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WorksheetsBiology STAAR Review 1
Total questions: 136
Worksheet time: 3hrs 23mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
NUCLEOTIDES ARE THE BUILDING BLOCKS OF...
a)
CARBOHYDRATES
b)
LIPIDS
c)
NUCLEIC ACIDS
d)
PROTEINS
2.
AMINO ACIDS ARE THE BUILDING BLOCKS OF...
a)
CARBHYDRATES
b)
LIPIDS
c)
NUCLEIC ACIDS
d)
PROTEINS
3.
FATTY ACIDS AND GLYCEROL ARE THE BUILDING BLOCKS OF..
a)
CARBOHYDRATES
b)
LIPIDS
c)
NUCLEIC ACIDS
d)
PROTEINS
4.
MONOSACCARIDES ARE THE BUILDING BLOCKS OF...
a)
CARBOHYDRATES
b)
LIPIDS
c)
NUCLEIC ACIDS
d)
PROTEINS
5.
WHAT ELEMENTS DO ALL BIOMOLECULES (LIPIDS, PROTEINS, NUCLEIC ACIDS, CARBS) HAVE IN COMMON?
a)
CARBON, HYDROGEN, FLOURINE
b)
CARBON, HYDROGEN, CHLORINE
c)
CARBON, HYDROGEN, IODINE
d)
CARBON, HYDROGEN, OXYGEN
6.
WHAT ELEMENT DO AMINO ACIDS AND NUCLEOTIDES HAVE THAT THE OTHERS DO NOT HAVE?
a)
PHOSPHATE
b)
NITROGEN
c)
CARBON
d)
OXYGEN
7.
WHICH BIOMOLECULES STORES LONG-TERM ENERGY?
a)
PROTEIN
b)
CARBS
c)
LIPIDS
d)
NUCLEIC ACIDS
8.
A CELL WITHOUT A NUCLEUS IS...
a)
PROKARYOTIC
b)
PLANT
c)
ANIMAL
d)
PROTIST
9.
A CELL WITH A NUCLEUS IS...
a)
PROKARYOTIC
b)
VIRUS
c)
BACTERIA
d)
EUKARYOTIC
10.
Directs all cell activities through the DNA located there.
a)
Lysosomes
b)
Nucleus
c)
ribosomes
d)
Mitochondria
11.
What is the name of the genetic material that is inside the nucleus?
a)
ER
b)
ATP
c)
YOLO
d)
DNA
12.
Where are proteins made?
a)
Golgi body
b)
Mitoichondria
c)
Chromosomes
d)
Ribosomes
13.
The site of photosynthesis
a)
ribosome
b)
mitochondria
c)
chloroplast
d)
nucleus
14.
What are tiny organelles that convert glucose into ATP?
a)
Ribosomes
b)
Vesicles
c)
Cytoskeleton
d)
Mitochondria
15.
A rigid layer that lies outside the cell's membrane is...
a)
Cytoskeleton
b)
Cilia
c)
Cell Wall
d)
Flagella
16.
Osmosis is the movement of _____ across a membrane.
a)
food
b)
energy
c)
oxygen
d)
water
17.
Movement of particles from high to low concentration.
a)
Passive Transport
b)
Active Transport
18.
Osmosis is a form of ______________.
a)
Passive Transport
b)
Active Transport
19.
The cell membrane is selectively permeable, which means...
a)
All materials can enter and leave the cell
b)
Certain things can enter while others cannot
c)
The cell manually sorts through all materials
d)
Only certain cells can interact with the cell.
20.
What is it called when molecules move across the cell membrane from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration through a carrier protein?
a)
Diffusion
b)
Osmosis
c)
Active Transport
d)
Facilitated Diffusion
21.
What is the name of the process in which molecules move from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration across a selectively permeable membrane?
a)
Diffusion
b)
Osmosis
c)
Active Transport
d)
Facilitated Diffusion
22.
A cell in an isotonic solution will
a)
swell (get bigger)
b)
shrink (get smaller)
c)
stay the same size
d)
impossible to tell
23.
