Free Printable xii unit test 5 biology

1.

Choose the incorrect match :-

a)

Biston betularia – Camouflage

b)

Evolution – Directional process

c)

Origin of life – Darwin

d)

First non cellular form of life – 3 billion years back

2.

Which one of the following scientist’s name is correctly matched with the theory put forth by him?

a)

De Vries – Theory of natural selection

b)

Darwin – Mutation Theory

c)

Weismann – Theory of continuity of germplasm

d)

Pasteur – Theory of inheritance of acquired characters

3.

Evolution of horse is example of which type of speciation :-

a)

Quantum speciation

b)

Sympatric speciation

c)

Phyletic speciation

d)

Allopatric speciation

4.

In an population of 1000 individuals 490 belongs to genotype AA, 420 belong to Aa and remaining 90 to aa. Based on this data, the frequency of a allele in the population is :-

a)

0.7

b)

0.09

c)

0.49

d)

0.3

5.

Embryonic development of an organism known as :-

a)

Phylogency

b)

Ancestry

c)

Palaeontology

d)

Ontogeny

6.

Find out unmatched –

(A) Australo pithecus à Bipedal locomotion

(B) Pithecanthropus erectus à Erect prehistoric man

(C) Proconsul à Orthognathus jaw

(D) Homo erectus pekinensis à Less develop chin present

(E) Cromgnon man à Started domestication of animals

a)

A and C

b)

B and C

c)

B and E

d)

C and D

7.

Which is not correctly matched ?

a)

Modern man – First man who started agriculture.

b)

Neanderthal man – First man who started to buried dead bodies

c)

Peking man – First man who started use of fire.

d)

Cro – Magnon man – First man who painted walls of caves.

8.

Characteristics of primitive monkey which was in the direction of evolution of man :-

a)

Thumb parallel to fingers

b)

32 teeth

c)

Prehensile tail

d)

Flat nose

9.

Match the hominids with their correct feature :-

A. Homo habilis I. Probably ate meat

B. Homo erectus II. Bury their dead in grave

C. Cromagnon man III. 650 – 800 cc

D. Neanderthel man IV. Prehistoric cave art

a)

A – II, B – IV, C – I, D – III

b)

A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – I

c)

A – I, B – IV, C – II, D – III

d)

A – III, B – I, C – IV, D – II

10.

The brain capacity of Neanderthal man was :-

a)

600 CC

b)

900 CC

c)

1650 CC

d)

1400 CC

11.

Discovered fire, probably ate meat, 900 cc cranial capacity, prognathous jaws.

Above features are true for :-

a)

Homo habilis

b)

Handy man

c)

Homo erectus

d)

Neanderthal man

12.

Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching:-

a)

b – directional, a – disruptive, c – stablising

b)

b – directional, c – disruptive, a - stablising

c)

c – directional, b – distruptive, a – stablising

d)

a – directional, c – disruptive, b – stablising

13.

Change in frequency of gene and alleles in future generations can be brought by-

(A) Variation due to mutation

(B) Variation due to recombination during gametogenesis

(C) Gene migration (D) Genetic drift

a)

A and B only

b)

C and D only

c)

A, B and D only

d)

All A, B, C and D

14.

Allelic frequencies in a population are stable and constant from generation to generation, this statement related with-

a)

Survival of the recessive

b)

Survival of the fittest

c)

Darwin’s gene mutation law

d)

Hardy weinberg law

15.

Branching descent represents

a)

Homology

b)

Analogy

c)

Adaptation

d)

Vestigial organs

16.

Two key concepts of Darwin theory are :-

a)

Gene mutation and natural selection

b)

Braching descent and variations

c)

Branching descent and natural selection

d)

Saltation and variations

17.

Which of the most common mechanism of genetic variations in the population of sexually reproducing organism?

a)

Point mutation

b)

Chromosomal aberrations

c)

Transition

d)

Gene recombination

18.

Darwin finches is an example of :-

(a) Hardy – weinberg equlibrium

(b) Natural selection

(c) Adaptive radiation

(d) Geographical isolation

(e) Allopatric speciation

a)

a, b and c

b)

b, c and e

c)

b, c, d and e

d)

All of these

19.

Refer the given figure. What does it represents?

a)

Convergent evolution

b)

Adaptive radiation

c)

Divergent evolution

d)

Both ‘2’ & ‘3’

20.

When more than one adaptive radiation appeared to have occurred in an isolated geographical area, one can call this _______________:-

a)

Divergent evolution

b)

Adaptive divergence

c)

Adaptive divergence

d)

Convergent evolution

21.

Identify the incorrect statement :-

a)

A population has buit – in variations in characteristics.

b)

Mutations are discontinuous source of variations.

c)

Fitness is the end result of the ability to adopt and get selected by nature.

d)

Evolution is not a stochastic process.

