme temperatures and is found in the hydrophobic regions of the bilayer is

a)

the polar head.

b)

the nonpolar tails.

c)

cholesterol.

d)

glycolipid

e)

glycocalyx.

15.

The most abundant lipid of the membrane consists of a head and two tails. This type of lipid is

a)

a phospholipid.

b)

cholesterol.

c)

glycolipid.

d)

glycoprotein.

e)

a steroid.

16.

Glycolipids are found on the

a)

outer layer of the cell membrane, and they help make the sticky sugar coating on its surface.

b)

middle layer of the cell membrane, and they function to transmit solutes through the membrane.

c)

inner layer of the cell membrane, and they provide scaffold support to the cell membrane.

d)

inside of the cell, where they are a source of high energy nutrition to power mitochondria.

17.

Proteins that are embedded within, and extend across, the phospholipid bilayer are called _____ proteins.

a)

catalytic

b)

integral

c)

cytoskeleton

d)

peripheral

e)

transport

18.

Proteins that assist the movement of a substance across the membrane are called _________ proteins.

a)

catalytic

b)

cytoskeleton

c)

transport

d)

identification

e)

intercellular attachment

19.

Movement of a substance from an area of higher concentration to one where it is less concentrated is known as

a)

equilibrium.

b)

active transport.

c)

diffusion.

d)

facilitation.

e)

selective transport.

20.

Diffusion rate is fastest when the concentration gradient is

a)

steepest and temperature is highest.

b)

s

c)

s

d)

s

21.

Which is a passive transport process?

a)

Osmosis

b)

z

c)

z

d)

z

22.

Channel-mediated diffusion is a subtype of

a)

facilitated diffusion.

b)

s

c)

s

d)

s

23.

The movement of glucose across a plasma membrane is achieved by

a)

facilitated diffusion.

b)

s

c)

s

d)

s

24.

When a small, polar solute binds to a membrane protein that then changes shape and transports the solute across the membrane, the process is known as

a)

carrier-mediated diffusion.

b)

s

c)

s

d)

s

25.

Consider a cell with a total internal solute concentration of 0.9%. Placing the cell in which bath solution would result in creation of the greatest osmotic pressure in the cell?

a)

0.5% NaCl

b)

s

c)

s

d)

s

26.

When a cell is placed in a solution with a very low solute concentration, water diffuses into the cell. Such a solution is called a(n) _________ solution.

a)

hypotonic

b)

s

c)

s

d)

s

27.

Cell shrinking, also known as crenation, occurs when a cell is placed into a(n) _________ solution.

a)

hypertonic

b)

s

c)

s

d)

s

28.

The sodium-potassium ATPase functions by performing

a)

primary active transport.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

29.

Coupled transport that involves the moving of one substance against its concentration gradient by using energy from a second substance moving down its concentration gradient is known as

a)

secondary active transport.

b)

s

c)

s

d)

s

30.

The release of neurotransmitter from a neuron is an example of

a)

exocytosis and it requires expenditure of ATP.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

31.

The uptake of cholesterol into cells is an example of

a)

receptor-mediated endocytosis.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

32.

When a cell surrounds a large particle with pseudopodia and then engulfs it, the process is called

a)

phagocytosis.

b)

s

c)

s

d)

s

33.

Pinocytosis is the process in which the cell

a)

interalizes ("drinks") a droplet of interstitial fluid.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

34.

When fertilization occurs, the sperm recognizes the egg by

a)

the unique glycocalyx on the egg's surface.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

35.

When ligands bind to them, ___________ receptors directly phosphorylate enzymes within the cell.

a)

enzymatic

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

36.

Which choice describes the activation steps of a G protein-coupled receptor properly (and in correct order)?

a)

Ligand binds to receptor, G protein activated, effector protein activated, second messenger made available

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

37.

The _________ are responsible for synthesizing most of a human body cell's ATP.

a)

mitochondria

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

38.

Identify the organelle that provides enzymes for autolysis.

a)

v

b)

Lysosomes

c)

v

d)

v

39.

Which of the following structures function in holding organelles in place, maintaining cell shape and rigidity, and directing organelle movement?

a)

Microtubules

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

40.

