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Physical Science Reviewer

Total questions: 140

Worksheet time: 3hrs 5mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
The Hubble constant measures the
a)
current expansion rate of the universe
b)
the universe began in a hot, dense state
c)
curvature of space in the universe
d)
temperature of the universe
2.
In red shift, the wavelengths of light become
a)
Bluer
b)
shorter
c)
longer
3.
How does the sun produce energy?
a)
Nuclear Fission
b)
Burning gas
c)
Nuclear Fusion
d)
Absorbing heat from space
4.
A star begins to "die" when elements stop fusing in its core.
a)
True
b)
False
5.
the planets of the solar system formed as 
a)
the center of the gas cloud cooled
b)
planetesimals flattened into a rotating disk
c)
planetesimals collided into one another
d)
the sun absorbed extra gas and dust from the solar system
6.
A cloud of gas and dust from which bodies in space are formed
a)
photosphere
b)
nebula
c)
solar flare
d)
Sunspot
7.
What is a small body from which a planet originated in the early stages of development of the solar system called?
a)
inertia
b)
planetesimal
c)
terrestrial planet
d)
gas giant
8.
The key ratio found in the universe that confirms the Big Bang is _______.
a)
25% hydrogen and 75% helium
b)
75% hydrogen and 75% helium
c)
75% hydrogen and 25% lithium
d)
75% hydrogen and 25% helium
9.
An explosion that occurs at the end of a massive star’s life is a              
a)
black hole
b)
supernova
c)
white dwarf
d)
nebula
10.
In nuclear fusion, smaller atoms are forced together to create larger atoms. Does this process release, absorb or maintain energy?
a)
Absorb energy
b)
Maintain energy
c)
Release energy
11.
The formation of elements is known as _________.
a)
nucleotides
b)
Synthogenesis
c)
nuclear fission
d)
nucleosynthesis
12.
The theory that explains the formation of the solar system is called ____.
a)
Nebulis Theory
b)
Nebular Theory
c)
Big Bang Theory
d)
Big Nebulan Theory
13.
How much of the nebula matter became the Sun?
a)
33%
b)
66%
c)
99%
d)
77%
14.
All stars spend about 90% of their life cycle in this stage of stellar evolution. 
a)
supergiant
b)
neutron star
c)
planetary nebula
d)
main sequence
15.
A neutron star is a(n) ______________. 
a)
star with extremely high density made entirely of neutrons
b)
star that experiences neutron combustion
c)
star that produces atoms
d)
star the size of a neutron
16.
A ____________ is so dense that not even light can escape its gravitational pull. 
a)
neutron star
b)
supergiant
c)
protostar
d)
black hole
17.
How old is the universe?
a)
13.8 million years
b)
12.8 million years
c)
12.8 billion years
d)
13.8 billion years
18.

Stars can take different paths due to their initial . . .

a)

temperature

b)

mass

c)

brightness

d)

color

19.

Hubble observed that galaxies are

a)
expanding
b)
moving away from us
c)
moving towards us
d)
standing still
20.
What can we conclude from the observation that nearly all galaxies are moving away from us?
a)
Massive black holes are drawing galaxies away from Earth.
b)
The Sun and Earth are located at the center of the universe.
c)
Everything in the universe is moving the same direction.
d)
The once-smaller universe is expanding in all directions.
21.

which of the following are stages in the life cycle of a medium mass star (mark all the apply)

a)

main sequence

b)

super nova

c)

red giant

d)

neutron star

22.

What causes stars to exit the main sequence?

a)

when they get too old

b)

when gravity causes the core to collapse

c)

when the star begins to exhaust all of its hydrogen and run out of fuel

d)

when the star begins to burn too hot and go into supernova

23.

How long ago did the solar system begin to form?

a)

4.6 billion years ago

b)

50 million years ago

c)

4.6 million years ago

d)

13 billion years ago

24.

What is the main source of fuel when a star is in the main sequence?

a)

oxygen-burning

b)

hydrogen-burning

c)

electromagnetic radiation

d)

helium burning

25.

When is a star born?

a)

when the nebula starts spinning

b)

when nuclear fusion starts

c)

when gas and dust starts to contract

d)

when x rays get emitted

26.