22.

A process in which heritable variations enabling better surival are enabled to reproduce and leave greater number of progency is called:-

a)

Genetic drift

b)

Natural selection

c)

Founder effect

d)

Both (1) and (3)

23.

In galapagos island, Darwin found different varieties of finches, originated from a common ancestor. The original variety of these finches was:-

a)

Insectivorous

b)

Seed eating

c)

Cactus eating

d)

Vegetarian

24.

According to Darwin, fitness refers to :-

a)

Physical fitness

b)

Behavioural fitness

c)

Reproductive fitness

d)

May be variable in different conditions

25.

If the change in gene frequency in a population occurs by chance, it is called as:-

a)

Genetic drift

b)

Genetic equlibrium

c)

Gene flow

d)

Hybridisation

26.

Neanderthal man differs from cromagnon man in absence of :

a)

Prognathaous face

b)

Used animal hide to cover the body

c)

Developed pre-historic cave art

d)

Lived in hut

27.

The tadpole larvae of amphibians bear more resemblance to the young one of fishes than to their own adult. This indicates:-

a)

Origin of amphibians from fishes

b)

Biogenetic law

c)

Ontogeny recapitualate phylogeny”

d)

All of the above

28.

Which trend is not observed in the evolutionary history of the horse?

a)

Increment in the height

b)

Increment in the number of toes

c)

Increment in the brain size

d)

Development of cement on teeth

29.

Horse with no splint bones was:-

a)

Mesohippus

b)

Pliohippus

c)

Merychippus

d)

Equas

30.

Mole, anteater, mouse, lemur, flying squirrel, bobcat and wolf are the examples of :-

a)

Placental mammals

b)

Adaptive radiation

c)

Their limbs show homology

d)

All of these

31.

Which of the following structure is analogous to the lungs of human?

a)

Ears of elephant

b)

Flippers of whale

c)

Trachea of cockroach

d)

Wings of bat

32.

Ancestor of dinosaurs were :-

a)

Pterosaurs

b)

Thecodont

c)

Ichthyosaurs

d)

Synapsids

33.

Which of the following is a correct match?

a)

Devonian period – Age of jawless fishes

b)

Carboniferous period – Age of amphibians

c)

Triassic period – Age of gaint reptiles

d)

Cretaceous – Age of mammals

34.

200 mya some of the land reptiles went back into water to evolve into fish like reptiles. They were :

a)

Coelacanth

b)

Ichthyosaurs

c)

Dianosaur

d)

Salamander

35.

Match the column I and Column II correctly :

Column – I Column - II

A. Origin of universe I 4 bya

B. Origin of earth II 45. bya

C. Origin of first cellular form of life III. 3 bya

D. Origin of first non – cellular form of life IV. 20 bya

E. Life appeared V. 2 bya

a)

A – iv, B – i, C – iii, D – ii, E – v

b)

A – iv, B – i, C – v, D – ii, E – iii

c)

A – iv, B – ii, C – v, D – iii, E – i

d)

A – iv, B – ii, C – iii, D – v, E – i

36.

If we compare the earth with universe than earth is a

a)

Speck

b)

Mass

c)

Both 1 & 2

d)

None

37.

Mode of nutrition of First life on earth was

a)

Chemo autotrophs

b)

Autotrophs

c)

Photo autotrophs

d)

Chemo heterotrophs

38.

Which of the following test is best suited to diagnose typhoid fever?

a)

VDRL

b)

Schick test

c)

Widal test

d)

Mantaux test

39.

Which of the following disease lacks the symptom of mental retardation?

a)

Edward’s syndrome

b)

Patau’s syndrome

c)

Albinism

d)

Down syndrome

40.

Which of the following statement is false?

a)

When people are healthy they are more efficient at work.

b)

Regular exercise is very important to maintain good health.

c)

Health means only physical well being.

d)

Health increases longevity of people and reduces infant and maternal morality.

41.

Intestinal perforation and death may occur in severe cases of which disease?

a)

Pneumonia

b)

Typhoid

c)

Filariasis

d)

Malaria

42.

A vector borne disease characterised by enlaregement of spleen, jaundice and haemoglobin concentration is low. All these feature associated to RBC destruction by pathogen. This disease may be?

a)

Chikungunya

b)

Malaria

c)

Filariasis

d)

Dengue

43.

Which of the following is a correct match of column – I with column – II?

Column – I Column - II

a)

Rhino virus - Infect the alveoli of lung

b)

Haemophilus influenzae - Usually last for 3-7 days

c)

Wuchereria bancrofti - Female culex

d)

Entamoeba histolytica - Aedes agypti

44.