Which is an active transport process?

a)

Ion pump

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

41.

Which of the following factors influence cell membrane permeability?

a)

Phospholipid composition of the membrane

b)

Ionic charge along the membrane

c)

Presence or absence of transport proteins

d)

Molecule size

e)

*All of the choices are correct.

42.

Exocytosis occurs as a result of

a)

the expenditure of energy in the form of ATP.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

43.

In order to process digested nutrients and detoxify chemical agents such as drugs and alcohol, the ______ contains abundant amounts of smooth ER.

a)

liver

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

44.

Which is not a membrane-bound organelle?

a)

Endoplasmic reticulum

b)

Lysosome

c)

Golgi apparatus

d)

Peroxisome

e)

*All of the choices are membrane-bound organelles.

45.

Removal of old organelles is via a process called

a)

autophagy.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

46.

Catalase-containing peroxisomes are most abundant in ______ cells.

a)

liver

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

47.

The folds of the internal membrane of a mitochondrion are called

a)

cristae.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

48.

The organelles responsible for organizing microtubules that are part of the mitotic spindle are called

a)

centrioles.

b)

s

c)

s

d)

s

49.

In humans, the only cell that bears a flagellum is the ________ cell.

a)

sperm

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

50.

Which of the following serve to increase the surface area of a cell for absorption and secretion?

a)

Microvilli

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

51.

Because they produce ribosome subunits, one would expect to find large numbers of nucleoli in cells that synthesize

a)

proteins

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

52.

Which are the smallest components of the cytoskeleton?

a)

Microfilaments

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

53.

These junctions hold adjacent cells together and provide resistance to mechanical stress.

a)

Desmosomes

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

54.

Mucus is moved along the lining of the trachea by extensions from cell membranes known as

a)

cilia.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

55.

The building blocks that form the DNA double helix are called

a)

nucleotides.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

56.

Which is not one of the bases found in DNA nucleotides?

a)

Diamine

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

57.

The function of the nucleolus is to make

a)

the subunits of ribosomes.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

58.

The nuclear envelope consists primarily of

a)

two phospholipid bilayers.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

59.

Which statement is accurate?

a)

A sequence of nucleotides in DNA constitutes a gene; DNA and associated proteins form chromatin.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

60.

During transcription

a)

an RNA molecule is formed as a DNA sequence is read.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

61.

Which of the following is considered a required enzyme for the process of transcription?

a)

RNA polymerase

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

62.

If the sequence of DNA nucleotides being read is TTACTG, then transcription results in the formation of the sequence

a)

AAUGAC

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

63.

The term "codon" refers to

a)

a three-base sequence of mRNA.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

64.

a three-base sequence of mRNA.

a)

the tRNA exits the ribosome.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

65.

Which of the following shows the correct sequence of mitosis?

a)

Prophase - metaphase - anaphase - telophase

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

66.

The phase of mitosis that begins as spindle fibers pull sister chromatids apart at the centromere is

a)

anaphase.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

67.

The phase of mitosis that begins with the arrival of a group of single-stranded chromosomes at each pole of the cell is

a)

telophase.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

68.

Which does not occur during the G2 phase?

a)

Each DNA molecule replicates.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

69.

The last part of interphase is called

a)

the second "gap" phase.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

70.

The replication of a DNA molecule during interphase occurs during the

a)

S phase.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

71.

Cytokinesis usually begins before ________ ends.

a)

anaphase

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

72.

Which is not characteristic of a cell undergoing apoptosis?

a)

No exceptions; all of these are characteristic of a cell undergoing apoptosis.

b)

Chromatin degradation

c)

Shrinkage in volume

d)

Abnormal development in organelle structure

e)

Abnormal development in plasma membrane structure

73.

The term "flagellum" is appropriate for the structure it represents because it means

a)

a whip.

b)

s

c)

s

d)

s

74.

The potential across a cell membrane has changed drastically, from -90mV to +30mV. In other words,

a)

there is a positive charge on the inside of the cell, relative to the outside.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

75.

To maintain a resting membrane potential, the sodium-potassium pump

a)

actively transports 3 sodium ions out of the cell and 2 potassium ions into the cell.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

76.

