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Anatomy Final

Total questions: 185

Worksheet time: 2hrs 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Anatomy and Physiology are difficult to separate because

a)

body parts take up space

b)

physiological functions depend on anatomical structures

c)

our understanding of physiology is changing more than our understanding of anatomy

d)

physiological functions in an organism are ongoing

2.

The activities of an anatomist consist of _____, whereas those of a physiologist consist of ______.

a)

studying molecules; observing forms of the body parts

b)

observing body parts; studying functions of body parts

c)

conducting experiments; making microscopic examinations

d)

sketching; dissecting

3.

Which of the following lists best illustrates the idea of increasing level of complexity?

a)

organelles, cells, tissues, organs, organ systems

b)

cells, tissues, organelles, organs, organ systems

c)

organs, organelles, organ systems, cells, tissues

d)

tissues, cells, organs, organelles, organ systems

4.

The removal of wastes produced by metabolic reactions is

a)

absorption

b)

assimilation

c)

metabolism

d)

excretion

5.

Homeostasis is the

a)

inability to keep body weight within normal limits

b)

ingestion of more food than you need to eat

c)

decrease in room temperature because a window is open

d)

the tendency of the body to maintain a stable internal environment

6.

In negative feedback mechanisms, changes away from the normal state (set point)

a)

inhibit all body reactions

b)

stimulate a reduction in all requirements of the body

c)

stimulate changes in the same direction

d)

stimulate changes in the opposite direction

7.

Positive feedback mechanisms

a)

move conditions away from the normal state (set point)

b)

usually produce stable conditions

c)

bring conditions back to the normal state

d)

cause long-term changes

8.

Which of the following organs is in the abdominopelvic cavity?

a)

the liver

b)

the heart

c)

the thymus

d)

the trachea

9.

The membrane on the surface of a lung is called the

a)

parietal pericardium

b)

visceral pericardium

c)

parietal pleura

d)

visceral pleura

10.

The thoracic cavity lies ________ the abdominopelivc cavity.

a)

ventral (anterior) to

b)

dorsal (posterior) to

c)

inferior to

d)

superior to

11.

Blood cells are produced in the organs of the______ system.

a)

skeletal

b)

respiratory

c)

muscular

d)

endocrine

12.

A parietal layer of a serous membrane ______, whereas as visceral layer of a serous membrane _______.

a)

lines cavities; covers organs

b)

secretes mucus; secretes a serous fluid

c)

covers organs; lines cavities

d)

secretes serous fluid; secrete mucus

13.

1 is _____

2 is _____

a)

cranial cavity, thoracic cavity

b)

vertebral canal, cranial cavity

c)

cranial cavity, diaphragm

d)

abdominal cavity, thoracic cavity

14.

3 is _____

4 is _____

a)

diaphragm, cranial cavity

b)

vertebral canal, diaphragm

c)

abdominal cavity, diaphragm

d)

pelvic cavity, vertebral canal

15.

5 is ______

6 is ______

a)

cranial cavity, thoracic cavity

b)

vertebral canal, diaphragm

c)

abdominal cavity, pelvic cavity

d)

thoracic cavity, pelvic cavity

16.

What is A and B?

a)

Proximal, Distal

b)

Medial, Lateral

c)

Superior, Inferior

d)

Anterior, Posterior

17.

What is C and D?

a)

Posterior, Anferior

b)

Superior, Inferior

c)

Medial, Lateral

d)

Proximal, Distal

18.

What is E and F?

a)

Proximal, Distal

b)

Superior, Inferior

c)

Anterior, Posterior

d)

Medial, Lateral

19.

What is G and H?

a)

Anterior, Posterior

b)

Superior, Inferior

c)

Medial, Lateral

d)

Proximal, Distal

20.

What is 1?

a)

Axillary

b)

Otic

c)

Tarsal

d)

Sural

21.

What is 12?

a)

Dorsal

b)

Femoral

c)

Patellar

d)

Sural

22.

What is 3?

a)

Umbilical

b)

Occipital

c)

Sternal

d)

Axillary

23.

What is B?

a)

endocrine system

b)

urinary system

c)

nervous system

d)

lymphatic system

24.

