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Anatomy and Physiology Final Review 1 (Intro-Histology)

Total questions: 175

Worksheet time: 3hrs 34mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The study of the structure and shape of the body and its parts and their relationships to one another is PHYSIOLOGY.

a)

True

b)

False

2.

What body position is considered the “starting point” for describing body positions?

a)

SOFT Planes

b)

Anatomical Position

c)

Quadrants

d)

Cavities

3.

Anatomy means:

a)

the study of the form of all living things

b)

the study of the body

c)

the study of how living things work

d)

None of the above

4.

Physiology means

a)

The study of the form of all living things.

b)

The study of the body.

c)

The study of how living things work.

d)

None of the above.

5.

Sagittal Planes divide the body

a)

into right v left

b)

into front v back

c)

into unsymmetrical parts

d)

into top v bottom

6.

Transverse planes divide

a)

into right v left

b)

into top v bottom

c)

into unsymmetrical parts

d)

into front v back

7.

The foot is ______ to the ankle.

a)

Lateral

b)

Posterior

c)

Superior

d)

Inferior

8.

Which cavity contains the brain?

a)

Oral

b)

Cranial

c)

Orbital

d)

Abdominopelvic

9.

The smallest particle in the structural makeup of the body is:

a)

cell

b)

molecule

c)

atom

d)

tissue

10.

Which of the following is not a quadrant?

a)

Upper left

b)

Upper Right

c)

Lower Left

d)

Middle

11.

The posterior body cavity contains:

a)

Thoracic and Abdominal

b)

Thoracic and Spinal

c)

Pelvic, Abdominal, and Thoracic

d)

Spinal and Cranial

12.

Positive feedback....

a)

Reduces a disruptive influence

b)

Increases disruptive influence

c)

none of the above

13.

Which of the following is an example of negative feedback?

a)

Blood clotting

b)

Childbirth

c)

Sweating

d)

Transmitting nerve signals

14.

Buccal means _______ and carpal means _____

a)

Cheek of face; wrist

b)

Cheek of face; toes

c)

Groin; wrist

d)

Groin; toes

15.

Crural means ______; fibular means ______

a)

Lateral, lower leg; lower leg

b)

Lower leg; wrist

c)

wrist; lower leg

d)

Lower leg; lateral, lower leg

16.

Frontal means ______; Mental means _____

a)

Chin; forehead

b)

Forehead; Chin

c)

Eyes; Chin

d)

Chin; brain

17.

A patient's dorsal side is lying on the operating table. This position is called:

a)

Lateral

b)

Anterior

c)

Supine

d)

Prone

18.

How many organ systems are there in the human body?

a)

10

b)

8

c)

14

d)

11

19.

Anatomical landmark describing the shoulder:

a)

Acromial

b)

Crural

c)

Scapular

d)

Axillary

20.

Anatomical landmark describing the upper Arm:

a)

Antebrachial

b)

Brachial

c)

Mental

d)

Frontal

21.

Anatomical landmark describing the Armpit:

a)

Occipital

b)

Umbilical

c)

Patellar

d)

Axillary

22.

Anatomical landmark describing the Elbow:

a)

Occipital

b)

Umbilical

c)

Patellar

d)

Olecranon

23.

Identify the sectional plane:

a)

frontal

b)

lateral

c)

transverse

d)

sagittal

24.

Identify the sectional plane:

a)

transverse

b)

sagittal

c)

midsagittal

d)

coronal

25.

Identify the sectional plane:

a)

frontal

b)

cross

c)

transverse

d)

sagittal

26.

The shoulder is _____ to the elbow.

a)

proximal

b)

dorsal

c)

distal

d)

ventral

27.

Which term means "below" or "toward the feet?"

a)

Inferior

b)

Superior

c)

Posterior

d)

Lateral

28.

A 47 year has fallen and is laying on her back, what position is this?

a)

Lateral

b)

Prone

c)

Superior

d)

Supine

29.

Which medical term means "toward the front?"

a)

Supine

b)

Anterior

c)

Lateral

d)

Inferior

30.

The cranial cavity is _____ to the thoracic cavity.

a)

inferior

b)

anterior

c)

peripheral

d)

superior

31.

Oral means ________

a)

Eyes

b)

Ears

c)

Mouth

d)

Nose

32.

Which large cavity describes the upper "chest" cavity?

a)

Thoracic cavity

b)

Cranial cavity

c)

Abdominal cavity

d)

Pelvic cavity

33.