Which is not true about the Big Bang Theory?

a)

It explains the evolution of the universe

b)

It was a big explosion

c)

It explains the creation and origin of the universe

d)

It is supported by scientific data and evidence

27.

Hubble's Law shows mathematically that more distant galaxies are

a)

moving away at a slower rate

b)

moving away at a faster rate

c)

not moving at all

d)

move away slowly at first and then speed up

28.

Which is true of electromagnetic waves with low frequencies? Choose all correct answers.

a)

They have short wavelengths

b)

They have lower energy

c)

They have long wavelengths

d)

They have higher energy

29.

Arno Pensiaz and Robert Wilson discovered

a)

redshift

b)

big bang theory

c)

nebular theory

d)

Cosmic microwave background radiation

30.

What is represented by letter A in the image?

a)

amplitude

b)

frequency

c)

wavelength

d)

velocity

31.

What is the main factor that determines how a star will end it's life?

a)

temperature

b)

mass

c)

luminosity

d)

distance from Earth

32.

Step 1 of the proton-proton chain reaction results in

a)

Helium 3 atom

b)

Helium 4 aton

c)

Hydrogen 1 atom

d)

Hydrogen 2 atom

33.

Which of the following is true of step 2 of the proton-proton chain reaction?

a)

a neutrino is given off

b)

a positron is given off

c)

gamma radiation is released

d)

2 single protons are released

34.

Which is an input of step 4 of the proton-proton chain reaction?

a)

Hydrogen 1 atom

b)

Hydrogen 2 atom

c)

Helium 3 atom

d)

Helium 4 atom

35.

The next evolutionary stage for our sun is?

a)

white dwarf

b)

red giant

c)

supernova

d)

black hole

36.

According to the nebular theory, what is the next step in the sequence of events after the immediate collapse of the interstellar cloud due to gravity?

a)

A flat, rotating protoplanetary disc is formed

b)

Planetismals collide with each other to create larger bodies

c)

Solar wind pushes debris to the outer regions of the universe

d)

Nuclear fusion begins and a star is born

37.
Rank these in order of strength:
covalent bond
London forces
hydrogen bond
dipole-dipole attraction
a)
dipole-dipole>covalent bond>hydrogen bond>London
b)
London>dipole-diple>hydrogen bond>covalent bond
c)
covalent bond>hydrogen bond>dipole-dipole>London
d)
hydrogen bond>dipole-dipole>London>covalent bond
38.
Intermolecular force present in HCl?
a)
dipole dipole
b)
dispersion
c)
H-bond
d)
ionic
39.
Intermolecular force present in Cl2?
a)
dipole dipole
b)
H-bond
c)
dispersion
d)
metallic
40.

Which substance has the weakest intermolecular forces?

a)

Substance A, boiling point of 75 °C

b)

Substance B, boiling point of 105 °C

c)

Substance C, boiling point of 25 °C

d)

Substance d, boiling point of 45 °C

41.

Intermolecular forces for: CO2

a)

Dispersion Force

b)

Dipole dipole

c)

Hydrogen bonding

42.

What explains the high boiling point of water?

a)

hydrogen bonding

b)

ion-ion attractions

c)

a high density

d)

a large gram formula mass

43.

The polarity of a bond is determined by...

a)

The sum of the electronegativities of the two atoms

b)

The difference in the electronegativities of the two atoms

c)

The charges of the atoms

d)

The number of electrons shared in the bond

44.

In a polar covalent bond, the electrons gather around...

a)

Mostly the atom with the greatest electronegativity

b)

The atom with the lowest electronegativity

c)

Each atom equally

d)

Only the atom with the greatest electronegativity

45.

In a nonpolar covalent bond, the electrons gather around...

a)

Mostly the atom with the greatest electronegativity

b)

The atom with the lowest electronegativity

c)

Each atom Equally

d)

Only the atom with the greatest electronegativity

46.

