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HBS Spring Final

Total questions: 135

Worksheet time: 1hrs 8mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What organ has this basic function(s): keeps things moist, break down carbohydrates

and lubricates

a)

Tongue

b)

Salivary glands

c)

Teeth

d)

Pharynx

2.

Name the part of the digestive tract that gets the food from your mouth & serves both

respiratory and digestive functions

a)

Esophagus

b)

Salivary glands

c)

Pharynx

d)

Trachea

3.

Name a muscular tube that goes from your throat to your stomach

a)

Large intestine

b)

Small intestine

c)

Pharynx

d)

Esophagus

4.

Name a hollow organ that holds food while it is being mixed enzymes that break down

food into a usable form, Also, cells in the lining secrete a strong acid.

a)

Stomach

b)

Liver

c)

Pancreas

d)

Gall bladder

5.

Which organ carries out most of the digestive process, absorbing almost all of the

nutrients you get from foods into your bloodstream?

a)

Stomach

b)

Pancreas

c)

Small intestine

d)

Large intestine

6.

Which organ absorbs water and salts from the material that has not been digested as

food, and gets rid of any waste products left over?

a)

Liver

b)

Gall bladder

c)

Small intestine

d)

Large intestine

7.

Name the organ that makes enzymes that break down sugars, fats, and starches and

also makes hormones. It is located at the juncture where the stomach meets the first

part of the small intestine

a)

Pancreas

b)

Esophagus

c)

Liver

d)

Gall bladder

8.

Name the organ that regulates most chemical levels in the blood and excretes a

product called bile.

a)

Stomach

b)

Liver

c)

Pancreas

d)

Gall bladder

9.

Which organ's primary function is to store and concentrate bile?

a)

Stomach

b)

Liver

c)

Pancreas

d)

Gall bladder

10.

How do you calculate BMI?

a)

By using body mass, age, weight and height

b)

By using weight and height

c)

Kg/m^2

d)

B & C

11.

What is represented by the number of calories required to keep your body functioning

at rest?

a)

BMI

b)

BMR

c)

TDEE

d)

ATP

12.

What do you need to calculate TDEE?

a)

BMR

b)

Activity multiplier

c)

BMI

d)

A &B

13.

What is not one of the things that needs to be considered when identifying human

basic need? (hint: think of the categories on the chart you made)

a)

Lifestyle factors

b)

Personal human factors

c)

Body systems involved

d)

Environmental factors

14.

Which is true?

a)

A monomer is a long chain

b)

Monomers are the building blocks of polymers

c)

A polymer is a type of molecule that has the ability to chemically bond with other molecules

d)

A plumer is a single unit

15.

What is not an example of a digestive enzyme?

a)

Lipase

b)

Amylase

c)

Helicase

d)

Trypsin

16.

What is the sugar and base in ATP? listed in order

a)

Ribose, adenine

b)

RNA, guanosine

c)

Guanosine, RNA

d)

Adenine, ribose

17.

Where is the energy located in ATP?

a)

Mitochondria

b)

The triphosphate tail

c)

Ribose

d)

The nucleus

18.

What does this describe: important organic compound in metabolism and is essential to

the flow of energy in living cells

a)

APP

b)

Triphosphate

c)

ADP

d)

Pyrophosphate

19.

The process human cells use to generate ATP is called

a)

Cellular oxidation

b)

Enzyme breakdown

c)

Protein synthesis

d)

Cellular respiration

20.

What does this describe? the chemical processes that occur within a living organism in

order to maintain life

a)

Basic needs

b)

Metabolism

c)

Digestion

d)

Respiration

21.

What were the main stressors exacerbating Melissa's symptoms of asthma?

a)

Allergies, stress & heat

b)

Exercise, stress & heat

c)

Exercise, stress & cold

d)

Allergies, stress & cold

22.

Which zone of Melissa's peak flow values indicated that she had a moderate level of

breathing impairment?

a)

Green

b)

Yellow

c)

Red

23.

When a(n) _________ contracts, the chest cavity gets larger and air rushes to your lungs.

a)

Lung

b)

Alveolus

c)

Diaphragm

d)

Trachea

24.