The cell below is in a _________ solution.
a)
Hypotonic
b)
Hypertonic
c)
Isotonic
24.
The cell below is in a _____________ solution.
a)
Hypertonic
b)
Hypotonic
c)
Isotonic
25.
During which stage of the cell cycle does mitosis and cytokinesis occur?
a)
Interphase
b)
S phase
c)
M phase
d)
G1 phase
26.
During what phase of the cell cycle is DNA replicated?
a)
G1 phase
b)
S phase
c)
G2 phase
d)
M phase
27.
During what phase of the cell cycle does the cell grow?
a)
G1 phase
b)
S phase
c)
M phase
d)
Cytokinesis
28.
Put the following stages of mitosis in order: anaphase, prophase, metaphase, and telophase.
a)
prophase, metaphase, telophase, anaphase
b)
prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase
c)
prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
d)
prophase, telophase, metaphase, anaphase
29.
a)
Anaphase
b)
Cytokinesis
c)
Telophase
d)
Metaphase
30.
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
Interphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Metaphase
31.
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
Anaphase
c)
Telophase
d)
Prophase
32.
Identify the Cell Cycle Stage.
a)
Anaphase
b)
Cytonkinesis
c)
Interphase
d)
Prophase
33.
Uncontrollable cell growth is known as _____
a)
obesity
b)
cancer
c)
diabetes
d)
hepatitis
34.
The cell process where one cell divides to form two identical cells is called --
a)
Synthesis
b)
Mitosis
c)
Interphase
d)
Cytokinesis
35.
When you start with 1 cell, at the end of mitosis, how many identical cells will you have?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
36.
After meiosis is complete how many cells will there be?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
37.
After meiosis is complete, the new cells:
a)
are all identical
b)
are all different
c)
are half identical and half different
d)
are all stretched out
38.
What do viruses need to reproduce?
a)
they need genetic material
b)
They need a host cell
c)
They need bacteria
d)
They need insulin
39.
Which viral life cycle allows viral genetic material to lay dormant while the host cell reproduces?
a)
lytic
b)
mitosis
c)
lysogenic
d)
S phase
40.
Reasons that viruses are considered to be nonliving is because
a)
They are not cellular
b)
They cannot reproduce on their own
c)
They cannot make proteins
d)
all of the above
41.
A process in which DNA has the unique ability to make an exact copy of itself.
a)
Replication
b)
Translation
c)
Transcription
42.
Adenine bonds with ______________.
a)
Guanine
b)
Thymine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Adenine
43.
Guanine bonds with ______________.
a)
Adenine
b)
Guanine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Thymine
44.
Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partial strand
ATG TGA CAG
ATG TGA CAG
a)
ATG TGA CAG
b)
TAC ACT GTC
c)
GTA AGT GAC
d)
CAT TCA CTG
45.
In RNA, Uracil pairs with ______.
a)
cytosine
b)
adenine
c)
guanine
d)
thymine
46.
The process to go from DNA to mRNA is _______
a)
translation
b)
transcription
c)
replication
47.
The process to go from mRNA to a protein is called ____
a)
transcription
b)
rRNA
c)
replication
d)
translation
48.
Choose the nucleotide sequence of the RNA strand that would be complementary to the following strand:
GTAGTCA
GTAGTCA
a)
UATUAGA
b)
ACGACTG
c)
CAUCAGU
d)
CATCAGT
49.
The main function of tRNA is to...
a)
carry a message that, when translated, forms proteins
b)
form a portion of ribosomes
c)
string together complementary RNA and DNA strands
d)
bring amino acids from the cytoplasm to the ribosomes
50.
Which component of DNA determines the traits of an organism?
a)
Nitrogen Bases
b)
Sugar-Phosphate Backbone
c)
Hydrogen bonds
51.
What is the correct amino acid sequence for the mRNA code AUGCCAGUAUGA
a)
Met-Pro-Ala-Val
b)
Met-Pro-Val
c)
Tyr-Gly-His
d)
Tyr-Gly-Arg-His
52.