Which protect non infected cells specially from further viral infection?

a)

Physical barrier

b)

Cellular barrier

c)

Antibodies

d)

Cytokine barrier

45.

Mark out the incorrect statement regarding infection of Entamoeba histolytica-

a)

It is a type of monogenetic parasite.

b)

Stools characterised with excess mucous and blood clots

c)

It is the parasite of small intestine of the human being.

d)

Housefly act a mechanical carriers.

46.

Any individual inherits how many HLA haplotypes from each parent?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

47.

Which statement is correct about given diagram:-

Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermophyton are responsiple for this

b) Allergic reactions

c) Caused by Wuchereria bancrofti

d) Heat and moisture help these to grow

a)

a, c, d

b)

b, c, d

c)

a, d

d)

a, b, c, d

48.

What is not correct regarding Active immunity?

a)

Induced by infections or by contact with vaccines.

b)

Serves no purpose in immunodeficient host.

c)

Used for prophylaxis to increase body resistance.

d)

Immunity effective immedietly.

49.

Elephantiasis is causes due to:

a)

Inflammation of lymphatic vessels by contaminated food.

b)

Blockage of intestinal passage by filarial worm.

c)

Infection of filarial worm which causes inflammation of lower limbs.

d)

Infection of common round worm which affects genital organs.

50.

Allergens are:-

a)

Infectious and increases secretion of IgE.

b)

Non-infectious and increases secretions of IgE.

c)

Infectious and increases secretion IgG.

d)

Non-infectious and increases secretion IgM.

51.

Which of the following is not used to reduce symtoms of allergy?

a)

Adrenaline

b)

Cortisol

c)

Histamine

d)

Cetrizine

52.

The cells responsible for antibody mediated immunity are:

a)

B cells

b)

Helper T cells

c)

Killer T cells

d)

Suppressor T cells

53.

Which feature of the acquired immunity is the basis of secondary immune response?

a)

Specificity

b)

Memory

c)

Diversity

d)

Discrimination between self and nonself antigens

54.

Trisomy 21’ is known as :

a)

Down’s syndrome

b)

Edward’s syndrome

c)

Patau’s syndrome

d)

Cat cry syndrome

55.

Cell mediated immunity is performed by :

a)

B-Lymphocytes

b)

T-lymphocytes

c)

Erythrocytes

d)

Both (1) and (2)

56.

A.D.S. is included in :

a)

Natural passive acquired immunity

b)

Artificial passive acquired immunity

c)

Natural active acquired immunity

d)

Artificial active acquired immunity

57.

Treatment of snake bite with anti venom is an example of

a)

Artificial passive immunity

b)

Natural active immunity

c)

Artificial active immunity

d)

Natural passive immunity

58.

Toxoids may be included in :

a)

Natural active immunity

b)

Artificial active immunity

c)

Natural passive immunity

d)

Artificial passive immunity

59.

Acidic pH of urine also serves as barrier to urinary tract infections comes under?

a)

Physical barrier

b)

Acquired immunity

c)

Cytokine barrier

d)

Physiological barrier

60.

Column I lists the components of body defence and column II lists the corresponding descriptions. Match the two columns. Choose the correct option from those given

Column - I Column - II

A Active natural immunity q. Interferons

B. First line of defense r. Direct contact with the pathogens that have entered inside

C. Passive natural immunity s. Skin, mucosa

D. Second line of defense t. Antibodies transferred through the placenta

a)

A = s, B = r, C = t, D = q

b)

A = r, B = s, C = q, D = t

c)

A = r, B = s, C = t, D = q

d)

A = t, B = r, C = q, D = s

61.

A syndrome in male patient identified by signs like short stature, Epicanthic folds hypogonadism, Mental retardation and peculiar other facial features. Which is correct for this syndrome?

a)

47 chromosome, 1 barr body

b)

47 chromosome, 0 barr body

c)

45 chromosome, 0 barr body

d)

47 chromosome, 2 barr body

62.

Treatment of which disease is only partially effective and can not prevent death, which is inevitable:-

a)

Cancer

b)

AIDS

c)

SCID

d)

Tuberculosis

63.

Nucleic acid in HIV :

a)

ss RNA

b)

ds RNA

c)

ss DNA

d)

ds DNA

64.

Which of the following statement is true for HIV?

a)

Macrophage acts as a HIV factory.

b)

Decrease in T-helper cells.

c)

Western blot is one of the confirmatory test for HIV.

d)

All statement are correct.

65.

Metastasis is connected with :-

a)

Benign tumor

b)

Malignant tumor

c)

Both benign and malignant tumor

d)

AIDS

66.

⍺ - fetoprotein is tumour market for which cancer?

a)

Prostate cancer

b)

Liver cancer

c)

Bone metastasis

d)

Melanoma

67.