The type of sectional plane that divides the body into Dorsal and Ventral portions is:

a)

Sagittal

b)

Frontal

c)

Transverse

d)

Midsagittal

34.

Directional term meaning "toward the mid-line?"

a)

Lateral

b)

Proximal

c)

Rotation

d)

Medial

35.

Anatomical term meaning "toward the surface?"

a)

Deep

b)

Caudal

c)

Superficial

d)

Lateral

36.

"Physiology" is the study of:

a)

How living organisms perform functions

b)

Labeling and naming body structures

c)

Maintenance and repair of body tissues

d)

The functions of internal body organs and structures

37.

Which of the following options orders the structures from most simple to most complex?

a)

tissues - cells - organ systems - organs

b)

cells - tissues - organs - organ systems

c)

cells - organs - tissues - organ systems

d)

tissues - cells - organs - organelles

38.

Amputation of a foot at the ankle would involve a cut in the _____ plane.

a)

coronal

b)

midsagittal

c)

transverse

d)

frontal

39.

Which set of directional terms are opposites?

a)

distal and proximal

b)

medial and inferior

c)

superior and ventral

d)

anterior and deep

40.

Which plane would make a slice right between your eyes dividing you into EQUAL left and right halves?

a)

transverse

b)

sagittal

c)

midsagittal

d)

frontal

41.

Which landmark region is most Medial?

a)

Nasal

b)

Otic

c)

Pollex

d)

Femoral

42.

Which of the following represents the "Anatomical" position?

a)
b)
c)
d)
43.

Reproductive organs are located within which cavity?

a)

Pleural

b)

Pelvic

c)

Mediastinum

d)

Thoracic

44.

The brain is located in the:

a)

spinal cavity

b)

Hyperchondriac region

c)

cranial cavity

d)

umbilical region

45.

Identify body cavity #3:

a)

pericardial cavity

b)

pleural cavity

c)

pelvic cavity

d)

abdominal cavity

46.

Identify the body cavity #4:

a)

Pericardial cavity

b)

Pelvic cavity

c)

Pleural cavity

d)

Cranial cavity

47.

A group of similar cells work together to form a(n):

a)

Organ

b)

Tissue

c)

Organelle

d)

Organ system

48.

The ears are __________ to the eyes.

a)

Lateral

b)

Medial

c)

Superior

d)

Posterior

49.

A collection of tissues that work together to carry out a specialized function is defined as a(n):

a)

Muscle

b)

Cell

c)

Organ System

d)

Organ

50.

The maintenance of a stable internal environment in the body is known as ____________.

a)

Homeostasis

b)

Meandering

c)

Stabilization

d)

Equalizing

51.

Which of the following organs are NOT found in the abdominal cavity?

a)

Small Intestine

b)

Stomach

c)

Bladder

d)

Liver

52.

Muscles are a collection of tissues. They can contract and relax which causes body movements. A muscle would be a(n):

a)

Organ

b)

Organelle

c)

Organ System

d)

Organism

53.
What are the two major body cavities?
a)
Cranial & Vertebral 
b)
Dorsal & Ventral
c)
Thoracic & Abdominopelvic 
d)
Serous & Peritoneum 
54.

The cavity surrounded by the box is:

a)

Pleural

b)

Pericardial

c)

Pelvic

d)

Mediastinum

55.

What abdominal quadrant does "Number 2" represent?

a)

Right Upper

b)

Right Lower

c)

Left Upper

d)

Left Lower

56.

Which abdominal region is "Section 1?"

a)

Epigastric

b)

Left Hypochondriac

c)

Right Hypochondriac

d)

Right Iliac

57.

Which abdominal region is "Section 2?"

a)

Epigastric

b)

Left Hypochondriac

c)

Right Hypochondriac

d)

Right Iliac

58.

Which abdominal region is "Section 7?"

a)

Epigastric

b)

Left Iliac

c)

Right Hypochondriac

d)

Right Iliac

59.

Which abdominal region is "Section 5?"

a)

Umbilical

b)

Hypogastric

c)

Right lumbar

d)

Epigastric

60.

Which abdominal region is "Section 4?"

a)

Umbilical

b)

Left lumbar

c)

Right lumbar

d)

Right Iliac

61.

Which abdominal region is "Section 8?"

a)

Epigastric

b)

Umbilical

c)

Hypogastric

d)

Right lumbar

62.

Which term below describes a body structure that can be observed with the naked eye?

a)

Microscopic

b)

Gross

c)

Systemic

d)

Physical

63.