What type of cell is pictured?
a)
Prokaryotic
b)
Eukaryotic
c)
Plant
d)
Animal
53.
Type of cell shown?
a)
Bacterial
b)
Prokaryotic
c)
Eukaryotic
d)
Red blood
54.
Which 2 molecules forms the sides (backbone) of the DNA ladder?
a)
deoxyribose and adenine
b)
deoxyribose and a hydrogen bond
c)
sugar and the nucleus
d)
deoxyribose (sugar) and phosphate
55.
Any change in the sequence of DNA is...
a)
transgenic shift
b)
Single Genotype
c)
Monohybrid Trait
d)
Mutation
56.
What mutation has occurred here?
T-G-A-C-C-A
T-G-A-G-C-A
a)
Substitution/Point
b)
Deletion
c)
Insertion
d)
Frameshift
57.
DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG
The mutated DNA segment is TTCGCAAG. This is an example of ___ mutation.
The mutated DNA segment is TTCGCAAG. This is an example of ___ mutation.
a)
Substitution
b)
Deletion
c)
Insertion
d)
Inversion
58.
What type of gene mutation has occurred here? Normal-
AGA-TTC-ATA-GCG
Mutant-
AGA-TTC-AAT-AGC-G
AGA-TTC-ATA-GCG
Mutant-
AGA-TTC-AAT-AGC-G
a)
deletion frameshift
b)
insertion frameshift
c)
substitution
d)
nonsense
59.
A human has 46 chromosomes in their body cells. What is the haploid number?
a)
46
b)
92
c)
23
d)
12
60.
Gametes have haploid or diploid number of chromosomes?
a)
Haploid
b)
Diploid
61.
Body cells have diploid or haploid number of chromosomes?
a)
Haploid
b)
Diploid
62.
Term for homozygous organisms that display two dominant phenotypes at the same time
a)
codominance
b)
incomplete dominance
c)
multiple alleles
d)
linked genes
63.
What is a phenotype?
a)
The expression of a trait; what you see.
b)
refers to the genetic makeup of an individual
c)
An organism that has the same genes for a trait (ex. TT or tt)
d)
the passing of traits from parent to offspring
64.
What does heterozygous mean?
a)
An organism that has the same genes for a trait (TT or tt)
b)
An organism that has different genes for a trait (Tt)
c)
When neither gene is fully dominant; offspring is a mixture of both
d)
the different forms of a trait (hair color--> brown, blonde, red
65.
having two of the same genes for the trait (sometimes called purebred).
a)
homozygous
b)
hetrozygous
c)
protein
d)
chromosome
66.
What is the percentage of offspring that have green pods?
a)
100%
b)
75%
c)
50%
d)
25%
67.
What goes in box 1
a)
AABb
b)
AABB
c)
aabb
d)
AaBb
68.
A red and white flower are crossed and all offspring are pink flowers. This type of inheritance pattern is a MIXTURE of both traits.
a)
incomplete dominance
b)
co-dominance
c)
complete dominance
d)
recessive pattern
69.
What is the gender of the individual whose karyotype is seen in the image?
a)
Male
b)
Female
70.
Based on the karyotype, what is the sex of this baby?
a)
Male
b)
Female
71.
What is the chromosomal condition of the individual whose karyotype is seen in the image?
a)
Trisomy 21 (Down's Syndrome)
b)
Trisomy 13 (Patau Syndrome)
c)
Trisomy 18 (Edward's Syndrome)
d)
XXY Sex Chromosomes (Klinefelter's Syndrome)
72.
Whose blood was found at the crime scene?
a)
John
b)
Lisa
c)
Bob
d)
Sure
73.
Structures with the same parts have different functions; suggests that organisms share a common ancestry
a)
vestigial structures
b)
homologous structures
c)
adaptive radiation
d)
fossil
74.
Study of embryos of various organisms to show a common ancestor because of similarities in development
a)
natural selection
b)
embryology
c)
speciation
d)
evolution
75.
Which best describes these fossils?
a)
The oldest fossils can be found on the lower layers
b)
The oldest fossils can be found at the top layers
c)
The youngest fossils are always found on the bottom layers
d)
You can not tell the age of any of these fossils
76.
