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Worksheets

HBS EOC Review

Total questions: 167

Worksheet time: 2hrs 53mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The sternum is ______ to the humerus.

a)

medial

b)

lateral

c)

superior

d)

inferior

2.

Blood, bone, and fat are all examples of _____ tissue.

a)

transport

b)

support

c)

connective

d)

epithelial

3.

If you fracture your ulna, you have broken a bone in your

a)

arm

b)

leg

c)

foot

d)

hand

4.

A restriction enzyme

a)

cuts DNA in a defined pattern, such as every 5th BP

b)

Can Cut DNA randomly

c)

recognizes a specific sequence and cuts DNA

d)

all of the above

5.

This pelvis most likely belongs to a

a)

male

b)

female

6.
Which type of muscle tissue would line the intestines?
a)
Smooth
b)
Cardiac
c)
Skeletal
d)
Transitional
7.
What type of Connective tissue is found at the ends of bones to reduce friction?
a)
Cartilage
b)
Dense connective tissue
c)
Adipose Tissue
d)
Loose connective tissue
8.
What type of tissue SIGNALS the intestines to move food along?
a)
Nervous Tissue
b)
Blood Tissue
c)
Smooth muscle tissue
d)
Skeletal Muscle Tissue
9.
What type of muscle tissue is VOLUNTARILY controlled
a)
Skeletal Only
b)
Skeletal and Cardiac
c)
Smooth and Cardiac
d)
Cardiac Only
10.
What determines the code, or information, of a DNA molecule?
a)
the shape (structure) of the nitrogen bases
b)
the order (sequence) of the nitrogen bases
c)
the color of the nitrogen bases
d)
the frequency (number) of nitrogen bases
11.
A process in which DNA has the unique ability to make an exact copy of itself.
a)
Replication
b)
Translation
c)
Transcription
12.

Gel electrophoresis is used to separate DNA fragments on the basis of which property?

a)

size

b)

color

c)

functions

d)

chromosomes

13.

Which suspect should be charged with the crime?

a)

Suspect 1

b)

Suspect 2

c)

Suspect 3

d)

None of these suspects

14.

The pieces of DNA left after a Restriction enzyme digests the DNA are called

a)

amplicons

b)

short term nucleotides

c)

restriction fragment length polymorphisms

d)

nucleodigests

15.

The bones highlighted in red are called the

a)

tibia

b)

fibula

c)

ulna

d)

femur

16.

The divisions of the nervous system (choose all terms that apply)

a)

central

b)

peripheral

c)

sensory

d)

motor

17.

The part of the brain responsible for processing sight

a)

frontal

b)

temporal

c)

occipital

d)

cerebellum

18.
Which part of the neuron is a long fiber that send information to other cells?
a)
dendrite
b)
terminal
c)
cell body
d)
axon
19.
Which part of the brain controls balance and body position?
a)
cerebrum
b)
medulla
c)
cerebellum
d)
impluses
20.
If I step on a nail...what type of neuron take that signal TO the CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM?
a)
interneurons
b)
motor
c)
sensory 
d)
receptors
21.
Which part of the brain controls vital functions such as breathing and heart rate?
a)
Diencephalon
b)
Frontal Lobe
c)
Brain Stem
d)
Cerebellum
22.
Neurons send signals in the brain and body via...
a)
neurotransmitters only
b)
electrical impulses only
c)
wifi
d)
neurotransmitters AND electrical signals
23.

Phineas Gage suffered a traumatic brain injury to his _________ that changed his personality and impulse control.

a)

frontal lobe

b)

parietal lobe

c)

temporal lobe

d)

cerebellum

24.

The 'master gland' that controls all the other endocrine glands in the body is the _________ gland

a)

thyroid

b)

pituitary

c)

adrenal

d)

thymus

25.

This endocrine gland regulates metabolism

a)

thymus

b)

hypothalamus

c)

pituitary

d)

thyroid

26.

The adrenal glands release two hormones, one is a 'fight' or 'flight' hormone and the other is a stress hormone (two answers)

a)

cortisol

b)

adrenaline

c)

melatonin

d)

ACH

27.

