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SIMULATION EXAM 1 ENDO REMED. COURSE

Total questions: 175

Worksheet time: 4hrs 47mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Growth hormone inhibitory hormone

a)

Somatostatin

b)

Progesterone

2.

IGF-I has what type of effects on glucose transport in the Growth hormone?

a)

insulin-like anabolic effects

b)

no effects

3.

191 aminoacid peptide

a)

Growth hormone

b)

Prolactin

4.

Two important signaling molecules in Growth Hormone and Prolactin? Select all that apply

a)

Jak

b)

Stat

c)

Tranketolase

d)

PPP

5.

Benign tumor of pituitary gland secreting excess GH.

a)

Acromegaly

b)

Gigantism

6.

Acromegaly symptoms? Select all that apply

a)

Neuropathy, visceromegaly, lethargy

b)

elevated BP, glucose intolerance

c)

sleep apnea

d)

excess perspiration

e)

headache

7.

Drug therapy options for Acromegaly?

a)

Somatostatin analogs

b)

Pegvisomant

c)

Dopamine agonists

d)

Tolvaptan

8.

Inhibits GH release from pituitary

a)

Growth hormone inhibiting hormone (aka somatostatin)

b)

Lithium

9.

inhibit GH release

a)

Octreotide

b)

Lanreotide

c)

Pasireotide

d)

Levothyroxine

10.

Which of the following agents binds to multiple somatostatin receptors?

a)

Octreotide

b)

Lanreotide

c)

Pasireotide

11.

Which of the following somatostatin analogues agents decrease Cortisol?

a)

pasireotide

b)

Lanreotide

12.

Which of the following adverse affects is common on Somatostatin analogues (Octeotride, Lanreotide, Pasireotide)?

a)

gallstones

b)

vomiting

13.

Which of the following agents are Dopamine agonists? Select all that apply

a)

Bromocriptine

b)

Cabergoline

c)

Lanreotide

d)

Octeotride

e)

Pasireotide

14.

GH Receptor Antagonist and Polyethylene glycol derivative of a mutant GH

a)

Pegvisomart

b)

Cabergoline

15.

Which is TRUE about Somavert (Select all that apply)

a)

Binds to but does not activate GH receptor

b)

Does not inhibit GH secretion, blocks the physiologic effects

16.

Adverse effects for Pegvisomant (Somavert)? Select all that apply

a)

LFT

b)

lipohypertrophy at the injection site

c)

gallstones

17.

Which of the following are true about Prolactin? Select all that apply

a)

Peptide hormone from anterior pituitary

b)

Target tissue= Breast

c)

Responsible for milk production

d)

Dopamine released from hypothalamus inhibits prolactin release from anterior pituitary

18.

Hypothalamic or pituitary diseases interfering with inhibitory signals, Prolactin secreting adenomas.

a)

Hyperprolactinemia

b)

Acromegaly

19.

What D2 receptor antagonists can cause Hyperprolactinemia? Select all that apply

a)

Risperidone

b)

Metoclopramide

c)

Losartan

20.

Semi-synthetic ergot alkaloid

a)

Bromocriptine

b)

Cabergoline

21.

Activates D2 receptor to inhibit prolactin release

a)

Bromocriptine

b)

Cabergoline

22.

Frequent adverse effects for Bromocriptine? Select all that apply

a)

nausea

b)

vomiting

c)

headache

d)

postural hypotension

23.

Preferred agent for treating hyperprolactinemia

a)

Cabergoline

b)

Bromocriptine

24.

Long acting dopamine-2 receptor agonist

a)

Cabergoline

b)

Bromocriptine

25.

Oxytocin and Vasopressin (Posterior Pituitary Hormones) are composed of what type of rings?

a)

disulfide

b)

methyl

26.

Position 1 and 8 altered in desmopressin- long-acting analog of vasopressin

a)

True

b)

False

27.

Milk ejection (milk-letdown) and Strengthens uterine contraction

a)

Oxytocin

b)

Vasopressin

28.

Oxytocin uses? Select all that apply

a)

Induce labor or augment dysfunctional labor

b)

Control post-partum uterine bleeding

c)

Milk ejection

d)

growth bones

29.