With respect to the lungs, tidal volume is defined by which of the following?

a)

Lung volume representing the normal volume of air displaced between normal inhalation and exhalation

b)

The total amount of air that your lungs can hold

c)

How much air is left in your lungs after exhalation

d)

None of these show tidal volume

25.

Which defines minute volume?

a)

The volume of air breathed in one minute without conscious effort

b)

The volume of air breathed in one second without conscious effort

c)

The volume of air breathed in one minute with effort

d)

The volume of air breathed in one second with effort

26.

You are assisting your Grandma with her medications for the morning. You notice that

all of her medications have the abbreviation 'po'. You know that this means to

administer the medication:

a)

Each day

b)

By pill

c)

By mouth

d)

By inhalation

27.

If a medication label bears the abbreviation 'b.i.d.', this means to take the medication:

a)

After each meal

b)

Once a day in the morning

c)

Once a day in the evening

d)

Twice a day

28.

Which does this describe? tiny air sacs of the lungs which allow for rapid gaseous

exchange

a)

Base of the lung

b)

Bronchus

c)

Bronchiole

d)

Alveoli

29.

Which does this describe? a passage or airway in the respiratory system that conducts

air into the lungs

a)

Base of the lung

b)

Bronchus

c)

Bronchiole

d)

Alveoli

30.

Which does this describe? serous membranes lining the thorax & lungs

a)

Pleura

b)

Intercostal muscles

c)

Diaphragm

d)

abdominal activity

31.

What does a spirometer do?

a)

Measure the amount of air you’re able to breathe in & out and the time it takes you ti exhale completely after a deep breath

b)

Measure the amount of air you’re able to breathe in & out and the time it takes you to inhale completely after deep breath

c)

Measure the amount of air you’re able to breathe in & out and the time it takes you to exhale completely after a shallow breath

32.

Which describes a type of medication that helps increase the ability for a person to

move air in & out of the lungs (like Melissa was prescribed)?

a)

Antimicrobial

b)

Bronchodilator

c)

Mucolytics

d)

Corticosteroids

33.

All of these describe the role of a respiratory therapist except:

a)

Perform lung capacity tests & spirometry

b)

Monitor & record patients’ progress

c)

Prescribe asthma medication

d)

Teach patients how to take medications and use equipment

34.

If your medicine says to take it "TID", what does this mean?

a)

Three times a day

b)

As needed

c)

Every 4 hours

d)

Between meals

35.

If your medicine says to take it "pc", what does this mean?

a)

Every hour

b)

After meals

c)

At bedtime

d)

By mouth

36.

What does this prescription mean? ili of 2 ml IV

a)

Take 3 times a day, 2 milliliters, intravenously

b)

Take 3 times a day, 2 milliliters, by injection

c)

3 doses of 2 milliliters, by injection

d)

3 doses of 2 milliliters intravenously

37.

What is one major thing you should never leave out of a resume? Choose the best

answer.

a)

Honors

b)

An objective or goal

c)

Volunteer activities

d)

Related work experience

38.

What is something that you should always include in your cover letter?

a)

Your age

b)

A proper closing paragraph or statement

c)

Your current employer’s information

d)

Salary expectations

39.

What does lung compliance depend on?

a)

Elasticity only

b)

Elasticity and surface tension

c)

Surface tension only

d)

Neither elasticity or surface tension

40.

Which organ is this describing? membrane lined cavity behind the nose and mouth,

connecting them to the esophagus

a)

Bronchus

b)

Trachea

c)

Larynx

d)

Pharynx

41.

The area at the center of the kidney where urine collects

a)

renal Medulla

b)

Renal pelvis

c)

Calyx

d)

Renal capsule

42.

The inner-most region of the kidneys, arranged in a pyramid structure, that consists of most of the nephron structure, the collecting ducts and the loop of Henle

a)

Renal medulla

b)

Loop of Henle

c)

Ureter

d)

Renal cortex

43.

The outer region of the kidney, between the renal capsule and renal medulla, that has blood vessels that connect to the nephrons

a)

Collecting ducts

b)

Calyx

c)

Renal cortex

d)

Bowman’s capsule

44.

The tube that carries urine from the kidneys to the bladder.

a)

Ureter

b)

Renal cortex

c)

Bowman’s capsule

d)

Calyx

45.