This hormone, released by the pancreas, helps RAISE blood glucose levels

a)

insulin

b)

glucagon

28.
The purpose of the endocrine system is to
a)
maintain homeostasis by reacting quickly to stimuli
b)
produce substances that protect the body from bacteria 
c)
maintain metabolism, growth and development in homeostasis 
d)
transport molecules throughout the body
29.
The purpose of the endocrine system is to
a)
maintain homeostasis by reacting quickly to stimuli
b)
produce substances that protect the body from bacteria 
c)
maintain metabolism, growth and development in homeostasis 
d)
transport molecules throughout the body
30.
targets bone and muscle to promote growth and development
a)
growth hormone
b)
prolactin
c)
oxytocin
d)
ADH (antidiuretic hormone)
31.
targets the brain and make people sleepy when its dark
a)
melanin
b)
melanoma
c)
melatonin
d)
melons
32.
a disease by which people cannot control sugar levels in the blood
a)
hypertension
b)
sleep apnea
c)
diabetes
d)
hyperthyroidism
33.
these hormones promote secondary sex characteristics in females
a)
testosterone and GH
b)
epinephrine and nor-epinephrine
c)
estrogen and progesterone
d)
prolactin and oxytocin
34.
The correct order of the glands/organs shown in the diagram is 
a)
hypothalamus, thyroid, pancreas, kidneys, ovaries, testes
b)
pituitary, thyroid, adrenal, pancreas, ovaries, testes
c)
pituitary, parathyroid, pancreas, adrenal, testes, ovaries
d)
non are correctly ordered
35.

Which ions are involved in the electrical nerve impulse (action potential)?

a)

Iodine and Sodium

b)

Potassium and Sodium

c)

Iron and Sodium

d)

Calcium and Iodine

36.
The knee joint is
a)
Hinge
b)
Gliding
c)
Ball and socket
d)
Pivot
37.
What type of tissue is bone?
a)
Nerve
b)
Muscle
c)
Epithelium
d)
Connective
38.
Connects bone to bone
a)
Ligament
b)
Tendon
c)
Cartilidge
39.
This type of joint allows the C1 and C2 to rotate as in shaking your head no
a)
condyloid
b)
gliding
c)
pivot
d)
saddle
40.
What is the name for the connector that attaches muscle to bone?
a)
ligament
b)
tendon
c)
patella
d)
string
41.
What are the 3 types of muscle tissue?
a)
Thigh, Calf, & Shoulder
b)
Traps, Forearm, & Abs
c)
Hamstring, Biceps, & Triceps
d)
Smooth Muscle, Cardiac Muscle, & Skeletal Muscle
42.
Muscles always work in _____
a)
pairs
b)
groups of 3
c)
bones
d)
joints
43.
What state is the sarcomere in #1
a)
Relaxed
b)
Contracting
c)
Fully Contracted
d)
None of the above
44.
What two chemicals are necessary for muscle contraction to occur?
a)
Niacin and Potassium
b)
Calcium and ATP
c)
Sodium and Potassium
d)
Ach and Potassium
45.
the thin filament in muscle cells
a)
myosin
b)
actin
c)
myoglobin
d)
hemoglobin
46.
What is required in order to allow the myosin head to bind to the actin binding site?
a)
glucose
b)
glycogen
c)
ATP
d)
the Na+/K+ pump
47.
What is the function of the cardiovascular system 
a)
carries oxygen and nutrients to body
b)
carries waste to excretory system
c)
defense against disease
d)
all of the above
48.
Bicuspid valve is also called __________
a)
tricuspid
b)
mitral
c)
pulmonary
d)
aortic
49.
The flow of blood between the heart and cells of body
a)
Systemic circulation
b)
Pulmonary circulation
c)
Oxygenated blood
d)
Deoxygenated blood
50.

