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Earth/Space Science CFE Review 2022 Part 2

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 1hrs 10mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Most stars are?

a)

Red giants

b)

White dwarfs

c)

Main sequence

d)

Supergiants

2.

If our Sun died out, what would it become?

a)

Pulsar

b)

White dwarf

c)

Black hole

d)

Neutron Star

3.

What type of stars are the hottest?

a)

yellow

b)

white

c)

red

d)

blue

4.

Where are stars "born"?

a)

from the sun

b)

in a nebula

c)

in a supernova

d)

in a white dwarf

5.

The brightness of a star depends on?

a)

its size

b)

its temperature

c)

its distance from earth

d)

All of the options

6.

Our sun is currently in what star stage?

a)

Protostar

b)

Nebula

c)

Main Sequence

d)

Red Giant

7.
As mass increases, what happens to gravitational force?
a)
increases
b)
decreases
c)
stays the same
d)
i don't know
8.
Which model has greater gravitational attraction (if any)
a)
Model A
b)
Model B
c)
Both Model A and Model B (same gravity)
9.
Who created the Universal Law of Gravitation?
a)
Copernicus
b)
Newton
c)
Kepler
d)
Galileo
10.
A student notices that the moon looks larger than the stars.  Why?
a)
The moon is reflecting light from the sun
b)
The moon is closer to Earth then the stars
c)
The moon is much larger than the stars
d)
The moon is much larger than Earth
11.
Put the stars in order from coolest to hottest.
a)
Blue, White, Yellow, Orange, Red
b)
Red, Orange, Yellow, White, Blue
c)
Red, Orange, Yellow, Blue, White
d)
Red, Yellow, Orange, White, Blue
12.
Which property of a star is the brightness of a star at a standard distance?
a)
Apparent (magnitude) brightness
b)
Absolute (magnitude) brightness
c)
Luminosity
d)
Size of the star
13.
The brightness of a star as seen from Earth is its 
a)
apparent brightness.
b)
absolute brightness.
c)
parallax.
d)
reflective brightness.
14.

As the _________ of a star increases, luminosity increases.

a)

size

b)

distance

c)

age

d)

composition

15.

The luminosity of a star describes its ______________.

a)

brightness

b)

temperature

c)

age

d)

color

16.
Characteristics used to classify stars include
a)
distance, size, and color.
b)
size, distance, and brightness.
c)
color, brightness, and distance.
d)
size, brightness, and temperature.
17.

What is the diagram called that shows the relationship between star size and temperatures?

a)

bar graph

b)

HR diagram

c)

star chart

d)

Star diagram

18.
The distance that light travels in one year...
a)
Light year
b)
Quantumyear
c)
Stellar-year
d)
1 million kilometers
19.
Lightyear is used by scientist to measure what?
a)
Distance
b)
Time
c)
Energy
20.
The category that contains the most stars is...
a)
Main Sequence
b)
Supergiants
c)
Giants
21.
Planets travel in what shape?
a)
Perfect circle
b)
Ellipse
c)
Square
d)
Triangle
22.
Which is NOT one of Kepler's laws?
a)
Planets travel in an ellipse
b)
Planets closest to the sun travel faster
c)
The farther a planet is from the sun, the longer it takes to orbit
d)
Planets revolve around the Earth
23.
All waves carry
a)
energy
b)
light 
c)
matter
d)
particles
24.

Which portion of the electromagnetic spectrum includes the range of light that can be detected by the human eye?

a)

ultraviolet light

b)

visible light

c)

infrared light

d)

x-rays

25.
Light waves travel fastest in ________ 
a)
solid
b)
liquid
c)
gas
d)
vacuum
26.

In which list are forms of electromagnetic energy arranged in order from longest to shortest wavelength?

a)

Microwave -> Radio wave -> Infrared rays

b)

Visible light -> x-ray -> radio wave

c)

Microwave -> infrared -> visibile light

d)

Infrared -> radio wave -> ultraviolet

27.
Select the correct order of waves on the EMS 
a)
Radio, Micro, Infra, Visible, Ultra, X-ray, Gamma
b)
Gamma, X-ray, Ultra, Vis, Infra, Micro, Radio
c)
Vis, Micro, Infra, Ultra, X-ray, Gamma, Radio
d)
Micro, Radio, Vis, Infra, Ultra, X-ray, Gamma
28.