Which type of protein is used by cells of the immune system to distinguish normal cells from foreign or infected cells?

a)

Identity markers

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

77.

During osmosis, water moves toward the solution with the _________ solute concentration.

a)

Greater

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

78.

Osmosis is the diffusion of

a)

v

b)

water across a membrane.

c)

d

d)

d

79.

The sodium-potassium pump moves

a)

d

b)

sodium out of the cell and potassium into the cell.

c)

d

d)

d

80.

Epithelial tissue tends to be richly innervated and highly regenerative.

a)

True

b)

s

c)

s

d)

s

81.

Which tissue type covers body surfaces and lines the inside of organs and body cavities?

a)

Epithelial

b)

s

c)

s

d)

s

82.

In what tissue would you expect to find very little, if any, extracellular matrix?

a)

s

b)

Epithelial Tissue

c)

s

d)

s

83.

Which feature is not characteristic of epithelial tissue?

a)

Large amount of extracellular matrix

b)

s

c)

s

d)

s

84.

Which of the following is not a function of epithelial tissue?

a)

No exceptions; these are all functions of epithelial tissue

b)

s

c)

s

d)

s

85.

Groups of similar cells and extracellular products that carry out a common function are called

a)

tissues.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

86.

Which is avascular (lacks blood vessels)?

a)

Epithelial tissue

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

87.

What specialized feature of an epithelium consists of a reticular lamina, a lamina densa, and a lamina lucida?

a)

Basement membrane

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

88.

A _____________ epithelium consists of a single layer of flattened cells attached directly to a basement membrane.

a)

simple squamous

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

89.

Which type of epithelium is composed of multiple layers, including an apical layer containing tall, slender cells?

a)

Stratified columnar

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

90.

The walls of kidney tubules are formed by _____________ epithelium, which functions in resorbing materials filtered from blood plasma such as nutrients, ions, and water.

a)

s

b)

s

c)

s

d)

simple cuboidal

91.

Which of the following is not lined by nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium?

a)

Small intestine

b)

s

c)

s

d)

s

92.

Microscopic folds that extend from the apical surface of certain epithelia to increase the surface area for absorption and secretion are called

a)

microvilli.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

93.

If you gently rub your thumb and forefinger together, each finger is contacting

a)

d

b)

keratinized stratified squamous epithelium.

c)

d

d)

d

94.

Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium is found lining

a)

portions of the respiratory system.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

95.

The type of epithelium that lines the urinary bladder and may include some binucleated cells is called ____________ epithelium.

a)

transitional

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

96.

What type of epithelium would be most suited for high levels of diffusion and filtration?

a)

Simple squamous

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

97.

The lining of the air sacs in the lungs (alveoli) is comprised of what epithelium?

a)

Simple squamous

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

98.

Which type of epithelial tissue would be the least protective?

a)

Simple squamous

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

99.

Epithelial tissues have an attached (basal) border and a free (apical) border. This arrangement is known as

a)

polarity.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

100.

In nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelial tissue, the cells in the superficial layers are dead.

a)

d

b)

False

c)

d

d)

d

101.

Exocrine glands secrete hormones into the blood.

a)

False

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

102.

If you were to rub your finger over the surface of your face, you would notice that the skin is oily. What makes up the oil?

a)

Ruptured cells from sebaceous glands

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

103.

You would most likely find goblet cells in what type of tissue?

a)

Epithelial tissue

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

104.

If a person were unable to form saliva, what type of gland could be missing or malfunctioning?

a)

Merocrine glands

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

105.

When mucin mixes with water, it becomes

a)

mucus.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

106.

Which of the following is not secreted by glands?

a)

DNA

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

107.

Endocrine glands

a)

lack ducts and secrete their products into the bloodstream or into interstitial fluid.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

108.

The type of exocrine gland in which the entire cell disintegrates, liberating any accumulated products, is the __________ gland.

a)

holocrine

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

109.

Endocrine glands secrete

a)

hormones.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

110.

An exocrine gland has two parts:

a)

a duct and a secretory portion.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

111.

Which primary tissue type would be represented by blood, body fat, ligaments and tendons, dermis of the skin, and the cartilage of some joints?

a)

Connective tissue

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

112.