What is D?

a)

nervous system

b)

respiratory system

c)

lymphatic system

d)

digestive system

25.

What is E?

a)

digestive system

b)

urinary system

c)

cardiovascular system

d)

respiratory system

26.

What is the RED plane?

a)

sagittal plane

b)

coronal plane

c)

transverse plane

d)

frontal plane

27.

What is the GREEN plane?

a)

transverse plane

b)

horizontal plane

c)

coronal plane

d)

sagittal plane

28.

What is the PURPLE plane?

a)

frontal plane

b)

coronal plane

c)

sagittal plane

d)

transverse plane

29.

Histology is the study of

a)

organ function

b)

cells

c)

tissues

d)

molecules

30.

A basement membrane anchors

a)

brain tissue to nervous tissue

b)

muscle tissue to nervous tissue

c)

epithelial tissue to connective tissue

d)

connective tissue to muscle tissue

31.

Epithelial tissue functions in

a)

secretion, absorption, and protection

b)

contraction, movement, and reflexes

c)

reacting to stimuli, thinking, and remembering

d)

nourishing and hydrating tissues

32.

The type of epithelium that lines the urinary bladder and many of the urinary passageways is

a)

pseudostratified

b)

transitional

c)

columnar

d)

cuboidal

33.

This tissue lines the follicles of the thyroid glands

a)

simple squamous epithelium

b)

simple cuboidal epithelium

c)

stratified cuboidal epithelium

d)

glandular epithelium

34.

The type of epithelium that secretes into ducts that open onto surfaces like skin or into body fluids is

a)

transitional epithelium

b)

simple squamous epithelium

c)

stratified cuboidal epithelium

d)

glandular epithelium

35.

Areolar tissue contains

a)

many adipocytes filled with fat

b)

osteocytes, osteoblasts, and canaliculi

c)

collangenous fibers, elastic fibers, and gel-like ground substance

d)

chondrocytes and lacunae

36.

Tendons and ligaments are composed primarily of

a)

dense regular connective tissue

b)

reticular connective tissue

c)

muscle tissue

d)

dense irregular tissue

37.

A general characteristic of connective tissue is that it

a)

lines organs

b)

covers the outside of organs

c)

has no blood supply

d)

consists of cells with much extracellular material

38.

Adipose tissue is a form of

a)

nervous tissue

b)

epithelium

c)

connective tissue

d)

muscle

39.

A _______ membrane lines tube and cavities that open to the outside of the body.

a)

mucous

b)

cuntaneous

c)

synovial

d)

serous

40.

"cutaneous membrane" refers to

a)

skin

b)

bones

c)

mucus

d)

cartilage

41.

What is this tissue?

a)

simple columnar

b)

stratified cuboidal

c)

pseudostratified columnar

d)

adipose tissue

42.

What is the function of the tissue in this image?

a)

Protect against infectious particles

b)

Transport materials in between cell layers

c)

sending signals

d)

absorption of "food" nutrients

43.

What is this?

a)

Desmosome (spot weld)

b)

Gap Junction

c)

Tight Junction

d)

muscle

44.

What is this?

a)

Desomosome (spot weld)

b)

Gap Junction

c)

Tight junction

d)

muscle

45.

What is this?

a)

Desmosome (spot weld)

b)

Gap Junction

c)

Tight Junction

d)

muscle

46.

What type of epithelial tissue is this?

a)

simple squamous

b)

stratified columnar

c)

simple columnar

d)

simple cuboidal

47.

What type of epithelial tissue is this?

a)

simple squamous

b)

simple cuboidal

c)

stratified cuboidal

d)

simple columnar

48.

What type of epithelial tissue is this?

a)

transitional

b)

simple cuboidal

c)

simple columnar

d)

simple squamous

49.

What type of epithelial tissue is this?

a)

stratified squamous

b)

stratified columnar

c)

transitional

d)

pseudostratefied columnar

50.

What type of epithelial tissue is this?

a)

Pseudostratefied columnar

b)

Stratified columnar

c)

stratified squamous

d)

simple squamous

51.

What type of epithelial tissue is this?

a)

stratified columnar

b)

simple squamous

c)

simple cuboidal

d)

stratified squamous

52.