Which of the following molecules would dissolve in oil?

a)

CHCl3

b)

NH3

c)

CCl4

d)

HBr

47.
Proteins are made of monomers called ___________
a)
Nucleotides
b)
Monosaccharides
c)
Amino Acids
d)
Glycerol and fatty acids
48.
DNA and RNA are examples of 
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
49.
Nucleotides are monomers of
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
50.
Monosaccharides are monomers of
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
51.
Waxes, oils and fats are examples of
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
52.
Which macromolecule is shown?
 View Figure 1 (if not visible)
a)
lipid
b)
protein
c)
nucleic acid
d)
carbohydrate
53.
What is the function of nucleic acids?
a)
store genetic information
b)
store energy (long-term)
c)
store energy (short-term)
d)
build skin, hair, nails, muscles
54.
Which of the following organic compounds is the main source of energy for living things?
a)
carbohydrates
b)
lipids
c)
nucleic acids
d)
proteins
55.
Which macromolecule stores energy, insulates us, and makes up the cell membrane?
a)
lipids
b)
proteins
c)
carbohydrates
d)
nucleic acids
56.
What are the monomers of DNA?
a)
glycerols
b)
amino acids
c)
fatty acids
d)
nucleotides
57.
Lipids can be digested into what smaller subunits?
a)
nucleic acids
b)
amino acids
c)
fatty acids
d)
glucose
58.
Which group of biomolecules provide quick energy to organisms?
a)
proteins
b)
carbohydrates
c)
lipids
d)
nucleic acids
59.
Genetic information is stored in which class of organic compounds?
a)
proteins
b)
lipids
c)
nucleic acids
d)
carbohydrates
60.
All polymers are made up of...
a)
monosaccharides
b)
monomers
c)
proteins
d)
None of these
61.
All organic compounds contain the element
a)
carbon
b)
nitrogen
c)
phosphorus
d)
sulfur
62.
Building blocks of the body, hair , muscles etc.
a)
protein
b)
nucleic acid
c)
lipids
d)
carbohydrates
63.
Enzymes are..
a)
nucleic acids 
b)
carbohydrates 
c)
lipids 
d)
proteins 
64.
Which is an example of a lipid?
a)
Candy
b)
Olive Oil
c)
DNA
d)
Meat
65.
How many sugar units make up polysaccharides?
a)
one
b)
two
c)
more than two
d)
zero
66.
Why are the four biological macromolecules essential for life?
a)
They all provide an organism with oxygen.
b)
They do many important jobs to keep an organism functioning.
c)
They provide an organism with food.
d)
They are all broken down for energy.
67.

It was a motion where we see the sun rises at the east horizon and sets down at the west horizon. The Greeks explained this phenomenon by introducing the concept of celestial spheres. What motion was explaining the occurrence of day and night?

a)

Annual Motion

b)

Diurnal Motion

c)

Precession of Equinoxes

d)

None of the Above

68.

What does the word HELIOCENTRIC mean?

a)

earth - center

b)

sun- center

c)

moon - center

d)

planet- center

69.

According to Copernican Model, the epicycle moves in what type of motion?

a)

Vertical Motion

b)

Circular Motion

c)

Elliptical Motion

d)

Horizontal Motion

70.

Where does the Greek word Geocentric came from?

a)

sun - center

b)

earth - center

c)

moon - center

d)

planet- center

71.

This explains that the planets of the Solar System revolve around the Sun but the Earth is the center of the universe.

a)

Aristotelian Model

b)

Copernican Model

c)

Tychonic Model

d)

Ptolemaic Model

72.

The apparent daily motion of the stars as a result of Earth's rotation about its axis is called __________.

a)

Annual motion

b)

Diurnal motion

c)

Retrograde motion

d)

Precession of the equinoxes

73.

The apparent motion of the sun caused by Earth's revolution around it is called _______________.

a)

Annual Motion

b)

Diurnal Motion

c)

Retrograde Motion

d)

Precession of the Equinoxes

74.

How long is a sidereal day?

a)

exactly 24 hours

b)

23 hours 56 minutes

c)

23 hours 56 minutes and 4 seconds

d)

23 hours 56 minutes and 30 seconds

75.

How many years does Earth require to complete a cycle of precession?

a)

10,000

b)

15,000

c)

21,000

d)

26,000

76.