Which of the primary tissue types is most widely distributed throughout the body?

a)

Connective

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

113.

All connective tissues have three features in common. They are

a)

cells, protein fibers, and ground substance.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

114.

In connective tissue, the extracellular matrix consists of

a)

protein fibers and ground substance.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

115.

All connective tissue is formed from which embryonic germ layer?

a)

Mesoderm

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

116.

Which is the first type of connective tissue to form in the embryo and the source of all other adult connective tissues?

a)

Mesenchyme

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

117.

Mesenchyme is found only in the umbilical cord.

a)

False

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

118.

Which cell type, found in connective tissue proper and close to blood vessels, secretes heparin and histamine?

a)

Mast cell

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

119.

Which cell type, found in connective tissue proper, is formed from monocytes and serves to phagocytize damaged cells or pathogens?

a)

Macrophage

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

120.

Glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) are polysaccharides.

a)

TRUE

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

121.

Which type of connective tissue protein fiber forms a meshlike framework that provides structural support within many organs (within the spleen, for example)?

a)

Reticular fibers

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

122.

Fibronectin is an example of a(n)

a)

adherent glycoprotein.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

123.

Connective tissue proper is divided into two broad categories: loose connective tissue and dense connective tissue. This classification is based upon the

a)

relative proportions of cells, fibers, and ground substance present.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

124.

Many connective tissues play a role in immune protection.

a)

True

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

125.

Which type of connective tissue is found in the papillary layer of the dermis and contains all of the cell types of connective tissue proper?

a)

Areolar

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

126.

Which type of connective tissue predominates in the deep portion of the dermis, where it lends strength to the skin?

a)

Dense irregular

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

127.

The most common type of cartilage, named for its glassy appearance, is

a)

hyaline cartilage.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

128.

Which feature is found in both cartilage and bone?

a)

Lacuna

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

129.

The internal feature of bone that makes it simultaneously strong and lightweight is the

a)

latticework structure of spongy bone.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

130.

What unit of bone consists of a central canal (containing blood vessels, nerves, and lymph vessels) surrounded by concentric rings of calcified matrix?

a)

Osteon

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

131.

Some bone interiors contain hemopoietic tissue, which functions in

a)

producing blood cells.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

132.

Plasma is

a)

a liquid ground substance containing dissolved proteins.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

133.

There are four types of body membranes. Select the exception.

a)

Cartilaginous

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

134.

The type of membrane that prevents desiccation, provides lubrication, and traps bacteria and foreign particles is

a)

mucous.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

135.

*The largest of the body membranes, commonly called the skin, is the _______ membrane.

a)

cutaneous

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

136.

*The heart is confined within a double-walled serous membrane sac. The part of the membrane that is in contact with the heart is the _____ layer.

a)

visceral

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

137.

*Synovial membranes are composed of areolar connective tissue covered with _________ epithelial cells.

a)

squamous

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

138.

*The type of membrane that lines many of the body's joints is a _________ membrane.

a)

synovial

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

139.

*The type of muscle that has elongated, multinucleated cells and is under voluntary control is __________ muscle.

a)

skeletal

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

140.

Cardiac muscle is also known as visceral muscle.

a)

False

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

141.

What type of muscle contains intercalated discs?

a)

Cardiac

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

142.

The type of muscle that is found in blood vessel walls is __________ muscle.

a)

smooth

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

143.

Dendrites

a)

transmit signals TOWARD the cell body.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

144.

Axons

a)

transmit signals AWAYfrom the cell body.

b)

s

c)

s

d)

s

145.

Glial cells transmit impulses.

a)

False

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

146.

The nucleus of a neuron is found in its

a)

cell body.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

147.

Some neurons are longer than 1 meter.

a)

True

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

148.

The general name given to the phenomenon that occurs when a mature epithelium changes to a different form is

a)

metaplasia.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

149.

All muscle tissue develops from mesoderm.

a)

True

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

150.

Which list is in correct developmental order?

a)

Zygote, blastocyst, embryo

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

151.

The epithelial linings of the respiratory and digestive systems develop from the

a)

endoderm.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

152.