What type of epithelial tissue is this?

a)

stratified columnar

b)

simple cuboidal

c)

stratified squamous

d)

transitional

53.

What type of epithelial tissue is this?

a)

stratified cuboidal

b)

transitional

c)

simple cuboidal

d)

simple squamous

54.

The human integumentary system includes 

a)

epidermis, dermis, nails, hair, and sweat glands

b)

epidermis, nails, and hair follicles

c)

dermis, nails, hair follicles, and sweat glands

d)

bones and muscles

55.

As cells are pushed from the deeper portion of the epidermis toward the surface, 

a)

their supply of nutrients improves

b)

they die

c)

they divide continually

d)

they become dermal cells

56.

The dermis is composed largely of

a)

dense irregular connective tissue

b)

stratified columnar epithelium

c)

dense regular connective tissue

d)

stratified squamous epithelium

57.

Nerve fibers scattered throughout the dermis are associated with

a)

muscles, glands, and sensory receptors

b)

fingernails and toenails

c)

bone, tendons and muscles

d)

hair, melanocytes and pores

58.

What determines the color of skin? 

a)

The density of hair

b)

the thickness of the epidermis

c)

the number of melanocytes in the epidermis

d)

the amount of melanin that melanocytes produce

59.

The subcutaneous layer consists of 

a)

epithelial tissue and areolar tissue

b)

adipose tissue and skeletal muscle tissue

c)

areolar and adipose tissue

d)

epithelial tissue

60.

Blood vessels in the ___________ supply epidermal cells with nutrients.

a)

epidermis

b)

dermis

c)

hair follicles

d)

stratum basale

61.

the functions of the skin include

a)

regulating body temperature

b)

acting as a protective covering

c)

housing sensory receptors

d)

all of the answers are correct

62.

Epidermis is ________________, whereas dermis is ________________. 

a)

the outermost layer of the skin; composed of stratified squamous epithelial tissue

b)

largely composed of dense connective tissue; composed of stratified squamous epithelial tissue

c)

composed of stratified squamous epithelial tissue; composed of connective tissue, smooth muscle, and nerve cell processes

d)

the innermost layer of the skin; under the epidermis

63.

In areas of the skin where the epidermis is thin, the ________ may be absent.

a)

stratum granulosum

b)

stratum corneum

c)

stratum lucidum

d)

stratum basale

64.

The two layers of the dermis are the

a)

papillary and reticular layers

b)

stratum corneum and stratum lucidum

c)

hypodermis and stratum basale

d)

stratum granulosum and stratum spinosum

65.

The arrector pili muscle is attached to

a)

a sebaceous gland

b)

the nail bed

c)

a hair follicle

d)

the hypodermis

66.

Sebaceous glands secrete

a)

mucus

b)

sweat in the armpit

c)

fat globules that mix with cellilar debris, forming sebum

d)

hormones

67.

Which of the following is a normal response to excessive loss of body heat in a cold environment? 

a)

smooth muscles relax

b)

sweat glands become active

c)

dermal blood vessels dilate

d)

dermal blood vessels constrict

68.

Sweat cools the body by

a)

radiation

b)

conduction

c)

convection

d)

evaporation

69.

Inflammation

a)

is a result of exposure to very low temperatures.

b)

is a type of infection

c)

is a normal response to stress or injury

d)

is an abnormal response to stress or injury

70.

A burn affecting only the epidermis is a

a)

superficial partial-thickness burn

b)

second-degree burn

c)

third-degree burn

d)

deep partial-thickness burn

71.

Layers of the epidermis from surface to deepest

a)

lucidum, spinosum, basale, corneum, granulosum

b)

corneum, lucidum, granulosum, spinosum, basale

c)

basale, lucidum, granulosum, spinosum, corneum

d)

granulosum, corneum, basale, spinosum, lucidum

72.

What is A?

a)

connective tissue

b)

basement membrane

c)

epithelial cell layer

d)

apical surface

73.

What is B?

a)

connective tissue

b)

basement membrane

c)

apical surface

d)

epithelial cell layer

74.