A capsule-shaped structure surrounding the glomerulus of each nephron in the kidneys that

removes waste products.

a)

Loop of Henle

b)

Bowman’s capsule

c)

Collecting ducts

d)

Renal pelvis

46.

The last part of a long twisting tube that collects urine from the nephrons and moves it into the

renal pelvis and ureters.

a)

Renal medulla

b)

Bowman’s capsule

c)

Renal cortex

d)

Collecting duct

47.

Long U-shaped portion of the tubule that conducts urine within each nephron of the kidney.

Function is in the recovery of water and sodium chloride from urine.

a)

Loop of Henle

b)

Ureter

c)

George Clooney

d)

Calyx

48.

Cup-like cavity or structure.

a)

Renal cortex

b)

Collecting ducts

c)

Calyx

d)

Ureter

49.

The fibrous connective tissues that surround each kidney.

a)

Bowman’s capsule

b)

Renal capsule

c)

Ureter

d)

George W. Bush

50.

Because the knee is a hinge joint, it’s primary movements are:

a)

Adduction and adduction

b)

Plantar flexion and dorsal flexion

c)

Rotation and circumcision

d)

Flexion and extension

51.

There are three groups that joints are classified as based on structure. They include all except

a)

Fibrous

b)

Cartilaginous

c)

Smooth

d)

Synovial

52.

When measuring with a goniometer, first....

a)

The moving arm should align with the joint

b)

The fulcrum should be placed on the joint

c)

The stable arm should be placed along the length of the bone/muscle

d)

None of these

53.

What is an example of a pivot joint

a)

Elbow

b)

Knee

c)

Shoulder

d)

Neck

54.

What is an example of a hinge joint

a)

Neck

b)

Shoulder

c)

Elbow

d)

Hip

55.

Skeletal muscle cells contain many

a)

Nuclei

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Both A & B are correct

d)

Neither A or B are correct

56.

Which describes the origin of a muscle?

a)

The end of a muscle closest to the torso

b)

A muscle’s proximal attachment

c)

A & B

d)

None of these

57.

Muscles might be named according to their size. Which muscles are an example of

this?

a)

Rhomboid, Trapezius

b)

Superior, Posterior, Dorsi, Lateralis

c)

Bicep, tricep, quadricep

d)

Gluteus Maximus, Pectoralis Major

58.

Muscles might be named according to their shape. Which muscles are an example of

this?

a)

Gluteus Maximus, pectoralis Major

b)

Rhomboid, trapezius

c)

Bicep, tricep, quadricep

d)

Sternocleidomastoid, Brachioradialis

59.

From the following selections, please choose which accurately represents how smooth,

skeletal, and cardiac muscle fibers appear:

a)

Skeletal- Striated & Cylindrical; Smooth- Striated& Spindle-like; Cardiac- Striated& Cylindrical

b)

Skeletal- Striated & connected with intercalated discs; Smooth- Smooth & Spindle-like;

Cardiac- Striated& Cylindrical

c)

Skeletal- Striated & Cylindrical; Smooth- Smooth & Spindle-like; Cardiac- Striated & connected

with intercalated discs

d)

None of the above

60.

Extensors muscles ________ the angle of the muscle and are located ________, where as the flexor muscles ________ the angle of the muscle and are found _________. Fill in the blanks in order

a)

decrease, dorsally, increase, ventrally

b)

increase, ventrally, decrease, dorsally

c)

decrease, ventrally, increase, dorsally

d)

increase, dorsally, decrease, ventrally

61.

Which muscle tissue is involuntary all of the time?

a)

Smooth

b)

Cardiac

c)

Striated

d)

Skeletal

62.

Which muscle forms organs like the stomach and bladder changes shape to facilitate

bodily functions.

a)

Smooth

b)

Cardiac

c)

Striated

d)

Skeletal

63.

Which of the following muscles of the chest are deep to the pectoralis major?

a)

External oblique

b)

Pectoralis minor

c)

Rectus abdominus

d)

Biceps brachaii

64.

Which muscle is explained by this description: a fanshaped muscle at the lateral wall of

the thorax, deep under the scapula. It originates from the 1st to the 10th rib and inserts

at the anterior surface of the scapula.

a)

Pectoralis Major

b)

Pectoralis minor

c)

Serratus anterior

d)

Intercostal

65.