When hyperplasia proceeds out of control, a tumor may develop. This condition is termed

a)

neoplasia.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

153.

Hyperplasia is an increase in the number of cells in a tissue.

a)

True

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

154.

Shrinkage of tissue by a decrease in either cell number or cell size is termed

a)

atrophy.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

155.

With age, connective tissues

a)

lose their pliability and resiliency.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

156.

With age, epithelial tissues

a)

become thinner.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

157.

With age, bones

a)

become brittle.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

158.

The two types of cells that make up the nervous system are

a)

neurons and glial cells

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

159.

Where in the body would you find a glial cell?

a)

In the nervous system

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

160.

The primary role of epithelial tissue in the stomach is

a)

secretion of substances for chemical digestion.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

161.

An organ is made up of only one tissue type; for example, the heart is made of cardiac muscle.

a)

False

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

162.

Suppose that you had a congenital condition that prevented your body from forming holocrine glands. If that were the case, which statement would be most accurate?

a)

Your skin would become excessively dry for lack of oil from sebaceous glands.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

163.

Mucous connective tissue is found only in

a)

the umbilical cord.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

164.

Which connective tissue cells produce antibodies?

a)

Plasma cells

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

165.

What is the most abundant protein in the body, forming about 25% of all body protein?

a)

Collagen

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

166.

What feature of your ear accounts for its ability to regain its shape after it has been deformed or compressed?

a)

d

b)

The elastic fibers present in the ear's cartilage

c)

d

d)

d

167.

Where in the body would you expect to find a perichondrium?

a)

Covering cartilage

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

168.

Suppose that you were involved in an automobile accident and suffered a back injury. When examined by your physician you are told that you have a slipped disc in the lower back. What type of tissue is involved?

a)

Fibrocartilage

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

169.

A skeletal muscle fiber is

a)

a skeletal muscle cell.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

170.

*If you were examining a microscope slide containing a type of muscle tissue and observed a branching network of striated cells, each with one or two central nuclei, you could conclude that you were looking at _____ muscle.

a)

cardiac

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

171.

Which type of muscle contains fusiform cells that function to propel materials through hollow organs?

a)

Smooth

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

172.

The nucleus and other organelles of a neuron are primarily housed in which part of the cell?

a)

Cell body

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

173.

A tissue transplant from an animal to a human is a(n)

a)

heterograft.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

174.

A tissue transplant from one person to another (one who is not genetically identical) is a(n)

a)

allograft.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

175.

Suppose you cut your finger only slightly in what is known as a "paper cut." You observe that the cut hurts but it doesn't bleed. How would you interpret your observation?

a)

Nerve endings occur in epithelium but blood vessels do not.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

176.

*Number 1 indicates a simple _____ gland.

a)

acinar

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

177.

Number 2 indicates a compound _____ gland.

a)

tubular

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

178.

In this image showing connective tissue components, what structure does number 1 indicate?

a)

Adipocyte

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

179.

In this image showing connective tissue components, what structure does number 2 indicate?

a)

Macrophage

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

180.

Another name for the skin is the _________ membrane.

a)

cutaneous

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

181.

Which is not a function of the integument?

a)

No exceptions; all are functions of the integument

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

182.

What type of stimulus is detected by the sensory receptors of the skin?

a)

ALL OF THE CHOICES ARE CORRECT

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

183.

What type of epithelium is found in the epidermis?

a)

Keratinized stratified squamous

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

184.

From deep to superficial, the order of the strata of the epidermis is

a)

Basale - spinosum - granulosum - lucidum - corneum

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

185.

Keratinocytes are

a)

ALL OF THE CHOICES ARE CORRECT

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

186.

Tactile (Merkel) cells are sensitive to

a)

touch.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

187.

Epidermal dendritic (Langerhans) cells function as part of the ______ response.

a)

Immune

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

188.

Which are applicable to the stratum corneum?

a)

a: Most superficial stratum

b)

b: Consists of about 3-5 cell layers

c)

c: Cells are dead

d)

d: Interlocking keratinized cells, Cells are anucleate

e)

a,c,d,

189.

The process of keratinization begins in the stratum granulosum.

a)

True

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

190.