Which of the following is an example of a Negative Feedback loop?

a)

The body chemically enhances muscle contractions during the labor process

b)

The body maintains a steady heartbeat during REM sleep

c)

The body sweats to stop the internal temperature from rising too high

d)

The body sends more platelets to the site of an open wound to form a clot

64.

If starch (solute) cannot move through a membrane, which observation would most likely be made 24 hours later?

a)

water will diffuse into the model cell

b)

the cell will change color

c)

the cell will shrivel

d)

starch will diffuse out of the cell

65.

"Active transport" is when a cell:

a)

absorbs materials from Low to High concentrations without energy

b)

absorbs materials from High to Low concentrations without energy

c)

forces materials from Low to High concentrations using energy

d)

does nothing

66.

Diffusion is when the the particles move:

a)

From A to B

b)

From B to A

c)

from both sides equally

d)

not at all

67.

Where in a cell is this structure found, and what is its purpose?

a)

around the nucleus; protein production

b)

around the cell; protection and transport

c)

near the nucleus; package molecules for transport

d)

in plant cells only; photosynthesis

68.

Which pair correctly matches organelles to their functions?

a)

mitochondria and chloroplast; control cells activities

b)

golgi apparatus and vessicles; make and process energy

c)

cell membrane and cell wall; package molecules for transport

d)

ribosomes, rough and smooth ER; manufacture proteins

69.

When cells are placed in a hypertonic sugar solution, what will likely happen?

a)

water will leave the cell

b)

water will enter the cell

c)

the amount of water will stay the same

d)

sugar will enter the cell

70.

Where are channel proteins found, and what do they do?

a)

in the nucleus; make DNA

b)

in the cell membrane; allow certain substances in and out

c)

in the chloroplast; make sugar

d)

around the vacuole; control pressure

71.

Mitochondria, nucleus, and endoplasmic reticulum are found in

a)

human cells

b)

plant cells

c)

human and plant cells

d)

bacteria

72.

Why do organisms use the cell cycle?

a)

to grow

b)

to make sugar

c)

to get energy

d)

to make unique cells

73.

During which part of the cell cycle is DNA replicated?

a)

interphase

b)

mitosis

c)

cytokinesis

74.

Simon looks at an image of a slide and notices that all of the chromosomes are lined up in along the middle of the cell. He is likely looking at a cell that is in

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase

75.
What phase is this cell in?
a)
Mitosis
b)
Interphase
c)
Prophase
d)
Telophase
76.
Stem cells are
a)
cells that grow uncontrollably
b)
undifferentiated and can be any type of cell
c)
never go through cell division
d)
only found in embryos
77.
Stem cells can be obtained from
a)
embryos
b)
some adult tissues
c)
umbilical cord blood
d)
all of the above
78.
What does "pluripotent" mean?
a)
able to divide and make many different types of cells
b)
not able to divide
c)
can only divide and make one cell type 
d)
if it divides, it will make a cancerous tumor
79.
What process best explains how muscle cells and nerve cells can develop from the same fertilized egg?
a)
genetic engineering
b)
survival of the fittest
c)
differentiation
d)
selective breeding
80.
What is the difference between embryonic stem cells and adult stem cells?
a)
Embryonic stem cells can differentiate into more cell types than adult stem cells
b)
Adult stem cells are pluripotent, just like embryonic stem cells
c)
Adult stem cells can differentiate into more cell types than embryonic stem cells
d)
Adult stem cells grow bigger than embryonic stem cells
81.
Which is true about embryonic stem cells?
a)
They no longer divide, their cell type is set and cannot change.
b)
They can develop into only one type of cell.
c)
They can become any cell type in the body.
d)
They are found in adults.
82.
How do stem cells know what type of cells to differentiate into?
a)
The nucleus has instructions to turn some genes on and some genes off.
b)
Signals from chemicals in the organism or from the environment determine which genes will be turned on and off.
c)
Genes turn on and off randomly.
d)
The cell has unique DNA that determines what the cell will become.
83.
what is the role of stem cells in the body 
a)
fight against infection 
b)
provide specialized roles in the body 
c)
used for fertility treatment 
d)
they produce new specialized cells in the body to replace old cells that are used up 
84.
the central region of an atom where its neutrons and protons are is its 
a)
nucleus 
b)
electron cloud
c)
core 
d)
center 
85.
A particle that moves around the nucleus is a(n)...
a)
Proton
b)
Neutron
c)
Electron
d)
Quark
86.
Nucleic acids are one of the four major macromolecules.  The main functions of nucleic acids are to
a)
store and transport energy and structural components in the cell.
b)
act as enzymes, cell signals, and structural support for the cell.
c)
carry genetic material and create structures inside the cell.
d)
aid in development, the immune system, and blood clotting.
87.
Protein molecules are composed of long chains of __________ .
a)
ribosomes
b)
RNA
c)
amino acids
d)
DNA
88.
Life on Earth is based on the element:
a)
helium
b)
gold
c)
carbon
d)
water
89.
The major macromolecules of life are:
a)
lipids, proteins, carbohydrates, nucleic acids
b)
nucleic acid and water
c)
lipids and fats
d)
DNA
90.
Which has a pH below 7?
a)
Acid
b)
Base
91.
What is the pH of water?
a)
0
b)
4
c)
7
d)
14
92.
What is the pH range of a base?
a)
0-6.9
b)
7.1-14
c)
0-14
d)
7
93.