Which two muscle types have striations?

a)

Cardiac & skeletal

b)

Cardiac & smooth

c)

Skeletal and smooth

d)

Only one type has striations

66.

What defines a structural unit of a myofibril?

a)

Myosin

b)

Actin

c)

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

d)

Sarcomere

67.

An individual muscle cell is called an)

a)

Tendon

b)

Fasicle

c)

Myofibril

d)

Endomysium

68.

Many individual muscle cells can be grouped together into a bundle called a(n)

a)

Tendon

b)

Fasicle

c)

Myofibril

d)

Endomasium

69.

Which muscle contracts the heart to pump blood?

a)

Smooth

b)

Striated

c)

Cardiac

d)

Skeletal

70.

Which of these statements are true?

a)

Arteries carry blood away from the heart

b)

Veins transport blood back to the heart

c)

Capillaries connect arteries and veins

d)

All of the above

71.

Which is the amount of blood that is pumped out of the ventricles per minute and

often signal disease in the heart?

a)

Heart rate

b)

Pulse rate

c)

Carotid pulse

d)

Cardiac output

72.

List the heart valves in the order blood passes through them, beginning when venous

blood enters the heart.

a)

Tricuspid, pulmonic, mitral, aortic

b)

Pulmonic, mitral, tricuspid, aortic

c)

Mitral, pulmonic, aortic, tricuspid

d)

Aortic, pulmonic, mitral, tricuspid

73.

What is not true about blood pressure?

a)

It is read diastolic over systolic

b)

The top number should be higher than the bottom

c)

The first sound you hear in the stethoscope is the systolic pressure

d)

“Normal” is considered 120/80 mm Hg

74.

Why might compression stockings be a good choice for someone with varicose veins?

a)

To allow blood to be pulled by gravity & away from the heart

b)

To encourage the blood flow back to the heart

c)

To help give more feeling in the feet and toes

d)

To open up the veins more

75.

Carpal tunnel can affect which two nerves?

a)

Brachial and Carpal nerves

b)

Radial and carpal nerves

c)

Median and radial nerves

d)

Median and brachial nerves

76.

Is the heart an organ or a muscle

a)

It is an organ that is part of the circulatory system

b)

It is made of cardiac muscle

c)

It is both

d)

It is neither

77.

Deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle, through the pulmonic valve, to the

pulmonary artery heads to the

a)

Upper body

b)

Left or right lung

c)

Lower body

d)

Left ventricle

78.

This valve allows blood to flow from the right atrium to the right ventricle (and

separates them).

a)

Tricuspid valve

b)

Pulmonic valve

c)

Mitral valve

d)

Aortic valve

79.

This part of the heart carries oxygenated blood to the upper and lower body

a)

Superior and inferior vena cava

b)

Pulmonary arteries

c)

Pulmonary veins

d)

Aorta

80.

This is where the actual exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs.

a)

Capillaries

b)

Arteries

c)

Veins

d)

Aorta

81.

Which carries the blood back to the heart?

a)

Capillaries

b)

Arteries

c)

Veins

d)

Aorta

82.

These names are shared by both upper body arteries AND veins except

a)

Brachial

b)

Radial

c)

Right subclavian

d)

All are shared

83.

Which arteries and veins are the direct transport between the heart and lungs?

a)

Systemic

b)

Pulmonary

c)

Jugular

d)

Subclavian

84.

Which is not one of the 7 pulse points of the body?

a)

Popliteal

b)

Ulnar

c)

Carotid

d)

Temporal

85.

What is the speed of the heart measured by the number of contractions of the heart per

minute?

a)

Pulse rate

b)

Stroke volume

c)

Cardiac output

d)

Heart rate

86.

How does smoking increase blood pressure?

a)

It causes your lungs to expand more

b)

It makes your blood thinner

c)

Widens your blood vessels to allow more blood to pump to the heart

d)

Makes your blood vessels get narrow and your heart beat faster

87.

What is this describing: the lowest arterial blood pressure of a cardiac cycle occurring

during the dilation (filling of blood) of the heart

a)

Resting heart rate

b)

Diastolic pressure

c)

Cardiac output

d)

Systolic pressure

88.

Which refers to the body producing energy with the use of oxygen?

a)

Glycogen

b)

Anaerobic

c)

Lactic acid

d)

Aerobic

89.