What is C?

a)

epithelial cell layer

b)

basement membrane

c)

apical surface

d)

connective tissue

75.

What type of gland is the left one?

a)

Apocrine

b)

Holocrine

c)

Merocrine

d)

transitional

76.

What gland is the middle one?

a)

apocrine

b)

holocrine

c)

merocrine

d)

transitional

77.

What gland is the right most one?

a)

aprocine

b)

holocrine

c)

merocrine

d)

transitional

78.

contractile, multiple nuclei

a)

muscle tissue

b)

bone tissue

c)

cartilage tissue

d)

nervous tissue

79.

coordinate, integrate, and regulate body functions

a)

muscle tissue

b)

bone tissue

c)

cartilage tissue

d)

nervous tissue

80.

most rigid, produces blood cells, contains osteocytes, composed of (Ca) salts and collagen

a)

muscle tissue

b)

bone tissue

c)

cartilage tissue

d)

nervous tissue

81.

contains chondrocytes, lacks blood supply and heals slowly

a)

muscle tissue

b)

bone tissue

c)

cartilage tissue

d)

nervous tissue

82.

What is A?

a)

red blood cells

b)

thrombocytes

c)

white blood cells

d)

platelets

83.

What is B?

a)

red blood cells

b)

thrombocytes

c)

white blood cells

d)

leukocytes

84.

What is C?

a)

red blood cells

b)

thrombocytes

c)

white blood cells

d)

platelets

85.

The cytoplasmic extensions that, together with the cell body, provide the main receptive surfaces for neurons are 

a)

dendrites

b)

axons

c)

chromatophlic substance

d)

neurofibrils

86.

The two types of cells of the nervous system are

a)

schwann cells and microglia

b)

axons and dendrites

c)

neurons and neuroglia

d)

motor neurons and sensory neurons

87.

The functional connection between two neurons is a

a)

gap junction

b)

neurotransmitter

c)

synapse

d)

dendrite

88.

The nervous system

a)

all of the choices are correct

b)

controls the movement of muscles

c)

integrates information from several sources and uses it to determine and appropriate response

d)

detects changes in the internal or external enviornment

89.

Neurons that conduct impulses from the CNS to muscles or glands are

a)

sensory neurons

b)

motor neurons

c)

unipolar neurons

d)

interneurons

90.

Three general functions of the nervous system are

a)

sensory, motor, and predictive

b)

integrative, motor, and sensory

c)

relfexive, sensory, and predictive

d)

predictive, manipulative, and integrative

91.

_____ are filaments that support the axon from within

a)

neurofibrils

b)

collaterals

c)

dendrites

d)

nodes of ranvier

92.

Myelin

a)

is a form of chromatophilic substance that fills Schwann cells.

b)

is produced in response to bacterial infection.

c)

is released from a neuron and travels to another neuron.

d)

consists of layers of lipids and proteins that wrap around an axon.

93.

Which of the following is(are) a type of neuroglia?

a)

all choices are correct

b)

oligodendrocyte

c)

schwann cell

d)

astrocyte

94.

Which cells produce myelin in the brain and spinal cord?

a)

oligodendrocytes

b)

microglia

c)

schwann cells

d)

astrocytes

95.

Most of the neurons in the brain and spinal cord are

a)

unipolar

b)

nonpolar

c)

multipolar

d)

bipolar

96.

synaptic knobs are at the ends of

a)

neuroglia

b)

axons

c)

dendrites

d)

cell bodies

97.

Presynaptic neurons release neurotransmitters by _____________.

a)

diffusion

b)

endocytosis

c)

exocytosis

d)

active transport

98.

When an action potential passes over the surface of a synaptic knob, the contents of the vesicles are released in response to the presence of 

a)

neurotransmitters

b)

sodium ions

c)

calcium ions

d)

neuropeptides

99.

A stimulus great enough to change the membrane potential and propagate an action potential is said to have reached _________.

a)

threshold

b)

recruitment

c)

summation

d)

tetanus

100.

When a nerve fiber is polarized (-70 mV), the concentration(s) of

a)

Na+ is higher on the inside of the membrane and K+ is higher on the outside.

b)

Na+ and K+ are higher on the outside of the membrane.

c)

Na+ is higher on the outside of the membrane and K+ is higher on the inside.

d)

Na+ and K+ are higher on the inside of the membrane.