The two points where the ecliptic intersects the celestial equator are known as ________________.

a)

Solstice

b)

Equinoxes

c)

Summer Solstice

d)

Autumnal Equinoxes

77.
Who believed that planets moved in epicycles as they revolved in larger circles around Earth?
a)
Aristotle
b)
Newton
c)
Ptolemy
d)
Copernicus
78.
The relationship between the average distance of a planet from the sun and the planet’s orbital period is described by the
a)
law of equal areas
b)
law of motion
c)
law of ellipses
d)
law of periods
79.

Which two astronomers believed in geocentric model?

a)

Aristotle and Copernicus

b)

Aristotle and Ptolemy

c)

Copernicus and Galileo

d)

Galileo and Aristotle

80.

Who was the first astronomer to see craters on the moon and rings of Saturn.

a)

Galileo

b)

Copernicus

c)

Aristotle

d)

Ptolomy

81.
How long does it take the earth to make 1 revolution
a)
One year
b)
One day
c)
One hour
d)
One minute
82.
What happens to the velocity of a ball as it is dropped off a cliff? 
a)
It decreases at a uniform rate 
b)
It increases at a uniform rate 
c)
It is constant 
d)
It increases at a non-uniform rate
83.
Which would fall with greater acceleration in a vacuum—a leaf or a stone?
a)
the leaf
b)
the stone
c)
They would accelerate at the same rate.
d)
It is difficult to determine without more information.
84.
A type of friction that occurs when air pushes against a moving object causing it to decelerate.
a)
surface area
b)
air resistance
c)
velocity
d)
gravity 
85.
How does friction affect speed?
a)
more friction decreases speed
b)
more friction increases speed
c)
less friction decreases speed
d)
less friction doesn't affect speed
86.
What is the horizontal acceleration of a projectile?
a)
0 m/s2
b)
-9.8 m/s2
87.
Inertia is....
a)
for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction
b)
larger objects take more force to move 
c)
an object in motion tends to stay in motion unless acted on by an opposite force
d)
a push that acts in the opposite direction and it slows down.
88.
At the instant a ball is thrown horizontally with a large force, an identical ball is dropped from the same height. Which ball hits the ground first? 
a)
Neither- they hit at the same time
b)
the horizontally thrown ball
c)
the dropped ball
d)
None of these
89.
What is the vertical acceleration of a projectile?
a)
0 m/s2
b)
9.8 m/s2
90.
Acceleration: is the rate of change in ___________.
a)
speed
b)
distance
c)
velocity 
d)
displacement 
91.

Which form of motion always follows a curved path and requires an initial launch force that is greater than the force of gravity?

a)

Centripetal Motion

b)

Projectile Motion

c)

Free Fall Motion

d)

None of the Above

92.

This form of motion can only occur in outer space or in a vacuum. It is solely dependent on the force of gravity.

a)

Free Fall Motion

b)

Centripetal Motion

c)

Projectile Motion

d)

None of the Above

93.

A leaping frog is an example of which type of motion.

a)

Projectile Motion

b)

Free Fall Motion

c)

Centripetal Motion

d)

None of the Above

94.

This is the idea used by Aristotle to explain how objects sustain their horizontal motion.

a)

large amount of force applied

b)

violent motion

c)

antiperistasis

d)

projectile motion

95.

Aristotle explained that the object moves depending on the natural motion of the dominant element of that object. Which among the following element-motion pairs is CORRECTLY matched?

a)

earth - circular

b)

fire - fall

c)

water - fall

d)

celestial - retrograde

96.

Based from Aristotelian Physics, what was natural for planets to do in terms of their type of motion?

a)

They orbit in elliptical motion

b)

They orbit in triangular motion

c)

They orbit in no particular consistent shape

d)

They orbit in circular motion

97.

Aristotle proposed that all falling objects _______

a)

fall at the same speed

b)

fall at the same acceleration

c)

fall at the same distance

d)

fall at the same time

98.

Based from Galileo, force is needed to ___________

a)

sustain the motion of the object

b)

change the direction of the object

c)

change the speed of the object

d)

oppose the motion of the object

99.

Aristotle stated that:

GREATER FORCE APPLIED = ___________

a)

greater distance covered

b)

greater speed

c)

greater acceleration

d)

greater free falling

100.