Which is a chemical byproduct of anaerobic respiration?

a)

Lactic acid

b)

Créatine phosphate

c)

ATP

d)

Glycogen

90.

What are the two characteristics of CIPA?

a)

Inability to feel pain and temperature and anhidrosis (absent sweating)

b)

Increased ability to feel pain and increased sweating

c)

Increased sweating and inability to feel pain and temp

d)

Anhidrosis and increased ability to feel pain

91.

Which describes epidermis?

a)

Made up of epithelial tissue

b)

Compound of connective tissue

c)

Makes up the coverings and lining in the human body

d)

A & C

92.

Which skin layer is composed of connective tissue that consists of cells embedded in a

matrix or framework?

a)

Subcutaneous tissue

b)

Epidermis

c)

Dermis

d)

Deep fascia

93.

The protein responsible for the strength and water resistance of the skin is called

a)

Lutein

b)

Casein

c)

Hyacin

d)

Keratin

94.

Which of the following is NOT a function of human skin?

a)

Protecting the body from foreign invaders

b)

Maintaining body temp

c)

Assisting with the sense of touch

d)

Releasing hormones into the blood

95.

What does CIPA stand for?

a)

Cerebral insensitivity to pain areas

b)

Cognitive insidious pain associated

c)

Congenital insensitivity to pain with anhidrosis

d)

Congenital inherited pain with anhidrosis

96.

Why is feeling pain important?

a)

It’s a warning sign that something is not right in the body

b)

We could permanently injure ourselves

c)

It means that we need to seek help

d)

All of these

97.

What hormones produced in the brain and anterior pituitary that inhibits pain

perception?

a)

Acetylcholine

b)

Endorphins

c)

Adrenaline

d)

Serotonin

98.

Which are mild burns characterized by heat, pain, and reddening of the burned surface

but not exhibiting blistering or charring of tissues?

a)

1st degree burns

b)

2nd degree burns

c)

3rd degree burns

d)

4th degree burns

99.

Which are severe burn characterized by destruction of the skin through the depth of the

dermis and possibly into underlying tissues, loss of fluid, and sometimes shock?

a)

1st degree burns

b)

2nd degree burns

c)

3rd degree burns

d)

4th degree burns

100.

Which are burns marked by pain, blistering, and superficial destruction of dermis with

edema and hyperemia of the tissues beneath the burn?

a)

1st degree burns

b)

2nd degree burns

c)

3rd degree burns

d)

4th degree burns

101.

What glands open into the hair follicles, secreting an oily or greasy material composed

in great part of fat which softens and lubricates the hair and skin?

a)

Sebaceous glands

b)

Adrenal glands

c)

Pineal glands

d)

Secretion glands

102.

Which layer of skin contains nerve endings, sweat glands, and hair follicles?

a)

Epidermis

b)

Dermis

c)

Subcutaneous tissue

d)

Deep fascia

103.

Any of various black, dark brown, reddish brown, or yellow pigments of animal or plant

structures (as in skin and hair is:

a)

Melanin

b)

Keratin

c)

Collagen

d)

Elastin

104.

An insoluble fibrous protein of vertebrates that is the chief constituent of the fibrils of connective tissue (as in skin and tendons) and of the organic substance of bones is:

a)

Melanin

b)

Keratin

c)

Collagen

d)

Elastin

105.

A protein that is similar to collagen and is the chief constituent of elastic fibers is:

a)

Melanin

b)

Keratin

c)

Collagen

d)

Elastin

106.

Our skin, along with our hair and nails, make up an important human body system

called the

a)

Nervous system

b)

Circulatory system

c)

Lymphatic system

d)

Integumentary system

107.

What is the largest organ in the human body?

a)

Heart

b)

Stomach

c)

Skin

d)

Liver

108.

A person is likely to shed over _ pounds of skin every year

a)

3

b)

9

c)

15

d)

5

109.

If you were to spread a person's skin out, it would cover about __ square feet if surface area

a)

6

b)

18

c)

20

d)

30

110.

Why would someone without a spleen get sick more often? How is its function

important?

a)

It regulates most chemical levels in the blood and excretes a product called bile

b)

It filters the blood of foreign cells and old red blood cells that need replacement

c)

It’s enzymes break down sugars, fats, and starches & it makes hormones

d)

It absorbs water and salts & it gets rid of any waste products left over

111.