101.

If a resting potential becomes more negative, the membrane is

a)

depolarized

b)

summated

c)

repolarized

d)

hyperpolarized

102.

The types of neurons that organized into neuronal pools are

a)

intraneurons

b)

astrocytes

c)

schwann cells

d)

interneurons

103.

Star-shaped neuroglia between neurons and blood vessels

a)

astrocyte

b)

axon

c)

multipolar neuron

d)

oligodendrocyte

104.

Nerve fiber arising from a slight elevation of the cell body; sometimes wrapped in a myelin sheath

a)

multipolar neuron

b)

axon

c)

unipolar neuron

d)

schwann cell

105.

A nerve that has multiple processes from the cell body

a)

astrocyte

b)

multipolar neuron

c)

axon

d)

unipolar neuron

106.

A nerve cell that produces myelin in the CNS

a)

astrocyte

b)

axon

c)

oligodendrocyte

d)

unipolar neuron

107.

A nerve that possesses a single process from the cell body

a)

axon

b)

multipolar neuron

c)

unipolar neuron

d)

schwann cell

108.

A nerve cell that produces myelin in the PNS

a)

astrocyte

b)

unipolar neuron

c)

axon

d)

schwann cell

109.

What is resting membrane potential?

a)

-30 mV

b)

-60 mV

c)

70 mV

d)

-70 mV

110.

When does repolarization begin

a)

-30 mV

b)

70 mV

c)

20 mV

d)

30 mV

111.

Where does depolarization begin?

a)

-30 mV

b)

60 mV

c)

15 mV

d)

-55ish mV

112.

Which grouping of axon characteristics allows for the FASTEST impulse?

a)

myelinated and thin

b)

unmyelinated and thick

c)

mylinated and thick

d)

unmyelinated and thin

113.

Where are schwann cells and afferent neurons found?

a)

CNS

b)

PNS

114.

Where are oligodendrocytes and microglia found?

a)

CNS

b)

PNS

115.

Where are astrocytes and ependymal cells found?

a)

PNS

b)

CNS

116.

Where are efferent neurons and bipolar neurons found?

a)

PNS

b)

CNS

117.

What is 7?

a)

Stratum Corneum

b)

Stratum Spinosum

c)

Stratum Basale

d)

Dermis

118.

What is 8?

a)

stratum corneum

b)

stratum spinosum

c)

stratum basale

d)

dermis

119.

What is 9?

a)

stratum corneum

b)

stratum spinosum

c)

stratum basale

d)

dermis

120.

All of the following are functions of bones except

a)

to store inorganic salts

b)

to protect certain internal organs

c)

to provide a set point for the control of blood pressure and body temperature

d)

to provide a source for red and white blood cells

121.

Which of the following groups of bones, based on shape, is associated with an incorrect example?

a)

Flat bones - thigh bones

b)

Long bones - forearm bones

c)

irregular bones - vertebrae

d)

short bones - sesamoid, wrist and ankle bones

122.

Compact bone has _________, where as spongy bone has_____________.

a)

osteocytes ; no osteocytes

b)

spaces that reduce the weight of bone; tightly packed matrix that is solid

c)

osteons; trabeculae

d)

trabeculate;osteons

123.

a bone lengthens

a)

as a result of increased activity within the epiphyseal plate.

b)

as a result of cell division in the medullary cavity.

c)

as compact bone is deposited beneath the periosteum of the diaphysis.

d)

due to increased production of bone matrix by osteoclasts.

124.

Osteoblasts are ________, whereas osteocytes are ____________.

a)

bone-forming cells; mature bone cells

b)

bone-dissolving cells; mature bone cells

c)

bone-forming cells; bone dissolving cells

d)

mature bone cells; bone-forming cells

125.

Endochondral ossification ________, whereas intramembranous ossification____________.

a)

replaces hyaline cartilage; replaces undifferentiated connective tissue

b)

inhibits osteoblast activity; activates osteoclast activity

c)

forms bone in broad, flat areas of the skull; occurs in the limbs

d)

activates osteoclasts; inhibits osteoblast activity

126.