If you are Galileo answer the ff question:

"Why does a bowling ball and feather hit the ground at different times when dropped from the same height?"

a)

They don't; they hit the ground at the same time.

b)

One is more dense than the other.

c)

One is heavier than the other.

d)

Air resistance

101.

The more mass an object has, the faster it will fall.

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Aristotle - TRUE; Galileo - FALSE

d)

Aristotle - FALSE; Galileo - TRUE

102.

Compare the angle of incidence from angle of reflection in a regular reflection.

a)

The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection.

b)

The angle of incidence is less than the angle of reflection.

c)

The angle of incidence is greater than the angle of reflection.

d)

The angle of incidence is never equal to the angle of reflection.

103.

Why does light bend (refracts) when it enters from air to water?

a)

Light has a tendency to go in all direction.

b)

It enters a material with different optical density.

c)

Light changes its direction due to the resistivity of the material.

d)

The bending of light is dependent upon the conductivity of the material.

104.

How does the light bends as it enters from air to glass?

a)
b)
c)
d)
105.

White light is separated into spectrum of colors by a prism. What does this mean?

a)

White light has no color.

b)

Prism emits different colors.

c)

Prism absorbs the white light.

d)

Component colors of light are refracted at different angles

106.

Upon exiting a glass prism, white light is dispersed. Which color bends the most?

a)

Red

b)

Blue

c)

Violet

d)

Orange

107.

How will the velocity of light change, as it enters a denser medium?

a)

Light will slow down.

b)

There will be an increase in its speed.

c)

The speed of light will change in unknown value.

d)

The light will change its direction and bend toward the normal.

108.

If you were to fish by bow and arrow technique, where would you aim to actually strike a fish?

a)

Strike exactly where you see the fish.

b)

Aim below the fish; it is actually deeper than you think.

c)

Shoot a little above its head; refraction causes a different perception of its depth.

d)

In the morning, hit it above, but in the afternoon, aim it below because the light is dimmer.

109.

How does the photoelectric effect demonstrate the particle characteristics of light?

a)

Light bounces off like a wave, as it shines on the metal surface.

b)

Light may knock the electrons out of the metal surface as if light were made of particles.

c)

Intense radiation may (large-amplitude waves) may cause emitted electrons to have more energy.

d)

The Energy of the electron emitted from metal surface is dependent on the speed of the light that shined on it.

110.

What does the theories of modern physics tells us about light?

a)

Demonstrate wave property only

b)

Exclusively shows particle property

c)

It combines wave and particle properties

d)

It has neither wave nor particle properties

111.

What color of light do photographers usually use in dark rooms? Why?

a)

Yellow light since paper is not sensitive to this color.

b)

Regular light may be used since it won’t affect the printing.

c)

Red light does not cause the film to be exposed since it has low energy.

d)

Violet light has the highest energy which is used to give color to the pictures.

112.

Explain how you we see colors.

a)

The color we see are the colors absorbed by the object.

b)

The energy with wavelengths that are too short to see is "bluer than blue".

c)

When light hits an object, the wavelengths change and are reflected in different direction.

d)

When light hits an object, some wavelengths are absorbed by that object and the color we see are those that are reflected.

113.

How come we cannot see other EM waves such as infrared, microwave and UV?

a)

Other lights are invisible and has no color.

b)

Our eyes are only sensitive and can only detect visible light spectrum.

c)

Temperature of the surrounding interacts with these lights and makes it difficult for us to notice.

d)

Ozone layer absorbs most of the energies of these lights thus making it colorless when it reaches the land.

114.

Identify which property of light best explain the light phenomenon below.


Rainbow is separated into component colors upon passage through water droplets.

a)

Scattering

b)

Refraction

c)

Diffraction

d)

Dispersion

115.

Identify which property of light best explain the light phenomenon below.


Mirage is formed by warm air near the road surface.

a)

Scattering

b)

Refraction

c)

Diffraction

d)

Dispersion

116.

Identify which property of light best explain the light phenomenon below.


Brilliant colors in soap bubbles

a)

Reflection

b)

Refraction

c)

Diffraction

d)

Interference

117.

Identify which property of light best explain the light phenomenon below.


Twinkling of the stars

a)

Reflection

b)

Refraction

c)

Diffraction

d)

Dispersion

118.