As frequency increases on the electromagnetic spectrum, what happens to the wavelength?

a)

It stays the same

b)

It decreases

c)

It increases

d)

It doubles

29.

Scientists use the light-year to describe the relationships between objects in space. What does a light-year measure?

a)

the distance that light can travel in one year

b)

the brightness of light that travels through space

c)

the number of years it takes light to travel to Earth

d)

the time it takes light to travel 1 million km

30.

The sun is much larger than the moon. However, as viewed from Earth, the sun and moon appear to be the same size. Why do the sun and moon appear to be the same size when viewed from Earth?

a)

The moon is much hotter than the sun.

b)

The moon is much denser than the sun.

c)

The moon is much brighter than the sun.

d)

The moon is much closer to Earth than the sun.

31.

An astronomical unit is...

a)

The average distance between the Earth and the Sun

b)

The average distance between the Sun and Neptune

c)

The diameter of the sun

d)

The time it takes light to travel across our solar system

32.

Astronomical units are used for

a)

Distances within a solar system

b)

Distances between solar systems

c)

Distances within galaxies

d)

Distances between galaxies

33.

_______________ would be the best unit to use to measure the distance between the asteroid belt and Pluto

a)

Astronomical units

b)

Light seconds

c)

Light years

d)

Parsecs

34.

_______________ would be the best unit to use to measure the distance between the our sun and Proxima Centauri (our nearest star neighbor).

a)

Astronomical units

b)

Light seconds

c)

Light years

35.

An object at the other end of the universe is billions of ___________ away.

a)

AUs

b)

Light seconds

c)

Light minutes

d)

Light years

36.
What role did gravity play in the formation of the Sun?
a)
Gravity caused the protoplanetary disk to become a planetismal, which became the Sun. 
b)
Gravity caused the protoplanetary disk to rotate and form a solar nebula which became the Sun. 
c)
Gravity caused the Solar nebula to collapse toward the center causing the center to be dense and hot. 
d)
Gravity caused small particles to collide to form larger particles called planetesimals, which eventually formed the sun.
37.

Which distance is greatest?

a)

1 light year

b)

2 light years

c)

5 Au’s

d)

1 parsec

38.

Proxima Centauri is the closest star to Earth after the Sun and is located 4.2 light years away from Earth. How long does it take light from Proxima Centauri to reach Earth?

a)
1 year
b)

4.2 years

c)
43 years
d)
10 trillion years
39.
________ holds all of the planets in orbit around the sun.
a)
Gravity
b)
String
c)
Bill Nye
d)
Duct tape
40.
Gravity is due to:
a)
the pull between Earth and the moon.
b)
the pull between the Sun and Earth. 
c)
the pull between any objects with mass. 
d)
the pull between atomic nuclei. 
41.
The Northern Hemisphere is tilted away from the sun. Which statement is true about the solar energy received when the Northern Hemisphere is tilted away from the sun, compared to the Southern Hemisphere?
a)
The Northern Hemisphere receives less direct solar energy and is cooler.
b)
The Northern Hemisphere receives less direct solar energy and is warmer.
c)
The Northern Hemisphere receives more direct solar energy and is cooler.
d)
The Northern Hemisphere receives more direct solar energy and is warmer.
42.
Why do we experience the changing of  seasons on Earth?
a)
Earth's tilt & rotation
b)
Earth's tilt & revolution
c)
Earth's rotation & rovolution
d)
Earth's tilt & resolution
43.

The diagram below shows the relative positions of Earth and the Moon and rays of sunlight. Based on the diagram, which of the following best represents how the Moon would appear as seen from Earth?

a)
b)
c)
d)
44.

What is the best explanation of moon phases?

a)

As the moon passes behind Earth, it is covered by Earth’s shadow.

b)

As the moon orbits Earth we see different amounts of the illuminated side of the moon.

c)

The seasons cause the phases of the moon.

d)

The moon is brighter when it is closer to the sun.

45.