Located in vascular smooth muscle cells and mediate vasoconstriction

a)

V1a (Gq receptor)

b)

V2 (Gs)

30.

Located in renal tubule cell, so mediates anti-diuresis through increased water permeability

a)

V1a (Gq receptor)

b)

V2 (Gs)

31.

Indications for vasopressin

a)

diabetes insipidus

b)

Acromegaly

32.

Inadequate secretion of vasopressin/ADH from posterior pituitary

a)

Central DI

b)

Nephrogenic DI

33.

ADH secretion adequate, kidney resistant

a)

Central DI

b)

Nephrogenic DI

34.

Which of the following can cause vasoconstriction?

a)

Vasopressin

b)

DESMOPRESSIN

35.

Long-acting analog of vasopressin

a)

Desmopressin (DVAPP)

b)

Cabergoline

36.

Boxed warning of fatal liver injury

a)

Tolvaptan

b)

PTU

37.

Vasopressin Antagonists for Hyponatremia? Select all that apply

a)

Conivaptan

b)

Tolvaptan

c)

Desmopressin

38.

How does most glucose enter the liver during high blood glucose?

a)

Glut 4 transporter

b)

Glut 2 transporter

39.

What happens to most glucose after it enters the liver cell?

a)

phosphorylated with ATP by glucokinase to become glucose 6-phospahte and ADP

b)

phosphorylated with ATP by hexokinase to become glucose 6-phospahte and ADP

40.

What hormone increases the activity of glucokinase?

a)

glucagon

b)

insulin

41.

insulin sensitive and found in muscle and adipose cells

a)

Glut 4

b)

Glut 2

42.

Found in liver, pancrease and intestinal cells

a)

Glut 2

b)

Glut 4

43.

Found in liver and pancrease cells

a)

Glucokinase

b)

Hexokinase

44.

The reaction of Glucose + ATP in the presence of glucokinase would create?

a)

Glucose 6- phosphate

b)

Glucose 1-phopshate

c)

Fructose 6-phosphate

d)

Fructose 1-phosphate

45.

Glucose 6-phopshate in the presence of the enzyme phosphoglucomutase will reversable convert some of the molecules to which other molecule?

a)

Glucose 1-phopshate

b)

UDP-glucose

c)

Fructose 6-phosphate

46.

The reaction of glucose 1-phopshate with UTP in the presence of UDP-glycosepyrophosphorylase would create which other molecule in reversable reaction ?

a)

UDP Glucose and pyrophosphate

b)

Glucose 1-6 bisphosphate and UDP

47.

The reaction of UDP-glucose + glycogen in the presence of active glycogen synthase produces?

a)

glycogen that is one glycose larger + UDP

b)

galactose

c)

mannose

d)

sucrose

48.

Which of the following are usual features of Anderson disease? Select all that apply

a)

enlarged liver

b)

enlarged spleen

c)

can also affect hear, muscle, bran in some cases

d)

hemolytic anemia

49.

For the liver, which of these enzymes are not reversable and is also promoted by insulin signaling? Select all that apply

a)

glucokinase

b)

phosphoglucomutase

c)

glycogen synthase

d)

UDP-glucose pyrophosphorylase

50.

promote glycogen brekadown

a)

glucagon

b)

insulin

51.

promotes glycogen synthesis

a)

insulin

b)

glucagon

52.

Know this!

a)

Yes

b)

No

53.

Debranching enzyme, inability to break the alpha 1-6 bonds causing liver enlargement, hypoglycemia, excess short branched glycogen in the liver and muscle. (III)

a)

Cori's disease

b)

Von Gierkes disease

c)

Anderson disease

d)

Her's disease

e)

Aldolase B defficiency

54.

High glucose 6-phosphatase levels, excess normal Glycogen in liver (Type I)

a)

Von Gierke disease

b)

Cori disease

c)

Tarui syndrome

d)

MODY

55.

(Type VII) , Gycogen storage disorder affecting Phosphofruto kinase (PFK-1)

a)

Tarui Syndrome

b)

Von Gierke disease

c)

Her's disease

d)

Cori disease

56.