Whales are aquatic mammals that contain a pelvis bone. Even though it does not aid in its movement, the function must have been used by a common ancestor of the whale. Thus, the pelvis is referred to as a(n)
a)
vestigial structure
b)
analogous structure
c)
homologous structure
77.
All the animals to the right of the hagfish would have the common characteristic of -
a)
Fur
b)
Claws or nails
c)
Lungs
d)
Jaws
78.
How would you describe this evolution?
a)
Homologous structure
b)
Analogous structure
c)
Structural adaption
d)
Functional adaption
79.
The ability of an organism to survive and reproduce in its specific environment
a)
diversity.
b)
evolution
c)
adaptation
d)
fitness
80.
two species are in different environments and look very similar. However, that are not closely related (analogous). Their resemblance is most likely an example of.
a)
sexual selection
b)
temporal isolation
c)
convergent evolution
d)
divergent evolution
81.
Other insects cannot, but, a bumble bee has just enough weight to open up the snapdragon flower and pollinate. This adaption is ....
a)
convergent evolution
b)
co-evolution
c)
divergent evolution
d)
speciation
82.
Some female peacocks prefer males with large, colorful tales while other female peacocks prefer males with no tail at all. Females are now mating only with the tail they prefer. What type of reproductive barrier is this?
a)
behavioral isolation
b)
hybrid sterility
c)
temporal isolation
d)
mechanical isolation
83.
Which is an example of temporal isolation?
a)
flowers that bloom in different months
b)
birds that have different mating calls
c)
fruit flies that mate in different locations
d)
squirrels that have different fur colors
84.
When animals make themselves look or sound like another animal to keep predators away
a)
mimicry
b)
camoflauge
c)
learned behavior
d)
behavioral adaptation
85.
Two organisms that have a common ancestor but overtime evolved into different species. What is this called
a)
convergent
b)
divergent
c)
coevolution
86.
Which evidence of common ancestry is being studied in this visual?
a)
biogeography
b)
fossil record
c)
anatomical homology
d)
molecular homology
87.
What is the most specific level of classification?
a)
Family
b)
Domain
c)
Species
d)
Carolus Linnaeus
88.
The 8 levels of classification, most broad to most specific.
a)
Domain, Genus, Family, Order, Class, Phylum, Kingdom, Species
b)
Domain, Species, Kingdom, Genus, Phylum, Family, Class, Order
c)
Domain, Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species
d)
Order, Kingdom, Species, Domain, Phylum, Family, Class, Genus
89.
What kingdom is always multicellular, heterotrophic and has NO cell wall?
a)
Protista
b)
Fungi
c)
Plantae
d)
Animalia
90.
Which kingdom is autotrophic AND has a cell wall?
a)
Bacteria
b)
Fungi
c)
Plantae
d)
Protista
91.
What is the difference between Archaebacteria and Eubacteria?
a)
Bacteria is eukaryotic
b)
Archaebacteria is multicellular
c)
Archaebacteria can live in extreme environments
d)
They are the same
92.
This kingdom contains heterotrophic organisms that can be unicellular or multicellular. Organisms from this kingdom can sometimes cause athlete's foot or ringworm.
a)
Fungi
b)
Animalia
c)
Protista
d)
Archaebacteria
93.
What are the three domains?
a)
Archaea, Bacteria, and Eubacteria
b)
Archaea, Protista, and Eubacteria
c)
Archaea, Bacteria, and Eukarya
d)
Archaea, Fungi, Animalia
94.
This kingdom contains organisms that are unicellular, prokaryotic, and often live in water. Amoeba, euglena, and paramecium are a part of this kingdom.
a)
Animalia
b)
Eubacteria
c)
Fungi
d)
Protista
95.
What two names are used in binomial nomenclature?
a)
Kingom
b)
Phylum
c)
Genus
d)
Species
96.
In which organelle (part of the cell) does photosynthesis take place?
a)
mitochondria
b)
chloroplast
c)
nucleus
d)
cell membrane
97.