The flow of blood between the heart and the lungs

a)

systemic circulation

b)

oxygenated circulation

c)

Pulmonary circulation

d)

none of the above

51.
________carry blood back to the heart
a)
arteries
b)
capillaries
c)
veins
d)
arterioles
52.
blood vessels that carry blood to the heart; have valves to prevent the backflow of blood
a)
arteries 
b)
veins
c)
capillaries
53.
Identify
a)
Left atrium
b)
Right atrium
c)
Left ventricle
d)
Right ventricle
54.
What is the pressure inside the arteries during contraction called.
a)
systolic
b)
diastolic
55.
A group of disorders that cause a thickening and hardening of the arteries
a)
Heart Disease
b)
Arteriosclerosis
c)
Hypertension
d)
Stroke
56.
A condition in which the pressure of the blood on the walls of the blood vessels stays at a level that is higher than normal
a)
Stroke
b)
Heart Attack
c)
Blood Pressure
d)
Hypertension
57.
Which of the following is a possible long-term side effect of smoking?
a)
Heart Disease
b)
Cancer
c)
Stroke
d)
All of these
58.
Enlarged, twisted, superficial veins, most commonly seen in the lower extremities.
a)
thrombophlebitis
b)
athreosclerosis
c)
arteriosclerosis
d)
varicose veins
59.

Smoking increases the risk of this condition, in which an artery is completely blocked and blood flow is compromised.

a)

myocardial infarction

b)

peripheral artery disease

c)

stroke

d)

congestive heart failure

60.

Arteries are more efficient than veins in blood flow

a)

true

b)