Red bone marrow function in the formation of

a)

red blood cells only

b)

white blood cells only

c)

red and white blood cells only

d)

red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets

127.

Which of the following correctly lists the steps of fracture repair in sequence?

a)

A - D - C - B

b)

A- B - C - D

c)

A- C- B- D

d)

A - B - C - D

128.

A compound fracture

a)

incompletely breaks the bone in more than one place

b)

exposes the broken bone to the outside

c)

is caused by a disease

d)

completely breaks the bone in more than one place

129.

In a child, a vitamin D deficiency results in ______, whereas a vitamin A deficiency results in ______. 

a)

pituitary dwarfism; rickets

b)

rickets; retardation of bone development

c)

excess calcium absorption; osteomalacia

d)

soft bones; rickets

130.

Which of the following is(are) an example of an intramembranous bone?

a)

Humerus

b)

Femur

c)

Phalanges of the fingers

d)

broad, flat skull bones

131.

The presence of an epiphyseal plate indicates that...

a)

the bone has completed ossification

b)

the bone is no longer lengthening

c)

the bone is increasing in diameter

d)

the bone is lengthening

132.

Which is true of sex hormones?

a)

Their action on bone growth is stronger in males than in females.

b)

They inhibit osteoblast activity.

c)

They stimulate ossification of the epiphyseal plates.

d)

They have no effect on bone

133.

What type of fracture is A?

a)

spiral fracture

b)

hairline fracture

c)

greenstick fracture

d)

transverse fracture

134.

What type of fracture is B?

a)

hairline fracture

b)

comminuted fracture

c)

oblique fracture

d)

greenstick fracture

135.

What type of fracture is C?

a)

comminuted fracture

b)

greenstick fracture

c)

transverse fracture

d)

spiral fracture

136.

What type of fracture is D?

a)

oblique fracture

b)

fissure fracture

c)

spiral fracture

d)

transverse fracture

137.

What type of fracture is E?

a)

hairline fracture

b)

oblique fracture

c)

greenstick fracture

d)

transverse fracture

138.

What type of fracture is F?

a)

spiral fracture

b)

greenstick fracture

c)

comminuted fracture

d)

transverse fracture

139.

What surround muscle fibers within a fascicle

a)

endomysium

b)

perimysium

c)

epimysium

140.

What surrounds fascicles within a muscle?

a)

Endomysium

b)

Perimysium

c)

Epimysium

141.

What surround the whole muscle?

a)

Endomysium

b)

Perimysium

c)

Epimysium

142.

Continuous state of partial contraction in resting muscles

a)

muscle tone

b)

oxygen debt

c)

muscle twitch

d)

muscle cramp

143.

Amount of oxygen needed by liver cells to convert the accumulated lactic acid to glucose

a)

muscle twitch

b)

oxygen debt

c)

threshold stimulus

d)

recruitment

144.

Contractile response of a single muscle fiber to a single impulse

a)

recruitment

b)

threshold stimulus

c)

muscle cramp

d)

muscle twitch

145.

Sustained, involuntary muscle contraction

a)

threshold stimulus

b)

muscle twitch

c)

muscle cramp

d)

anaerobic threshold

146.

Minimum strength of stimulation of a muscle fiber required to cause contraction

a)

muscle fatigue

b)

recruitment

c)

threshold stimulus

d)

anaerobic threshold

147.

Increase in the number of motor units activated, to produce more force

a)

muscle fatigue

b)

threshold stimulus

c)

recruitment

d)

oxygen debt

148.

Shift in metabolism from aerobic to anaerobic, during strenuous muscle activity

a)

muscle fatigue

b)

oxygen debt

c)

muscle cramp

d)

anaerobic threshold

149.

Inability to contract muscles due to lack of blood supply

a)

muscle fatigue

b)

muscle tone

c)

oxygen debt

d)

muscle cramp

150.

What is A?

a)

A band

b)

Z line

c)

I Band

d)

H zone

151.

What is D?

a)

Z line

b)

A band

c)

I band

d)

H zone

152.