How much of the moon is always reflecting light from the sun?

a)

Half of the moon is reflecting sunlight only during the new moon phase.

b)

Half of the moon is reflecting sunlight only during the full moon phase.

c)

All of the moon is reflecting sunlight at all times.

d)

Half of the moon is reflecting sunlight at all times.

46.

How do scientists believe gravity influenced the formation of the planets in our solar system?

a)

A large cloud of gas and dust ignited into a planet.

b)

Gravity pulled the planets out of the Sun.

c)

A large explosion created the planets.

d)

Large pieces of debris clumped together to form planets.

47.

What are the steps of the Nebular Theory?

a)

Step 1: A tiny point rapidly expanded

Step 2: Helium was compressed into stars

Step 3: The stars explode and turn into planets

b)

Step 1: Gravity pulled together atoms in a nebula

Step 2: Nuclear fusion occurred and a star is born

Step 3: Smaller clumps around the star formed into planets

c)

Step 1: The solar system formed because of the Big Bang

Step 2: Our solar system was the first one

Step 3: Dark energy is pushing other solar systems away

d)

Step 1: Gaseous planets will orbit the Sun slower

Step 2: Rocky planets will orbit the Sun faster

Step 3: The Sun will vaporize all the inner planets

48.

According to the current theory used to explain the origin of our solar system, which of the following would be a logical inference about newly discovered planetary systems?

 

 

a)

Planetary systems contain about one-tenth the mass of their central star.

b)

Planetary systems were formed by fusion of hydrogen in their cores.

c)

Planetary systems were captured into orbit by their central star's

d)

Planetary systems were formed from the same nebular cloud as their central star.

49.

The Force of gravity is INVERSELY proportional to _________.

a)

Mass

b)

Weight

c)

Distance

d)

Time

50.
A planet moves fastest during its orbit around the Sun at the when 
a)
it is closest to the sun and gravity has a stronger pull
b)
it is farthest from the sun and gravity has a stronger pull
c)
it is closest to the sun and gravity has a weak pull
d)
it is farthest from the sun and gravity has a weak pull
51.

One piece of evidence that supports the big bang theory is the observation that most galaxies are

a)

moving toward our galaxy.

b)

moving toward on another.

c)

moving away from one another.

d)

not moving.

52.

The apparent shift in position of an abject when viewed from two different places is called

a)

parallax

b)

apparent magnitude

c)

absolute magnitude

d)

nebula

53.

As galaxies move away from our galaxy

a shift on the electromagnetic spectrum

(EMS) is noticed. This phenomena is

called _____________.

a)

redshift

b)

blueshift

c)

unshift

d)

blackshift

54.
Which is evidence for the Big Bang?
a)
blue shift
b)
cosmic background radiation
c)
black holes
d)
x-rays
55.

When light waves are moving away from us why are the waves redshifted?

a)

the light waves are stretched

b)

the light waves are squished

c)

they aren't redshifted

56.
Rank the four fundamental forces of nature in order from weakest to strongest:  
a)
Electromagnetism, Gravity, Strong Nuclear, Weak Nuclear
b)
Weak Nuclear, Gravity, Electromagnetism, Strong Nuclear
c)
Gravity, Weak Nuclear,  Electromagnetism, Strong Nuclear
d)
Weak Nuclear, Electromagnetism, Gravity, Strong Nuclear
57.

An Astronomical Unit is the average distance between

a)

the Earth and the Moon.

b)

the Earth and the Sun.

c)

the Moon and the Sun.

d)

the Earth and Jupiter.

58.

What is a Parsec?

a)

It is the distance a star's angle shifts in one day.

b)

It is the distance a star's angle shifts in one year.

c)

It is the distance a star's angle shifts in one month.

d)

It is the distance a star's angle shifts in two years.

59.

How many light years are in one parsec?

a)

3.26

b)

1/3600

c)

8.2

d)

360

60.

What is the name given to the dispersed energy in the universe that provides evidence for the big bang?

a)

Cosmic background radiation

b)

Chemical blast radiation

c)

Dispersed stellar radiation

d)

Electromagnetic radiation

61.

The process that heat is transferred by circulation of matter through a fluid is

a)

radiation

b)

convection

c)

conduction

62.