false

61.
The maintenance of relatively stable internal physiological conditions (as body temperature or the pH of blood) in higher animals under fluctuating environmental conditions.
a)
Equillibrium
b)
Static Equilibrium
c)
Homeosapiis
d)
Homeostasis
62.
A very large molecule (as of a protein, nucleic acid, or carbohydrate) built up from smaller chemical structures.
a)
Macrophage
b)
Micromolecule
c)
Macroroni
d)
Macromolecule
63.
An adenine-containing nucleoside triphosphate that releases free energy when its phosphate bonds are hydrolyzed. This energy is used to drive endergonic reactions in the cell.
a)
Adenosine cophosphate (ACT)
b)
Adenosine monophosphate (AMP)
c)
Adenosine triphosphate (ATP)
d)
Adenosine diphosphate (ADP)
64.
Synthetic, energy-requiring reactions whereby small molecules are built up into larger ones.
a)
Catabolism
b)
Metabolism
c)
Anabolism
d)
Canabolism
65.
The rate at which heat is given off by an organism at complete rest.
a)
Thermal dynamic output (TDO)
b)
Metabolic Output (MO)
c)
Basal metabolic rate (BMR)
d)
Body Mass Index (BMI)
66.
A measure of body fat that is the ratio of the weight of the body in kilograms to the square of its height in meters.
a)
Basal Metobolic Rate (BMR)
b)
Body Mass Index (BMI)
c)
Body weight index (BWI)
d)
Basal Mass Index (BMI)
67.
A soft mass of chewed food.
a)
Boolus
b)
Bolus
c)
Bowlus
d)
Bolous
68.
The amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of 1 g of water by 1 degree C. 
a)
Calorie
b)
calorie
c)
kilocalorie
d)
kalorie
69.
Chemical reactions that break down complex organic compounds into simple ones, with the net release of energy.
a)
Catabolism
b)
Anabolism
c)
Metabolism
d)
Canabolism
70.
A substance that enables a chemical reaction to proceed under different conditions (as at a lower temperature) than otherwise possible.
a)
Catalyst
b)
Synthesist
c)
Product
d)
Reactant
71.
The process of making food absorb-able by mechanically and enzymatic-ally breaking it down into simpler chemical compounds in the alimentary canal.
a)
Digestion
b)
Metabolism
c)
Anabolism
d)
Catabolism
72.
A protein serving as a catalyst, a chemical agent that changes the rate of reaction without being consumed by the reaction.
a)
Energy Molecule
b)
Enzyme
c)
Synthesist
d)
Accelorator
73.
A membranous muscular sac in which bile from the liver is stored.
a)
Kidney
b)
Bile Duct
c)
Gallbladder
d)
Sphincter
74.
The stomach and intestine as a functional unit.
a)
Digestive Tract
b)
Gastric by-pass
c)
Gastrointestinal tract
d)
Gastric tract
75.
The more terminal division of the vertebrate intestine that is wider and shorter than the small intestine, typically divided into cecum, colon, and rectum, and concerned especially with the resorption of water and the formation of feces.
a)
Small intestine
b)
Duodenum
c)
Large intestine
d)
Colon
76.
The largest internal organ in the vertebrate body; performs diverse functions such as producing bile, preparing nitrogenous wastes for disposal, and detoxifying poisonous chemicals in the blood.
a)
Stomach
b)
Skin
c)
Lungs
d)
Liver
77.
The totality of an organism's chemical reactions, consisting of catabolic and anabolic pathways.
a)
Digestion
b)
Excretion
c)
Cellular Respiration
d)
Metabolism
78.
A molecule that can combine with others to form a polymer.
a)
Unomer
b)
Polymer
c)
Duonomer
d)
Monomer
79.
A gland with dual functions: The non-endocrine portion secretes digestive enzymes and an alkaline solution into the small intestine via a duct; the endocrine portion secretes the hormones insulin and glucagon into the blood.
a)
Stomach
b)
Spleen
c)
Pancreas
d)
Kidney
80.
Successive muscular contractions along the wall of a hollow muscular structure.
a)
Peralysis
b)
Periostasis
c)
Peristalsis
d)
Peristylus
81.
A large molecule composed of repeating structural units or monomers.
a)
Monomer
b)
Polymer
c)
Multimer
d)
Diameter
82.
A salivary gland enzyme that hydrolyzes starch.
a)
Alpha amylase
b)
Salivary amylase
c)
Lipase
d)
Salivary Tryptase
83.
The part of the intestine that lies between the stomach and colon, consists of duodenum, jejunum, and ileum, secretes digestive enzymes, and is the chief site of the absorption of digested nutrients.
a)
Small intestine
b)
Duodenum
c)
Ascending colon
d)
Transverse colon
84.
A substance acted upon by an enzyme.
a)
Amylase
b)
Substrate
c)
Accelerator
d)
Lipase
85.
Terminal air sacs that constitute the gas exchange surface of the lungs.
a)
Brachiae
b)
Alveoli
c)
Brachioles
d)
Bronchi
86.
Pair of breathing tubes that branch from the trachea into the lungs.
a)
Brochioles
b)
Alveoli
c)
Bronchi
d)
Trachiae
87.
A sheet of muscle that forms the bottom wall of the thoracic cavity in mammals; active in ventilating the lungs.
a)
Cardiac Notch
b)
Pulmonary Vein
c)
Diaphragm
d)
Pulmonary Muscle
88.
Muscle located between the ribs.
a)
Rectus Abdominus
b)
Serratus Anterior
c)
Intercostal Muscle
d)
Internal Obliques
89.
The volume of air remaining in lungs after maximum exhalation.
a)
Tidal Volume
b)
Residual Volume
c)
External Volume
d)
Total Volume
90.
An instrument for measuring the air entering and leaving the lungs.
a)
Lung Volume Meter
b)
Air Flow Meter
c)
Spirometer
d)
Aerometer
91.
The volume of air breathed in and out without conscious effort.
a)
Reserve Volume
b)
Lung Volume
c)
Tidal Volume
d)
Residual Volume
92.
The total volume of air that can be exhaled after maximal inhalation.
a)
Total Lung Capacity
b)
Exhalation Total Volume
c)
Inspiratory Volume
d)
Vital Capacity
93.
A mineralcortocoid produced by the adrenal cortex that promotes sodium and water reabsorption by the kidneys and potassium excretion in urine.
a)
Hypothyroid
b)
Testosterone
c)
Hypothalamus 
d)
Aldosterone
94.
Hormone produced by the neurosecretory cells in the hypothalamus that stimulates water reabsorption from kidney tubule cells into the blood and vasoconstriction of arterioles.
a)
Estrogen
b)
Cortisol
c)
Antidiuretic Hormone 
d)
Insulin
95.
The disposal of nitrogen-containing waste products of metabolism.
a)
Exhalation
b)
Absorbtion
c)
Excretion
d)
Filtering
96.
In the vertebrate kidney, the extraction of water and small solutes, including metabolic wastes, from the blood by the nephrons.
a)
Reabsorption
b)
Asbsorption
c)
Filtration
d)
Purification
97.
The first step in urine formation in which substances in blood pass through the filtration membrane and the filtrate enters the proximal convoluted tubule of the nephron.
a)
Bowman's Capsule Filtration
b)
Glomerular Filtration
c)
Distal Tube Filtration
d)
Loop of Henle Filtration
98.
A ball of capillaries surrounded by Bowmans capsule in the nephron and serving as the site of filtration in the vertebrate kidney.
a)
Bowman's Filter
b)
Glomerulus
c)
Loop  of Henle
d)
Distal Tubual
99.
The tubular excretory unit of the vertebrate kidney.
a)
Nephron
b)
Distal Tubule
c)
Proximal Tubule
d)
Gomerulus
100.
Chemical analysis of urine.
a)
UTI
b)
Urinalysis
c)
Renal Analysis
d)
Urinitus
101.
Identify Letter A
a)
Adrenal Gland
b)
Renal Artery
c)
Renal Vein
d)
Renal Pelvis
102.
Identify Letter D
a)
Adrenal Gland
b)
Renal Artery
c)
Renal Vein
d)
Renal Pelvis
103.
Identify Letter E
a)
Ureter
b)
Renal Capsule
c)
Renal Coretx
d)
Renal Medulla
104.
A major waste product located in urine
a)
urea
b)
urologist
c)
UTI
d)
polyuira
105.