Cancer patients are given biological response modifiers such as ________ which activates their immune system and help in destroying the tumour :

a)

⍺ - interferons

b)

Cannabinoids

c)

Sedative

d)

Opiate

68.

Which of the following is protozoal STD (Sexually transmitted diseases) :-

a)

Trichomoniasis

b)

Syphilis

c)

Hepatitis – B

d)

Gonorrhoea

69.

Saelect the correct match of sexually transmitted disease with its pathogen?

a)

Syphilis – Treponema pallidum

b)

AIDS – Bacillus anthracis

c)

Urethritis – Entamoeba gingivalis

d)

Gonorrhoea – Leishmania donovani

70.

Which of the following is not caused due to alcohol drinking?

a)

Amnesia

b)

Liver cirrhosis

c)

Hyperglycemia

d)

Gastritis

71.

Identify the diagramme shown below:

a)

Cannabis Sativa

b)

Datura

c)

Opium poppy

d)

None of these

72.

Absorbed alcohol is metabolished in the liver into acetaldehyde by:-

a)

Aldehyde dehydrogenase

b)

Lactic acid

c)

Alcohol dehydrogenase

d)

Adenosine deaminase

73.

Diagram is showing, skeletal structure of :-

a)

Morphine molecule

b)

Cannabinoid molecule

c)

Opioids molecule

d)

Coca alkaloid

74.

In a standard ECG, which one of the following wave is the correct representation of the respective activity of human heart :-

a)

P ----> Repolarisation of Atria

b)

P ----> Depolariation of Atria

c)

T ----> Depolarisation of Atria

d)

S ----> Start of systole

75.

Which wave marks the depolarisation of ventricles:-

a)

P-wave

b)

Q-wave

c)

QRS-wave

d)

T-wave

76.

Which of the following factors affect human health?

(i) Infection (ii) Silent mutation (iii) Life style (iv) Genetic disorder

a)

(i), (ii) and (iv)

b)

(i) and (ii)

c)

(i), (iii) and (iv)

d)

(i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

77.

Which one of the following statement is correct for disease and immunization?

a)

Both cellular as well as antibody mediated immunity affected in SCID.

b)

Antivenom used against snake bite is part of active immunization.

c)

Some protozoans are used in preparation of Hepatitis – B vaccine.

d)

Inactivated pathogen used in our body comes in passive immunization.

78.

Which one is best milk producing cow breed in world?

a)

Gir

b)

Sahiwal

c)

Jersey

d)

Holstein – Friesian

79.

Find the correct match of animals with their meats:-

Animal Meat

A. cow a. Pork

B. Sheep b. Mutton

C. Pig c. Beef

a)

A-c, B-a, C-b

b)

A-b, B-c, C-a

c)

A-a, B-b, C-c

d)

A-c, B-b, C-a

80.

Hisardale is a new breed of sheep developed in :-

a)

Rajasthan

b)

Punjab

c)

Bihar

d)

Himachal pradesh

81.

Wool for army hosiery is obtained from :

a)

Nali

b)

Lohi

c)

Patanwadi

d)

Rampur – Bushair

82.

Few points are given below, among them how many points are suitable for dairy farm management?

a) Quality of breed

b) Disease resistance

c) Well housing

d) Feeding in non scientific manner

e) Quality and quantity of fodder

a)

Three

b)

Four

c)

Two

d)

Five

83.

What is the result of mating between female horse and male donkey?

a)

Mule

b)

Hinny

c)

Donkey

d)

Horse

84.

If the food source is in opposite direction of sun and distance from hive is 85 metres, then scout worker bee will convey this information by:-

a)

Round dance

b)

Straight dance

c)

Tail wagging dance – upword

d)

Tail wagging dance – downward

85.

Which type of cross helps us to overcome inbreeding depression in cattles?

a)

Cross breeding

b)

Out crossing

c)

Inbreeding

d)

Interspecific hybridipation

86.

Which of the following pair is mismatched?

a)

Bombyx mori - Silk

b)

Laccifer lacca - Lac

c)

Best Quality lac - Kusumic

d)

Silk gland - Dermal gland

87.

The main composition of lac is :-

a)

resin

b)

wax

c)

dye

d)

fructose

88.

The important gas which was absent during the origin of life on Earth is

a)

oxygen

b)

hydrogen

c)

nitrogen

d)

carbondioxide

89.

The first organism on earth, who released oxygen was :-

a)

Iron bacteria

b)

Sulphur bacteria

c)

Cyanobacteria

d)

Nitrifying bacteria

90.

Stanley Miller’s experiment support

a)

Chemical evolution

b)

Biological evolution

c)

Organic evolution

d)

Human evolution

xii unit test 5 biology

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 45mins

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