Which of the following is the correct equation for PHOTOSYNTHESIS?
a)
CO2 + light + H2O --> O2 + Sugar
b)
CO2 + sugar + H2O --> O2 + light
c)
O2 + light + H2O --> CO2 + Sugar
d)
CO2 + O2 + H2O --> Light+ Sugar
98.
Where does cellular respiration take place in the cell?
a)
Cell Membrane
b)
Nucleus
c)
Mitochondria
d)
Vacuole
99.
The purpose of cellular respiration is to
a)
make water
b)
make ATP
c)
make glucose
d)
make oxygen
100.
What is the correct equation for cellular respiration?
a)
6O2 + C6H12O6 -> 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy
b)
6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy -> 6CO2 + 6H2O
c)
6CO2 + 6H2O -> 6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy
d)
6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy -> 6O2 + C6H12O6
101.
The two main types of fermentation are called
a)
alcoholic and aerobic
b)
aerobic and anaerobic
c)
alcoholic and lactic acid
d)
lactic acid and anaerobic
102.
The process carried out by yeast that causes bread to rise is
a)
alcoholic fermentation
b)
lactic acid fermentation
c)
cellular respiration
d)
yeast mitosis
103.
The expression "feel the burn" means that a person exercising is goes through...
a)
lactic acid fermentation
b)
alcoholic fermentation
c)
photosynthesis
d)
aerobic respiration
104.
How do enzymes speed up chemical reaction?
a)
Increasing activation energy
b)
Decreasing activation energy
c)
Increasing deactivation energy
d)
Decreasing deactivation energy
105.
Enzymes are...
a)
nucleic acids
b)
proteins
c)
lipids
d)
carbohydrates
106.
What is the function of an enzyme?
a)
enzymes break themselves into small pieces
b)
enzymes slow down chemical reactions
c)
enzymes speed up chemical reactions
d)
enzymes combine products to form reactants
107.
Which of these is most likely an enzyme?
a)
Sucrose
b)
Galactose
c)
Fructose
d)
Amylase
108.
The "lock and key hypothesis" attempts to explain the mechanism of?
a)
Vacuole formation
b)
Pinocytosis
c)
Sharing of electrons
d)
Enzyme specificity
109.
Letter E...
a)
active site
b)
enzyme
c)
substrate
d)
products
110.
What is indicated by letter A?
a)
enzyme
b)
product
c)
substrate
d)
active site
111.
Letter D...
a)
active site
b)
enzyme
c)
substrate
d)
products
112.
Letter B...
a)
active site
b)
enzyme
c)
substrate
d)
products
113.
When a person is suddenly cut by a sharp object, a nervous impulse is sent along a sensory neuron to the spinal cord. The impulse is immediately transmitted through motor neurons to produce a response. Which of the following correctly identifies and describes this response?
a)
It is a conditioned response that occurs only to prevent injury.
b)
It is a learned response that does not occur in infants or small children.
c)
It is a reflex response that causes various muscles to contract in order to move away from the object.
d)
It is a voluntary response that is initiated only after the impulse has been carried to the relevant area in the brain.
114.
Which correctly describes an interaction between two body systems of a rabbit that helps the rabbit outrun a pursuing coyote?
a)
The skeletal system releases additional calcium, and the circulatory system retains more sodium in the blood to provide muscles with ions for contraction.
b)
The digestive system increases the rate of digestion, and the excretory system ceases to provide tissues with more nutrients.
c)
The respiratory system increases the breathing rate, and the circulatory system increases blood pressure to provide tissues with more oxygen.
d)
The endocrine system releases hormones that prepare the immune system to deal with possible injuries.
115.