What is the main function of the kidney?

a)

extract waste from blood, balance body fluid & form urine

b)

break down and digest food in order to extract necessary nutrients from what you have eaten

c)

stores urine, allowing urination to be infrequent and voluntary

d)

plays an essential role in converting the food we eat into fuel for the body's cells

106.

Identify

a)

Proximal convoluted tubule

b)

Distal convoluted tubule

c)

Glomerulus

d)

Glomerular capsule

107.

Identify

a)

Proximal convoluted tubule

b)

Distal convoluted tubule

c)

Loop of Henle

d)

Collecting duct

108.
Identify Letter A
a)
Bowman's Capsule
b)
Afferent Arteriole
c)
Efferent Arteriole
d)
Glomerulus
109.
Identify Letter C
a)
Bowman's Capsule
b)
Afferent Arteriole
c)
Efferent Arteriole
d)
Glomerulus
110.
Identify Letter G
a)
Renal Artery
b)
Renal Vein
c)
Descending Loop of Henle
d)
Proximal Convoluted Tubule
111.
Identify Letter H
a)
Renal Artery
b)
Renal Vein
c)
Descending Loop of Henle
d)
Proximal Convoluted Tubule
112.

In the collecting duct, what is reabsorbed in the presence of ADH?

a)

Ions like Na+ and Cl-

b)

Nutrients like glucose and amino acids

c)

Substances like drug metabolites and waste

d)

Water

113.

After the process of filtration, the filtrate enters into the proximal convoluted tubule where most of the water, amino acids, and glucose are...

a)

stored in the bladder

b)

excreted through the ureters

c)

reabsorbed

d)

concentrated in the urine

114.
What is diffusion?
a)
when molecules move 
b)
when molecules move from a high concentration to a low.
c)
no movement 
d)
molecules move everywhere
115.

Glucose/sugar and oxygen are...

a)

products of cell respiration

b)

reactants of cell respiration

116.

carbon dioxide and water are

a)

reactants of cell respiration

b)

products of cell respiration

117.

Cells do cell respiration in order to make

a)

water

b)

glucose

c)

energy (ATP)

d)

oxygen

118.

Which cell organelle carries out cell respiration?