Which of the following does the lymphatic system consist of?

a)

Organs

b)

Ducts

c)

Nodes

d)

All of these

112.

What type of antigens do people with blood type A have?

a)

Type B antigens

b)

Type A & B antigen

c)

No antigens

d)

Type A antigens

113.

What type of antigens do people with blood type AB have?

a)

Type B antigens

b)

Type A & B antigens

c)

No antigens

d)

Type A antigens

114.

People with type O blood can receive blood from

a)

Type O only

b)

All types

c)

Type B or O

d)

Type A or O

115.

People with type B blood can receive blood from

a)

Type O only

b)

All types

c)

Type B or Type O

d)

Type A or Of O

116.

What antibodies are present in the plasma of type AB blood

a)

Anti-A antibodies

b)

Anti-B antibodies

c)

No antibodies

d)

Anti-A and anti-B antibodies

117.

In a pedigree diagram, a square represents

a)

A grandparent

b)

Male

c)

Offspring

d)

Female

118.

What are the two main types of cells that form the body’s immune systems

a)

Macrophages and microphages

b)

Macrophages and lymphocytes

c)

Lymphocytes and red blood cells

d)

Red blood cells and microphages

119.

Which is not park of the lymphatic and immune systems

a)

Thymus

b)

Tonsils

c)

Skin

d)

Pancreas

120.

Which is not a part of the lymphatic and immune systems

a)

bone marrow

b)

Hypothalamus

c)

Spleen

d)

Liver

121.

A specific causative agent (as a bacterium or virus) of disease is/are called

a)

Pathogens

b)

White blood cells

c)

Macrophages

d)

Leukocytes

122.

Special proteins that can target and inactivate specific antigens are

a)

Red blood cells

b)

Lymphocytes

c)

Antibodies

d)

Macrophages

123.

Your body’s immune system relies on special _____ to pinpoint and destroy microbes that may make it through your body’s non-specific defenses

a)

Red blood cells

b)

White blood cells

c)

Pathogens

d)

Antigens

124.

Antibodies are created by one type of white blood cell, ______, and circulate in your blood and lymph

a)

The D cells

b)

The A cells

c)

The C cells

d)

The B cells

125.

What antibodies are present in the plasma of type A blood

a)

Anti-B antibodies

b)

Anti-A antibodies

c)

No antibodies

d)

Anti-A and anti-B antibodies

126.

When measuring with a goniometer, first....

a)

The moving arm should align with movement of the joint

b)

The fulcrum should be placed on the joint

c)

The stable arm should be placed along the length of the bone/muscle

d)

None of these

127.

What is an example of a pivot joint

a)

Elbow

b)

Knee

c)

Shoulder

d)

Neck

128.

What is an example of a hinge joint

a)

Neck

b)

Shoulder

c)

Elbow

d)

Hip

129.

Skeletal muscle cells contain many

a)

Nuclei

b)

Mitochondria

c)

A & B are correct

d)

Neither A or B are correct

130.

Which describes the origin of a muscle?

a)

The end of a muscle closest to the torso

b)

À muscles proximal attachment

c)

A & B

d)

None of the above

131.

Muscles might be named according to their size. Which muscles are an example of

this?

a)

Rhomboid, trapezius

b)

Superior, posterior, dorsi, lateralis

c)

Bicep, tricep, quadricep

d)

Gluteus Maximus, pectoralis major

132.

Muscles might be named according to their shape. Which muscles are an example of

this?

a)

Gluteus Maximus, Pextoralis Major

b)

Rhromboid, Trapezius

c)

Bicep, Tricep, Quadricep

d)

Sternocleidomastoid, Branchioradialis

133.

When measuring with a goniometer, first......

a)

The moving arm should align with movement of the joint

b)

The fulcrum should be placed on the joint

c)

The stable arm should be placed along the length of the bone/muscle

d)

None of these

134.

What is an example of a pivot joint

a)

Elbow

b)

Knee

c)

Shoulder

d)

Neck

135.

What is an example of a hinge joint

a)

Neck

b)

Shoulder

c)

Elbow

d)

Hip

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