The human digestive system is approximately 900 cm. long. Food is moved through the digestive tract primarily by -
a)
bile produced by the pancreas
b)
the enzymes amylase and pepsin
c)
muscular contractions
d)
hydrochloric acid in the stomach
116.
a)
a reduced supply of oxygen
b)
long periods of rainfall
c)
high concentrations of glucose
d)
little available water
117.
a)
Pollen is released from the anther and is transferred to the stigma. A pollen tube forms and grows through the style. The pollen tube reaches the filament, where the sperm fertilizes the egg.
b)
Pollen moves from the ovule up through the style and is released from the stigma. The pollen is transferred to the anther, where the sperm fertilizes the egg.
c)
Pollen is released from the anther and is transferred to the stigma. A pollen tube forms and grows through the style. The pollen tube reaches an ovule within the ovary, where the sperm fertilizes the egg.
d)
Pollen is released from the stigma and is transferred to the anther. A pollen tube grows down from the anther through the filament and fuses with the ovule, where the sperm fertilizes the egg.
118.
The outermost layer of plant stems in dicotyledons consists of epidermal cells and guard cells that surround openings called stomata. The epidermal cells are usually covered with a waterproof layer that provides protection from injury and water loss. The stomata allow gas exchange. The epidermal cells and stomata have functions similar to those of which two human body systems?
a)
Skeletal and respiratory
b)
Cardiovascular and skeletal
c)
Integumentary and respiratory
d)
Cardiovascular and integumentary
119.
symbiotic relationship in which both organisms benefit
a)
competition
b)
Mutualism
c)
nitrogen fixation
d)
energy pyramid
120.
A living relationship between two species in which one organism is harmed is called...
a)
mutualism
b)
commensalism
c)
parasitism
d)
niche
121.
The amount of energy that usually transfers from one trophic level to the next...
a)
10%
b)
20%
c)
80%
d)
50%
122.
In the energy pyramid here, which organisms have the most energy available?
a)
Producers
b)
Carnivores
c)
Herbivores
d)
Top Predator
123.
If there is 1000 Kcal available in the producers in trophic level 1, how much energy is available in the herbivores in trophic level 2?
a)
10 Kcal
b)
1 Kcal
c)
100 Kcal
d)
1000 Kcal
124.
The fox in this food web would be considered a:
a)
Tertiary Consumer
b)
Producer
c)
Secondary Consumer
d)
Primary Consumer
125.
Cattle egrets are birds that forage in fields among cattle. The egrets get easy access to food and the cattle don't care if they are there or not.
a)
mutualism
b)
commensalism
c)
competition
d)
parasitism
126.
Red-billed oxpeckers are birds that feed on parasites found on an impala. The impala gets rid of parasites and the red-billed oxpeckers get a yummy dinner. This is an example of _______.
a)
commensalism
b)
mutualism
c)
neutralism
d)
competition
127.
What is the order of succession shown in this figure?
a)
A, B, C, D
b)
B, A, D, C
c)
C, D, A, B
d)
D, A, B, C
128.
The picture shows what type of succession?
a)
primary
b)
secondary
c)
tertiary
d)
quadanary
129.
The picture shows what type of succession?
a)
primary
b)
secondary
c)
tertiary
d)
quadanary
130.
What is the name given to lichen or algae after a primary succession?
a)
pioneer species
b)
volunteer species
c)
founder species
d)
conqueror species
131.
What are examples of pioneer species in a primary succession?
a)
Bushes and Shrubs
b)
Oak trees
c)
Mossess and Lichens
d)
A rose Bush
132.
After a volcanic eruption, lava covers the land. What is the order that plants grow to repopulate the area?
a)
Lichens → Shrubs → Grasses → Trees
b)
Lichens → tree → shrubs→Grasses
c)
Grasses → Lichens → Shrubs → Trees
d)
Lichens → Grasses → Shrubs → Trees
133.
Final illustration (#8) shows
a)
pioneer species
b)
climax community
c)
only biotic factors
d)
only abiotic factors
134.
Which of the following removes carbon from the atmosphere?
a)
Combustion
b)
Respiration
c)
Photosynthesis
d)
Death
135.
A particular golf course is using large amounts of nitrogen fertilizer. What process could move this nitrogen into a local stream?
a)
volatilization
b)
nitrogen fixation
c)
runoff
d)
ammonification
136.
What converts nitrogen gas into a useable form for plants and animals?
a)
bacteria
b)
fungi
c)
rain
d)
car exhaust
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