a)

chloroplasts

b)

nucleus

c)

mitochondria

d)

cell membrane

119.
Where is the bronchi?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
120.
What is #6?
a)
Aveoli
b)
Lung
c)
Vocal Cord
d)
Trachea
121.
Name the structure labeled 8 
a)
lungs 
b)
trachea 
c)
diaphragm 
d)
alveoli 
122.
Nutrients from digested food are absorbed in which digestive organ?
a)
Small Intestine
b)
Stomach
c)
Large Intestine
d)
Gallbladder
123.
Number 3 is pointing to the...
a)
Small intestine
b)
Rectum
c)
Large intestine
d)
Stomach
124.
Number 2 is pointing to the...
a)
Esophagus
b)
Stomach
c)
Small intestine
d)
Anus
125.
Which organ pushes food down to the stomach?
a)
Mouth
b)
Esophagus
c)
Rectum
d)
Large intestine
126.
Which body system gets ride of solid waste?
a)
Excretory (Urinary)
b)
Digestive
c)
Circulatory
d)
Respiratory
127.
As waste moves through the digestive system, the ______ absorbs water before storing waste in the rectum.
a)
Small intestine
b)
Stomach
c)
Esophagus
d)
Large intestine
128.
Which is NOT a function of the Digestive System?
a)
To rid the body of solid waste
b)
Absorb nutrients for energy & growth
c)
Break down nutrients from food
d)
Pump blood around the body
129.
Where does digestion begin?
a)
Mouth
b)
Esophagus
c)
Stomach
d)
Small Intestine
130.

What is the correct order of digestion?

a)

Mouth - stomach - esophagus - Large intestine - Small intestine - anus - rectum

b)

Mouth - esophagus - stomach - gall bladder - small intestine - rectum - anus - large intestine

c)

Mouth - pancreas - stomach - rectum - gall bladder - small intestine - rectum - anus

d)

Mouth - esophagus - stomach - small intestine - large intestine - rectum - anus

131.
a)
First Degree Burn
b)
Second Degree Burn
c)
Third Degree Burn
d)
Fourth Degree Burn
132.
A sunburn might be an example of a:
a)
1st degree burn
b)
2nd degree burn
c)
3rd degree burn
d)
4th degree burn
133.
What is the purpose / function of the skin?
a)
protection
b)
temperature maintenance
c)
excretion and sensory reception
d)
all of the choices
134.
Which is the thin, most superficial layer of skin?
a)
Epidermis
b)
Dermis
c)
Hypodermis
135.
Which layer contains accessory structures such as sweat glands, sebaceous glands, and hair follicles?
a)
epidermis
b)
dermis
c)
hypodermis
d)
hyperdermis
136.
Skin and eye color is due to a pigment called ____.
a)
Keratin
b)
Melanin
c)
Chromatin
d)
Epithelium
137.
This function of the skin allows  the body to retain or lose heat.
a)
body temperature regulation
b)
storage
c)
excretion
d)
absorption
138.
The skin helps to produce _______________ by using UV rays from the sun.
a)
Vitamin A
b)
Vitamin C
c)
Vitamin D
d)
Vitamin K
139.
What is the most painful type of burn?
a)
First-degree burns, because the outer skin is so sensitive
b)
Third-degree burns, because they are the most severe
c)
Second-degree burns, because nerve endings are still intact even though tissue damage is severe
d)
All types of burns are excruciatingly painful
140.
Place in order from outside to inside:
A.) Dermis;
B.) Epidermis;
C.) Subcutaneous tissue
a)
A B C
b)
B A C
c)
B C A 
d)
A C B 
141.
What is the biggest bone in your body?
a)
fibula
b)
humerus
c)
pelvis
d)
femur
142.
What does your bone marrow make?
a)
muscles
b)
cartilage
c)
blood cells
d)
germs
143.

A Ballerina reports to the emergency room with severe leg pain, not able to walk on the leg. She states that she was doing a spin and she landed incorrectly, twisting her ankle and leg. Her X-ray does indicate a fracture. What type fracture does she most likely have?

a)

greenstick fracture

b)

spiral fracture

c)

comminuted fracture

d)

compound fracture

144.

This type of fracture is most likely a

a)

greenstick

b)

compound

c)

spiral

d)

transverse

145.

The following are the stages of bone repair after a fracture

I. Bony Callus

II. Hematoma

III. Fibrocartilage Callus

IV. Bone remodeling

Put the stages in the correct order

a)

I, II, III, IV

b)

IV, II, I, III

c)

II, III, I, IV

d)

II, III, IV, I

146.

When a baby is born, she has 'soft spots' in the skull because the bones have not fused together

a)

True

b)

False

147.