Thick skin contains

a)

five epidermal strata and lacks sebaceous glands.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

191.

Normally, skin color results from a combination of

a)

a: melanin

b)

b: hemoglobin

c)

c: bilirubind

d)

d: carotene

e)

a,b,d

192.

Generally, people have ________ number of melanocytes ______________.

a)

about the same; no matter where they live

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

193.

The function of melanin in the skin is to

a)

protect against UV light.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

194.

Within the body, carotene is converted to

a)

vitamin A, which is important for visual function.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

195.

Which skin markings usually disappear during childhood?

a)

Capillary hemangiomas

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

196.

Freckles are the result of

a)

melanocyte activity, genetic inheritance, and sun exposure.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

197.

Among the components of the dermis are

a: sweat glands

b: hair follicles

c: collagen fibers

d: sensory nerve endings

e: arrector pili muscles

a)

all of the above

b)

e

c)

e

d)

e

198.

Blood capillaries that supply nourishment for the epidermis are located in the

a)

dermal papillae.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

199.

The reticular layer of the dermis consists primarily of

a)

dense irregular connective tissue.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

200.

Why might someone pale when they are exposed to a cold temperature?

a)

Vasoconstriction has occurred

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

201.

The deeper sublayer of the dermis is the ________ layer, and it is the _______ of the two.

a)

reticular, thicker

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

202.

To speed healing from surgery, incisions should be placed ________ to lines of cleavage.

a)

d

b)

parallel

c)

d

d)

d

203.

Lines of cleavage are a result of

a)

the orientation of collagen fibers in the dermis.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

204.

Areas where adult males tend to accumulate subcutaneous fat include the

a)

neck, abdomen, and buttocks.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

205.

The hypodermis is rich in adipose, and thus its functions include

a)

organ protection, energy storage, and thermal insulation.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

206.

Nails are hard derivatives formed from the stratum ______ of the epidermis.

a)

corneum

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

207.

Which is the actively growing part of the nail?

a)

Nail matrix

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

208.

Which of these comprise the nail plate?

a: Free edge

b: Nail folds

c: Eponchyium

d: Nail root

e: Nail body

a)

a, d, e

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

209.

Another name for the cuticle is the

a)

eponychium.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

210.

Fingernails are helpful in protecting the distal tips of fingers and in grasping small objects.

a)

True

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

211.

Which type of hair forms the beard on the faces of males?

a)

Terminal

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

212.

Fine hair called _________, which is unpigmented or lightly pigmented, is the primary human hair and is found on the upper and lower limbs.

a)

vellus

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

213.

The part of the hair that extends beyond the skin surface is called the

a)

shaft.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

214.

While most of the cells in a hair are dead, the living epithelial cells are found in

a)

the hair bulb.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

215.

The structure responsible for pulling on the follicle and causing "goose bumps" is the

a)

arrector pili muscle.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

216.

The epithelial tissue root sheath is the _________ layer of the concentric layers making up the hair follicle wall; it derives from the ________.

a)

inner; epidermis

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

217.

Where on the human body is the hair thick enough to retain heat?

a)

Scalp

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

218.

Which of these are functions of hair?

a: Sensory reception

b: Heat retention

c: Pheromone dispersal

d: Protection

e: Visual identification

a)

a, b, c, d, e

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

219.

The growth rate for a scalp hair is about _______ per day for 1.5 to 7 years, and then the hair becomes dormant.

a)

1/3 mm

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

220.

The type of gland that secretes sweat into a hair follicle that is found in the axillary, anal, and genital regions is the ________ sweat gland.

a)

apocrine

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

221.

Apocrine sweat glands secrete sweat by having the apical portion of epithelial cells pinch off.

a)

True

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

222.

Sebum is a secretion that

a)

lubricates skin and helps defend against bacteria.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

223.

Cerumen is a secretion that

a)

lubricates the ear canal and traps debris before it reaches the eardrum.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

224.

What is the greatest risk factor for skin cancer?

a)

Exposure to UV light rays

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

225.

Transpiration is another name for sweating.

a)

False

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

226.

One of the main dangers of burns is

a)

dehydration, as water can escape from the body.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

227.