Glycogen synthase deficiency causing HYPOGLYCEMIA

a)

Type 0 glycogen storage disorder

b)

MODY

c)

Von Gierke disease

d)

Cori disease

57.

Hexokinase deficiency causing HEMOLITIC ANEMIA (RBC)

a)

Hemolitic anemia

b)

Anderson disease

58.

Glucokinase deficiency and DIABETES

a)

Cori disease

b)

MODY

c)

Type 0 Glycogen storage disorder

59.

Aldolase B deficiency in the liver is caused by intolerance to which of the following?

a)

Sucrose

b)

Glucose

c)

Fructose

60.

Which of the following deficiencies is the most common and causes Hemolitic anemia?

a)

Pyruvate kinase deficiency

b)

Aldolase B deficiency

61.

Which of the following will cause excessive glycogen stored in the muscle (glycogen phosphorylase) and it is type V?

a)

McArdle disease

b)

Pompe disease

c)

Her disease

d)

Cori disease

62.

Which of the following disease is type VI causing by liver enlargement, HYPOGLYCEMIA by glycogen phosphorylase?

a)

Her's disease

b)

McArdle disease

c)

MODY

63.

Which of the following receptors activate PKA, promoting glycogen breakdown mostly in the muscle and liver.

a)

beta 1-adrenergic

b)

glucagon receptors

64.

Which of the following receptors activate PKA, promoting glycogen breakdown exclusively in the liver.

a)

Glucagon receptors

b)

beta 1-adrenergic receptors

65.

Which of the following receptors activate PKB, promoting glycogen synthesis mostly in liver and muscle.

a)

Insulin receptors

b)

Glucagon receptors

66.

Which of the following receptors activate PKC, promoting glycogen breakdown mostly in liver .

a)

alpha 1-adrenergic receptors

b)

beta 1-adrenergic receptors

67.
a)

Sucrose

b)

Fructose

c)

Maltose

d)

Glucose

68.
a)
b)
69.

The reaction of glucose with ATP and kexokinase produces which two products?

a)

ADP

b)

AMP

c)

Glucose 6-phosphate

d)

Glucose 1-phosphate

70.
a)

Fructose 1-phosphate

b)

Fructose 1-6 bisphosphate

71.
a)
b)
c)
72.
a)

3-phosphoglycerate

b)

2-phosphoglycerate

c)

pyruvate

d)

glyceraldehyde dehydrogenase

73.

Select all that apply

a)

Glucose 6-1 bisphosphate

b)

Dihydroxyacetone phosphate

c)

glyceraldehyde 3- phopshate

d)

Fructose 6-phosphate

74.

Select all that apply

a)

phosphoenolpyruvate

b)

2-phosphoglycerate

c)

water

75.
a)
b)
c)
76.

What are the products of pyruvate, NADH and lactate dehydrogenase? Select all that apply

a)

NAD+

b)

ATP

c)

lactate

d)

ADP

77.

What are the products of ethanol, NAD+ and alcohol dehydrogenase? Select all that apply

a)

acetaldehyde

b)

lactate

c)

NADH

d)

pyruvate

e)

acetate

78.

Who activates gluconeogenesis in the liver?

a)

Glucagon during Fasting state

b)

Insulin during Fed state

79.

Who activates glycolysis in the liver ?

a)

Glucagon during the Fasting state

b)

Insulin during the Fed state

80.

activated by insulin

a)

Glucokinase

b)

Glucose 6-phosphatase

81.

activated by glucagon

a)

glucose 6-phosphatase

b)

glucokinase

82.

Pyruvate is converted to which product by the enzyme Pyruvate Carboxylase?

a)

alanine

b)

oxaloacetate

c)

glucose

d)

glycerol

83.

The conversion of Lactate to pyruvate in the liver requires which co-substrate?

a)

ATP

b)

NAD+

c)

ADP

d)

FAD

84.

How many ATP are need to go from lactate to glucose in a liver cell?

a)

2

b)

6

c)

8

d)

10

85.