Yellow marrow in the bone is mostly

a)

blood plasma

b)

protein

c)

fat

d)

spongy bone

148.

If you blood calcium level is high, the thyroid releases calcitonin which will cause osteoblasts to

a)

use blood calcium to build bone

b)

break down bone to release calcium

c)

I

149.

True or false: pain is a sensation that can be overridden with adrenaline and other endorphins

a)

true

b)

false

150.
Upper, anterior thorax, above the heart also considered an endorcrine gland
a)
Lymph
b)
thymus gland
c)
immunity
d)
passive acquired immunity
151.
The body's ability to resist bacterial invasion and disease.
a)
Immunity
b)
Passive acquired immunity
c)
natural immunity
d)
artificial acquired immunity
152.

What are the oval-shaped structures that store lymphocytes and filter out pathogens?

a)

Lymph

b)

Lymph Vessels

c)

Lymph Nodes

d)

Lymph Glands

153.

What transports lymph fluid back to the circulatory system?

a)

Lymph

b)

Lymph Vessels

c)

Lymph Nodes

d)

Lymph Glands

154.
Two main organs of the lymph system:
a)
Thymus & Pancreas
b)
Pancreas & Thyroid
c)
Spleen & Thymus
d)
Tonsils & Thyroid
155.
What is the purpose of antibodies?
a)
To pump lymph through the vessels
b)
To create lymph
c)
To fight infection
d)
To remove old red blood cells
156.

A long-lived lymphocyte that carries the antibody or receptor for a specific antigen after a first exposure to the antigen and that remains in a less than mature state until stimulated by a second exposure to the antigen at which time it mounts a more effective immune response than a cell which has not been exposed previously.

a)

Memory Cell

b)

Lymph node

c)

Macrophage

d)

Lymphocyte

157.

A foreign macromolecule that does not belong to the host organism and elicits and immune response.

a)

. Antigen

b)

Antibody

c)

Pathogen

d)

Alleles

158.

A type of lymphocyte responsible for cell-mediated immunity that differentiates under the influence of the thymus.

a)

. Lymphocyte

b)

B Lymphocyte (B cells)

c)

. Blood Type (Group)

d)

T Lymphocyte (T cell)

159.

Clumping of microorganisms or blood cells, typically due to an antigen-antibody interaction

a)

Macrophage

b)

Antigen

c)

Antibody

d)

Agglutination

160.

An antigen-binding immunoglobulin, produced by B cells, that functions as the effector in an immune response.

a)

. Macrophage

b)

Antigen

c)

Antibody

d)

Immunity

161.

A type of lymphocyte that develops in the bone marrow and later produces antibodies, which mediate humeral immunity

a)

B Lymphocyte (B cells

b)

B. T Lymphocyte (T cell)

c)

C. Lymphocyte

d)

d. Blood Type (Group)

162.

Bone tissue that consists of an irregular latticework of thin plates of bone called trabeculae; found inside short, flat, and irregular bones and in the epiphyses of long bone.

a)

A. Bone Remodeling

b)

B. Bone Marrow

c)

C. Compact Bone

d)

D. Spongy (cancellous) bone

163.

A bone-forming cell.

a)

A. Osteoblast

b)

B. Osteoclast

c)

C. Diaphysis

d)

D. Osteocyte

164.

A growth of new bone tissue in and around a fractured area, ultimately replaced by mature bone.

a)

A. Calcitonin

b)

B. Cartilage

c)

C. Osteoclast

d)

D. Callus

165.

A polypeptide hormone especially from the thyroid gland that tends to lower the level of calcium in the blood plasma

a)

A. Calcitonin

b)

B. Osteoclast

c)

C. Bone Marrow

d)

D. Compact Bone

166.

Any of the large multinucleate cells closely associated with areas of bone resorption (as in a fracture that is healing).

a)

A. Osteocyte

b)

B. Osteoblast

c)

C. Osteoclast

d)

Bone Marrow

167.

Bone tissue that contains few spaces between osteons; forms the external portion of all bones and the bulk of the diaphysis (shaft) of long bones.

a)

A. Spongy (cancellous) bone

b)

B. Bone Marrow

c)

C. Compact Bone

d)

D. Calcitonin

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