Skin is an entirely waterproof barrier, preventing all gain or loss of fluid from the skin except sweat.

a)

False

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

228.

Production of this vitamin requires skin exposure to the sun. This vitamin is crucial for regulation of calcium and phosphate.

a)

Vitamin D

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

229.

When exposed to ultraviolet light, keratinocytes convert a steroid precursor into ________, a molecule that is crucial for regulation of calcium levels.

a)

cholecalciferol

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

230.

One of the components of sweat is the nitrogenous waste urea.

a)

True

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

231.

Drugs that are administered by skin patches tend to be _______ soluble molecules that are absorbed ________.

a)

lipid; slowly

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

232.

Cancer cells in the epidermis are attacked by

a)

epidermal dendritic cells.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

233.

Immune cells of the epidermis tend to be found in the stratum:

a)

spinosum.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

234.

In order to retain heat, what occurs in the skin on a cold day?

a)

Blood vessels of the dermis constrict.

b)

s

c)

s

d)

s

235.

Sensory receptors in the dermis detect touch, temperature, and light.

a)

False

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

236.

Fingernails and toenails start to form in the ______ week of development.

a)

10th

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

237.

Severe injuries and burns to the skin result in scars that are

a)

produced by fibroblasts and made mainly of collagen.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

238.

The two types of leukocytes that clean up debris underneath the blood clot of a wound are

a)

macrophages and neutrophils.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

239.

Granulation tissue is

a)

vascular connective tissue.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

240.

The epidermis derives from

a)

ectoderm.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

241.

Early in the development of skin, ectoderm becomes

a)

periderm and mesoderm becomes mesenchyme.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

242.

Fingernails reach the tips of the fingers before toenails are fully formed.

a)

True

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

243.

Sweat and sebaceous glands develop from the

a)

stratum basale of the epidermis.

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

244.

Compared to a young adult, an older individual has ________ skin.

a)

thinner

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

245.

Compared to the young, elderly individuals have _______ epidermal dendritic skin cells.

a)

fewer

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

246.

Skin cancer is the _______ type of cancer, and due to sun exposure it occurs most frequently on the __________.

a)

most common; head and neck

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

247.

The skin consists of different tissue types that perform specific activities and therefore is to be considered an organ.

a)

True

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

248.

When the body is cold and needs to conserve heat, the blood vessels in the dermis dilate to allow for more blood flow in that region.

a)

False

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

249.

The epidermal dendritic cells are able to play an important immune response role by their phagocytic activity.

a)

True

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

250.

Melanocyte cytoplasmic processes transfer pigment granules into stratum basale keratinocytes; these pigment granules shield the nuclear DNA from UV radiation.

a)

True

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

251.

The epidermis exhibits variations among different body regions within a single individual, as well as differences between individuals.

a)

True

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

252.

The thin epidermis, lacking the stratum lucidum, contains only four strata and covers most of the body.

a)

True

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

253.

The reason for the reddish tint seen in lightly pigmented skin is the molecule formed by the combination of oxygen and melanin.

a)

False

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

254.

Carotene, a pigment that contributes to skin color, is acquired in the body by eating various yellow-orange vegetables.

a)

True

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

255.

Deep cuts that occur perpendicular to cleavage lines tend to gape.

a)

True

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

256.

The subcutaneous layer, or hypodermis, is one of the two parts of the integument.

a)

False

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

257.

Nails, hair, and sweat and sebaceous glands are all derived from the epidermis.

a)

True

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

258.

Most of the nail body appears pink because of the blood in the underlying capillaries.

a)

True

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

259.

Sebum has bactericidal properties.

a)

True

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

260.

The ability of the components of the integumentary system to respond to stress or trauma is independent of nervous or endocrine system control.

a)

False

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

261.

During aging of the integumentary system, sweat production increases as a result of improved sweat gland activity.

a)

False

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

262.

During the fetal period, sebum from the sebaceous glands mixes with the cells of the sloughed off periderm to form the vernix caseosa.

a)

True

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d

263.

Although sweat and sebaceous glands develop from the stratum basale of the epidermis, they eventually burrow and remain in the underlying dermis.

a)

True

b)

d

c)

d

d)

d