The conversion of 1 molecule of glucose to 2 molecules of lactate produces which products?

a)

2 ATP

b)

6 ATP

c)

10 ATP

86.

What is the largest source of carbons for gluconeogenesis and Atkin diet promotes?

a)

amino acids

b)

fatty acids

c)

glycerol

d)

lactate

87.

Arsenate will prevent ATP production by interfering with which step of glycolisi?

a)

PFK-1

b)

glyceraldehyde- 3 phosphate dehydrogenase

c)

PFK-2

88.

How cells become polarized? Sodium potassium pump

a)

Uses ATP to pump out 3 ions of sodium and pump in 2 ions of potassium resulting the inside of the cell negative.

b)

Uses ATP to pump out 2 ions of sodium and pump in 3 ions of potassium resulting the inside of the cell negative.

89.

Propagate action potential down the length of an axon

a)

voltage gated sodium channels

b)

voltage gated potassium channels

90.

Maintain the cell in a polarized state

a)

Sodium potassium ATPase

b)

voltage gated sodium channels

91.

N1 and N2 ligand gated channels (ionotropic receptors, inward sodium ions) are activated by ?

a)

acethylcholine

b)

serotonin

c)

glutamate

92.

Which of the following are IONOTROPIC RECEPTORS that are inward sodium ion channels? Select all that apply

a)

5HT

b)

AMPA

c)

Kainate

d)

N1,N2

e)

NMDA

93.

Which of the following receptors are activated by Glutamate? Select all that apply

a)

AMPA

b)

Kainate

c)

N1

d)

NMDA

e)

5HT

94.

GABA-A ligand gated channels are activated by which of the following and what is the flow?

a)

GABA, potassium ions into the cell

b)

GABA, chloride ions into the cell

95.

Which of the following receptors is activated by Delta gated ligand gated channels? Select all that apply

a)

Glutamate outward potassium channel

b)

enkephalin outward potassium channel

96.

Inhibitor of Acethylcholine release

a)

Tetradotoxin

b)

Botulinium toxin (Botox)

97.

voltage gated sodium channel antagonist (inhibitor)

a)

Tetrodotoxin

b)

Botulinium Toxin (Botox)

98.

N1, N2 receptor agonist (activator)

a)

Nicotine

b)

Botox

99.

P-type sodium/potassium ATPase inhibitor

a)

Vanadate

b)

BOTOX

100.

The cause of Myasthenia Gravis (MG) is?

a)

loss of post synaptic N1 receptors

b)

loss of post synaptic D1 receptors

101.

Treatment for Myasthenia Gravis (MG)

a)

Acetyl choline esterase inhibitors

b)

Glutamate esterase inhibitors

102.

The half life of cAMP is increased by?

a)

caffeine

b)

BOTOX

c)

opioids

d)

tetrodotoxin

103.

Protein Kinase A is activated by which of the following molecules?

a)

GMP

b)

cAMP

c)

DAG

d)

PIP3

e)

IP3

104.

PKA

a)

a tyrosine kinase enzyme

b)

a serine and threonine kinase enzyme

105.

kinase

a)

an enzyme that uses ATP to add phosphate to a target protein

b)

a membrane pump

c)

a structural protein

106.

Stimulates adenylyl cyclase to produce cAMP

a)

G-alpha S

b)

G-alpha i

107.

Inhibits adenylyl cyclase from producing cAMP

a)

G-alpha-i

b)

G-alpha-s

108.

prevents G-alpha-i from binding GTP

a)

Pertussis toxin

b)

Cholera toxin

109.

Prevents G-alpha- s from hydrolyzing GTP

a)

Cholera Toxin

b)

Pertussis Toxin

110.

Glycine inhibitory ionotropic chloride channel receptors

a)

glycine

b)

beta

111.

Adrenergic (Epinephrine and Norepinephrine) stimulatory receptors via cAMP

a)

beta

b)

N1,N2

c)

H2

112.

activates protein kinase A

a)

Glucagon

b)

Insulin

113.

activates protein kinase B

a)

Glucagon

b)

Insulin

114.