The process by which energy is transferred as electromagnetic waves is called

a)

radiation

b)

convection

c)

conduction

63.

The sun produces large amounts of energy. By what process does the sun produce energy?

a)

radiation

b)

convection

c)

nuclear fusion

d)

electromagnetic radiation

64.
Compared to the rest of the stars, our sun is considered...
a)
Extremely Large and Cold
b)
Small with a medium temperature
c)
Medium size with medium temperature
65.
Which category is our Sun located in?
a)
White Dwarfs
b)
Supergiants
c)
Main Sequence
d)
Giants
66.
Red stars are the _____________.
a)
hottest
b)
coolest
c)
biggest
d)
brightest
67.
Look at the H-R diagram. Which star is
sort of cool, dim (not too much light), and red?
a)
Betelguse
b)
Sirius B
c)
Procyon B
d)
Barnard's star
68.
The H-R diagram is a graph that shows the relationship between ______________ for stars. 
a)
temperature and color
b)
temperature and brightness
c)
brightness and color
d)
distance and brightness
69.
Most stars are made of which elements?
a)
Hydrogen only
b)
Hydrogen and Lithium
c)
Hydrogen and Sodium
d)
Hydrogen and Helium
70.
A supergiant might explode and become a_____.
a)
main sequence stars
b)
white dwarf
c)
supernova
d)
nebula
71.

What will be the next stage in our star the sun's life cycle?

a)

supernova

b)

white dwarf

c)

blackhole

d)

red giant

72.
Parallax is used to determine a star’s
a)
distance from Earth.
b)
temperature.
c)
composition.
d)
brightness.
73.
Characteristics used to classify stars include
a)
distance, size, and color.
b)
size, distance, and brightness.
c)
color, brightness, and distance.
d)
size, brightness, and temperature.
74.
The Hertzsprung-Russell diagram shows that main-sequence stars
a)
are mostly hot and dim.
b)
are mostly cool and bright.
c)
increase in brightness as they increase in temperature.
d)
decrease in brightness as they increase in temperature.
75.
Astronomers typically measure distances to stars in units called
a)
kilometers.
b)
light-years.
c)
parallax.
d)
electromagnetic spectrum.
76.
Gravity plays an important role in forming _____________, stars, and planets.
a)
solar systems
b)
meteroids
c)
asteroids
d)
galaxies
77.

All stars begin their life in a

a)

Main Sequence

b)

Nebula

c)

Protostar

d)

Black Dwarf

78.
A gigantic explosion that causes the death of a large star is called
a)
pulsar
b)
red giant 
c)
supernova
d)
black hole
79.
What is the name of baby stars?
a)
Dwarf
b)
Supergiant
c)
Protostars
d)
Nebulas
80.
Where is the site of hydrogen fusion?
a)
prominence
b)
sun spot
c)
filaments
d)
core
81.

Based on the information in the table, list the stars from dimmest to brightest when viewed from Earth's surface.

a)

A, B, C, D

b)

D, A, B, C

c)

A, C, B, D

d)

D, B, C, A

82.

The picture below shows a scan of a nebula. There are two images. One image was created using visible light and the other using infrared light. Notice the two arrows point to two celestial objects in the infrared image. These two celestial objects are believed to be newly developed stars.


Which of the following reason are the two celestial objects visible only in the infrared image?

a)

The infrared image detects brighter objects.

b)

The visible light image detects brighter objects.

c)

The two celestial objects give off more infrared light than visible light.

d)

The two celestial objects give off more visible light than infrared light.

83.

Both radio waves and microwaves can be used for communication purposes. Which statement correctly compares these two types of electromagnetic waves?

 

a)

Radio waves travel faster than microwaves.

b)

Microwaves have a longer wavelength than radio waves.

c)

Microwaves are higher in energy than radio waves.

d)

Radio waves have a higher frequency compared to microwaves.

84.

The energy that is radiated to Earth by the Sun includes visible light, infrared radiation, ultraviolet radiation, and other types. These different forms of radiation are distinguished based on what property?

a)

Amplitude

b)

Wavelength

c)

Speed

d)

Intensity

85.