Muscle cell's unit of contracting filaments

a)

sarcoplasmic reticulum

b)

sarcomere

c)

sarcoplasm

d)

sarcolemma

153.

Muscle cell's cell membrane

a)

sarcoplasmic reticulum

b)

sarcomere

c)

sarcoplasm

d)

sarcolemma

154.

What type of contraction is B?

a)

eccentric

b)

concentric

c)

isometric

155.

What type of contraction is C?

a)

concentric

b)

eccentric

c)

isometric

156.

What type of contraction is A?

a)

eccentric

b)

concentric

c)

isometric

157.

Attached to bones of skeleton, voluntary controlled, multinucleated

a)

skeletal

b)

cardiac

c)

smooth

158.

Muscle cells branch, makes up most of the wall of the heart, has a single nucleus and does have striations

a)

cardiac

b)

smooth

c)

skeletal

159.

Involved with peristalsis, uses calmodulin instead of troponin, found in walls of intestines

a)

smooth

b)

caridac

c)

skeletal

160.

What is B?

a)

trapezius

b)

rhomboids

c)

deltoids

d)

tres major

161.

What is D?

a)

rhomboids

b)

deltoids

c)

teres major

d)

supraspinatus

162.

What is 2?

a)

deltoids

b)

triceps brachii

c)

biceps brachii

d)

pectoralis major

163.

What is B?

a)

triceps brachii

b)

brachioradialis

c)

latissimus dorsi

d)

biceps brachii

164.

What is A?

a)

rectus abdominus

b)

external obliques

c)

transversus abdominus

d)

internal obliques

165.

What is C?

a)

rectus abdominus

b)

internal obliques

c)

transversus abdominus

d)

external obliques

166.

What is E?

a)

temporal

b)

mandible

c)

zygomatic

d)

spheniod

167.

What is F?

a)

zygomatic

b)

maxilla

c)

spheniod

d)

nasal

168.

What type of vertebrae is A?

a)

atlas

b)

lumbar

c)

thoracic

d)

axis

169.

What vertebrae articulates with the ribs?

a)

lumbar

b)

atlas

c)

axis

d)

thoracic

170.

Hamate, Lunate, and Trapezium are all _____ bones.

a)

carpal

b)

tarsal

171.

Navicular, Calcaneus, and Talus are all ____ bones

a)

carpal

b)

tarsal

172.

Is the skull axial or appendicular?

a)

axial

b)

appendicular

173.

Is the pelvic girdle axial or appendicular?

a)

axial

b)

appendicular

174.

Is the atlas axial or appendicular?

a)

axial

b)

appendicular

175.

The heart pumps blood through the blood vessels in this order:

a)

arteries -> arterioles -> capillaries -> venules -> veins -> back to heart

b)

arterioles -> arteries ->capillaries -> veins -> venules -> back to heart

c)

capillaries -> veins -> venules -> arteries -> arterioles -> back to heart

d)

venules -> veins -> capillaries -> arteries -> arterioles -> back to heart

176.

Transports oxygen-poor blood from heart to lungs, and back to heart

a)

pulmonary circuit

b)

systemic circuit

177.

Transports oxygen-rich blood from heart to all body cells, and back to heart

a)

pulmonary circuit

b)

systemic circuit

178.

how many heart chambers are there?

a)

6

b)

2

c)

8

d)

4

179.

What is the outermost layer of the heart?

a)

epicardium

b)

myocardium

c)

endocardium

180.

What is the middle layer of the heart?

a)

epicardium

b)

myocaridum

c)

endocardium

181.

What is the innermost layer of the heart?

a)

epicardium

b)

myocardium

c)

endocardium

182.

thin-walled upper chambers of the heart, receive blood returning to heart

a)

atria

b)

aorta

c)

ventricles

d)

valves

183.

thick-walled lower chambers; pump blood into arteries

a)

aorta

b)

atria

c)

ventricles

d)

valves

184.

What side of the heart pumps deoxygenated blood to the lungs?

a)

left side

b)

right side

185.

Where foes the blood enter the heart through?

a)

vena cava

b)

pulmonary valve

c)

pulmonary veins

d)

aortic valve

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