Know this

a)

Yes

b)

No

115.

Increased activity of PKB in the liver leads to:

a)

increased synthesis of glycogen from glucose

b)

increased breakdown of glycogen from glucose

116.

G-alpha-q bound to GTP and activates _________

a)

Phospholipase C (PLC)

b)

PIP3

117.

Who causes the release of calcium from the endoplasmic reticulum?

a)

IP3

b)

DAG

118.

DAG and Calcium (Ca++) activates _______

a)

PKC

b)

PKA

c)

PKB

119.

M1 receptor activation increases which of the following? Select all that apply

a)

DAG

b)

IP3

c)

Calcium

d)

cAMP

120.

Who propagates a cascade leading to gene expression of enzymes?

a)

RAS bound to GTP

b)

RAS bound to cAMP

121.

Who activates receptor enzyme Guanylate cyclase

a)

ANF

b)

cGMP

122.

What does insulin? Select all that apply

a)

increases the activity of PKB

b)

promotes conversion of glucose into glycogen in the liver

c)

promotes conversion of glucose into glycogen in the muscle

d)

promotes conversion of glucose into triglycerides in the liver

e)

promotes the storage of triglycerides in the adipose tissue AND promotes the synthesis of protein in the liver

123.

Which of the following are insulin counterregulatory hormones?

a)

Cortisol

b)

Epinephrine

c)

Glucagon

d)

Norepinephrine

e)

Oxytocin

124.

onset diabetes of the young

a)

diabetes I

b)

diabetes II

c)

MODY

125.

Commonly known as insulin resistance

a)

type 2

b)

type 1

126.

juvenile diabetes due to the destruction of pancreatic b cells.

a)

diabetes type 1

b)

diabetes type 2

127.

Increase the release of insulin from beta cells.

a)

Sulfonylureas

b)

GLP 1 antagonists

128.

Inhibit outward potassium channels

a)

Sulfonylureas

b)

SGLT2

129.

Most important products of the pentose phosphate pathway? Select all that apply

a)

NADPH

b)

ribose-5 phosphate

c)

NADH

d)

NAD+

130.

What glycolysis intermediate is the starting point for the PPP?

a)

glucose 6-phosphate

b)

fructose 6-phosphate

c)

pyruvate

d)

glucose

131.

Thiamine deficiency, which enzyme in the PPP is dependent on Thiamine?

a)

transaldolase

b)

transketolase

132.

antioxidant needed to neutralize peroxide

a)

glutathione

b)

transketolase

133.

A defect of the enzyme Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase commonly causes?

a)

hemolytic anemia

b)

enlarged liver

134.

Galacitol or Galactosemia is mostly associated with ?

a)

cataracts

b)

enlarged liver

135.

Which of the following is an epimer of glucose ?

a)

galactose

b)

fructose

136.

The reduced form of glucose

a)

Sorbitol

b)

Galactose

137.
a)

T4

b)

T3

138.
a)

T4

b)

T3

139.

protein which stores thyroid hormones

a)

thyroglobulin

b)

thyroid peroxidase

140.

T3 and T4 are stored as colloids within follicle.

a)

True

b)

False

141.

Most of the T3 formed are from peripheral metabolism

a)

True

b)

False

142.

Greater risk of cardiotoxicity

a)

Levothyroxine

b)

Liothyronine (Cytomel)

143.

T4 converted to T3, drug of choice for hypothyroidism

a)

Levothyroxine

b)

Liothyronine

144.

Boxed warnings: must not be used to treat obesity/for weight reduction; in euthyroid individuals; high doses of thyroxine can cause life-threatening conditions with anorectic drugs

a)

Levothyroxine

b)

Liothyronine

145.

What drug has direct interaction with Levothyroxine by thyroxine causes a decrease in vitamin-K dependent clotting factors (increases bleeding risk).

a)

Warfarin

b)

Aceaminophen

146.

Which of the following drugs can induce hypothyroidism? Select all that apply

a)

Lithium

b)

Amiodarone

c)

Warfarin

147.