In 1984, Lansat 5 was launched into space. This satellite is still operating today and has produced over 700,000 images. These images contain red, blue, and green wavelengths of light. These wavelengths were produced by the sunlight that bounced off Earth’s surface. What type of electromagnetic radiation does Lansat 5 use to produce these images? 

a)

Visible light

b)

Radio waves

c)

Gamma Rays

d)

Ultraviolet Light

86.

In which list are forms of electromagnetic energy arranged in order from highest to lowest frequency?

a)

radiowaves, gamma waves, ultraviolet waves, microwaves

b)

x-rays, visible light, microwaves, radiowaves

c)

visible light, infrared, ultraviolet waves, x-rays

d)

infrared, visible light, ultraviolet waves, gamma waves

87.

What is a body of saturated underground rock containing water?

a)

Sinkhole

b)

Cavern

c)

Aquifer

d)

Lake

88.

This landform can be made when a sinkhole becomes plugged with sediment and fills with water.

a)

River Delta

b)

Cavern

c)

Lake

d)

RIver

89.

This landform is made when a rivers speed slows down and sediment is deposited.

a)

River Delta

b)

Coastline

c)

Dune

d)

Lake

90.

This landform is made when carbonic acid dissolves underground rock.

a)

Mountain

b)

Cavern

c)

River Delta

d)

Coastline

91.

This landform is made when a cavern collapses and land falls into a cavity.

a)

Dune

b)

Mountain

c)

Sinkhole

d)

Aquifer

92.

Earth's surface is constantly changing and new landforms are constantly taking shape due to natural processes. Which landform is most likely caused by deposition?

a)

caves

b)

deltas

c)

lakes

d)

valleys

93.

One type of lake that can be found in Florida is perfectly round in shape. These lakes are formed when the acid in groundwater dissolves limestone underground, forming a cave. Eventually, the cave roof weakens and collapses, and then the cave fills with water. Which of the following is this type of landform called?

a)

an oxbow lake

b)

an volcanic lake

c)

a glacial lake

d)

a sinkhole lake

94.

Lake Eola is a sinkhole lake. Which of the following statements best describes how it formed?

a)

An underground cave collapsed due to groundwater erosion.

b)

Plate tectonic movement cracked the Earth and it filled with water.

c)

A cut-off meander of a stream formed a crescent-shaped lake.

d)

A chunk of ice deposited by a glacier melted, and the glacial drift around the former ice block held the water in place.

95.

Dissolving, Oxidation, and Acid Rain are examples of what kind of weathering?

a)
Mechanical Weathering
b)
Abrasion 
c)
Chemical Weathering
d)

Erosion

96.

The physical breaking down of rocks into smaller pieces is...

a)

Mechanical weathering

b)

Chemical weathering

c)

All weathering

d)

Erosion weathering

97.

How is mechanical weathering different from chemical weathering?

a)

Chemical weathering happens over a much shorter time frame than mechanical weathering

b)

Chemical weathering occurs in the tropics; mechanical weathering occurs in temperate climates

c)

Chemical weathering occurs in mountains; mechanical weathering occurs on flat surfaces

d)

Chemical weathering changes the chemical composition of materials; mechanical weathering does not

98.

What is the difference between weathering and erosion?

a)

Erosion breaks down the rocks, and weathering carries the broken pieces away.

b)

Erosion carries broken pieces away, and weathering builds the pieces back up into another land mass.

c)

Weathering carries broken pieces away, and erosion builds the pieces back up into another land mass.

d)

Weathering breaks down rocks, and erosion carries the broken pieces away.

99.

The tallest sand dunes in North America are found in Great Sand Dunes National Park and Preserve in Colorado. These dunes were formed from the sand at the bottom of a dry lake bed. Which of the following agents is most likely responsible for the formation of the sand dunes?

a)

Wind

b)

Water

c)

Ice

d)

Gravity

100.

Sand Key is a barrier island located along the coast of Florida. Which process most likely caused Sand Key to form? SC.6.E.6.1

a)

sudden erosion of a sandbar

b)

deposition of sand over time

c)

wearing down of rocky cliffs

d)

transfer of sand along a beach

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