Identify which property of light best explain the light phenomenon below.


Sky appears blue in a clear cloudless day-time.

a)

Scattering

b)

Diffraction

c)

Dispersion

d)

Interference

119.

Choose which statement/s are true.


Ampere demonstrated that parallel wires carrying currents may attract and repel each other. Which wires will most likely attract?


I. Wires carrying current moving in the same direction.

II. Wires carrying current moving in opposite directions.

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

both I and II

d)

neither I and II

120.

Choose which statement/s are true.


When electrons are made to move through a conductor,


I. An electric current is produced

II. A magnetic field around the conductor develops

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

both I and II

d)

neither I and II

121.

Who demonstrated that the effect of a changing magnetic field on a conductor can induce electric current and vice versa?

a)

Hertz

b)

Faraday

c)

Oersted

d)

Maxwell

122.

Mass energy relation is

a)

E=mc2

b)

E=T+V

c)

E=T-V

d)

M=Ec2

123.

1.If you were in spaceship traveling at the speed close to the speed of light (with respect to the earth) you would notice that___________

a)

your pulse rate is different than normal

b)

your mass is different than normal

c)

some of your physical dimensions were smaller than the normal

d)

none of these effects occur

124.
The speed of light (c) =
a)
3 x 108 miles/hour
b)
3 x 108 meters/second
c)
3 x 108 kilometers/hour
d)
none of these
125.
The special theory of relativity was derived by:
a)
Galileo
b)
Newton
c)
Einstein
d)
Sitter
126.
A postulate is something that is accepted as true at the beginning of a logical article.
a)
True
b)
False
127.
How many postulates are there in the special theory of relativity?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
128.
The speed of light is constant in all frames of reference.
a)
True
b)
False
129.
One of the most startling consequences of time dilation is that a moving clock ______________ relative to a stationary observer.
a)
Speeds up
b)
Slows down
130.
We experience Einstein's Theory of Relativity in our everyday life when we use
a)
Global Positioning System
b)
Microwave ovens.
c)
Toasters
d)
Graphing Calculators
131.
When you approach a light source, the light from that source has a speed 
a)
greater than c. 
b)
less than c. 
c)
equal to c.
132.
We do not usually observe relativistic effects in our daily lives because 
a)
we are moving at speeds much less than c. 
b)
we are much larger than atoms. 
c)
we are much heavier than elementary particles. 
d)
we are much lighter than stars. 
133.

The speed of light (c) =

a)

186,282 miles per second

b)

300,000,000 meters per second

c)

3.0 x 105 km/sec (kilometers per second)

d)

All answers are correct and equal to one another

134.

In what year did Einstein develop his theory of relativity?

a)

1880

b)

1905

c)

1914

d)

1921

135.

What astronomer was the firs to nail down a concrete measure of the speed of light?

a)

Newton

b)

Galileo

c)

Romer

d)

Plato

136.

What was the historical takeaway from the Michelson & Morley experiment?

a)

It demonstrated there was no luminiferous aether.

b)

It demonstrated light must move at the same speed regardless of reference frame.

c)

It demonstrated light was a wave phenomena.

d)

It demonstrated that the speed of light was relative.

137.

What is your position in your own reference frame?

a)

x=ctx=ct

b)

x=vtx=vt

c)

x=0x=0

d)

x=cvtx=\frac{cv}{t}

138.

In a spacetime diagram, suppose you have a worldline for some object moving relative to your frame of reference. If the object were moving twice as fast, what would happen to its worldline?

a)

It'd have a slope twice as large as before.

b)

It's have the same slope as before.

c)

It'd have a slope half as much as before.

d)

It'd have no slope and be a flat worldline.

139.
Which of the following is not a consequence of special relativity?
a)
Moving objects appear shorter in length (thinner) than stationary objects.
b)
Time appears to move at a different rate for objects moving relative to each other.
c)
Mass and energy are the same thing: if you increase an object’s energy, you also increase its mass.
d)
Nothing is certain; everything is relative.
140.
The term ‘relativistic’ refers to effects that are most easily
a)
measured by stationary observers only.
b)
observed when objects travel near the speed of light.
c)
observed when objects move backward in time.
d)
observed when any object moves.

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