Autoimmune disease where B lymphocytes secrete a TSH receptor stimulating antibody (thyroid stimulating immunoglobulin).

a)

Grave disease

b)

Hashimoto

148.

Inhibits hormone release by blocking proteolysis of thyroglobulin

a)

IODIDES (Saturated Solution of KI, Lugol’s solution (KI and iodine)

b)

Radioactive Iodine (I131)

149.

Thioamides (Select all that apply)

a)

PTU

b)

Methimazole

c)

Levothyroxine

150.

Inhibits peripheral deiodination of T4

a)

PTU

b)

Methimazole

151.

Inhibit thyroidal peroxidase (Select all that apply)

a)

PTU

b)

Methimazole

c)

Levothyroxine

152.

Severe liver toxicity (boxed warning)

a)

PTU

b)

Tolvaptan

153.

Reduce symptoms, no effect on disease progression

a)

Beta Blockers (Propranolol)

b)

Acetaminophen

154.

Important role in carbohydrate metabolism

a)

Glucocorticoids

b)

Mineralcorticoids

155.

Important role in mineral homeostasis

a)

Mineralocorticoids

b)

Glucocorticoids

156.

Adrenal androgen converted peripherally into more potent androgens

a)

Cortisol

b)

DHEA

c)

Aldosterone

157.

Regulators- Angiotensin II, K

a)

Zona glomerulosa

b)

Zona fasciculata

c)

Zona reticularis

158.

Regulator-ACTH, CRH

a)

zona fasciculata/reticularis

b)

zona glomerulosa

159.

Adrenal steroids (Cortisol) are synthesized from

a)

Cholesterol

b)

Aminoacids

160.

Common precursor of all adrenocortical hormones

a)

Pregnenolone

b)

Aminoacids

161.

ACTH is synthesized as part of a precursor molecule, precursor of melanocyte stimulating hormone (MSH).

a)

proopiomelanocortin (POMC).

b)

TSH

162.

Which of the following can be caused by excessive glucocorticoids?

a)

Steroid Myopathy

b)

Fever

163.

Primary adrenal insufficiency causes ( Select all that apply)

a)

hyperkalemia

b)

hyperpigmentation

164.

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) is the most common defect of?

a)

21 hydroxylase deficiency

b)

11 hydroxylase deficiency

165.

Hyperplasia means which of the following is produced in excess?

a)

17-hydroxyprogesterone

b)

21 hydroxylase deficiency

166.

Glucocorticoid with significant mineralocorticoid activities and has significant salt retaining property

a)

Fludrocortisone

b)

Cortisone

167.

Most common adverse effects of glucocorticoids? Select all that apply

a)

masking of infections

b)

mood disturbances

c)

weight gain

d)

Hypertension

e)

Fluid retention

168.

The precursor for Cortisol is

a)

Cholesterol

b)

Aminoacids

169.

Triamcinolone

a)

F at position 9 in GCC and MCC

b)

GCC activity (3X), MCC

170.

Increases anti-inflammatory activity by increasing lipophilicity & receptor affinity

a)

Methyl group

b)

double bonds

171.

Steroid Inhibitor chemically similar to the insecticide DDT

a)

Mitotane (Lysodren)

b)

Ketoconazole (NIZORAL)

c)

Metyrapone (METOPIRONE)

172.

Inhibitor of adrenal and gonadal steroids and Inhibits CYP17 (17alpha-hydroxylase)

a)

Ketoconazole (NIZORAL)

b)

Mitotane (LYSODREN)

c)

Metyrapone (METOPIRONE)

173.

Selective inhibitor of 11 beta hydroxylase (CYP11B1) and Inhibits formation of cortisol from 11-deoxycortisol (DOC)

a)

Ketoconazole (NIZORAL)

b)

Metyrapone (METOPIRONE)

c)

Mitotane (LYSODREN)

174.

Steroid Inhibitors (Select all that apply)

a)

Mitotane (LYSODREN)

b)

Ketoconazole (NIZORAL)

c)

Metyrapone (METOPIRONE)

175.

Glucocorticoids are (Select all that apply)

a)

anti-inflammatory

b)

immunosuppressant