What is the main biological function of carbohydrates?

a)

Store energy

b)

Contain genetic information

c)

Make up enzymes

d)

Make you fat

94.

Speed up chemical reactions

a)

catalysts

b)

hormones

c)

salts

d)

acids

95.

Building blocks of carbohydrates

a)

monosaccharides

b)

glycerol and fatty acids

c)

neucleotides

d)

amino acids

96.

Building blocks of lipids

a)

monosaccharides

b)

glycerol and fatty acids

c)

neucleotides

d)

amino acids

97.

Building blocks of proteins

a)

monosaccharides

b)

glycerol and fatty acids

c)

neucleotides

d)

amino acids

98.

Building blocks of DNA or RNA

a)

monosaccharides

b)

glycerol and fatty acids

c)

neucleotides

d)

amino acids

99.
Which food is the most acidic?
a)
bananas
b)
lemon juice
c)
orange juice
100.
A solution with a pH of 7 is________
a)
increasing
b)
neutral
c)
decreasing
d)
apple juice
101.
What would be considered the weakest base? 
a)
8
b)
14
c)
7.8
d)
11.6
102.

Salinity means

a)

savory

b)

saltiness

c)

soapy

d)

acidity

103.
Anything that takes up space and has mass is known as _______________.
a)
Matter
b)
Molecules
c)
Compounds
d)
Stuff
104.
Which of the following is described as the basic unit of matter?
a)
Element
b)
Atom
c)
Molecule
d)
Compound
105.
What charge does an electron have?
a)
Negative
b)
Positive
c)
Neutral
d)
Contrated
106.
Which of the following is found in the nucleus of an atom?
a)
electrons
b)
neutrons
c)
The center of an atom, composed of protons and neutrons
d)
molecules
107.

Water is known as a universal biological solvent because...

a)

it is non-polar and cannot dissolve ions.

b)

it is cohesive and can form droplets.

c)

it is polar and can dissolve both negative and positive ions.

d)

it dissolves every substance on Earth.

108.

All organic molecules contain the element:

a)

oxygen

b)

hydrogen

c)

carbon

d)

sulfur

109.

Contain C, H, O; used for energy and some plant structures; starch, sugar, cellulose, glycogen.

a)

Lipids

b)

Nucleic acids

c)

Proteins

d)

Carbohydrates

110.

Contain C, H, O, N; make up cell structures and control cell functions; enzymes, muscles, hair.

a)

proteins

b)

lipids

c)

nucleic acids

d)

carbohydrates

111.

Contain C, H, O, N, P; code for proteins; genetic code; DNA/RNA.

a)

carbohydrates

b)

proteins

c)

lipids

d)

nucleic acid

112.

Contain C, H, O; long chains; hydrophobic; fats, oils, waxes

a)

carbohydrates

b)

nucleic acids

c)

lipids

d)

proteins

113.

Monomers are:

a)

single units of larger molecules linked together

b)

single sugars

c)

large molecules

114.

Macromolecule means:

a)

a very small molecule

b)

a double unit of a molecule

c)

a single unit of a molecule

d)

a very large molecule

115.

The monomer of a protein:

a)

amino acid

b)

nucleotide

c)

monosaccharide

d)

fatty acid

116.

The monomer of a nucleic acid:

a)

monosaccharide

b)

nucleotide

c)

amino acid

d)

glycerol

117.

The monomer of a carbohydrate:

a)

amino acid

b)

glycerol

c)

nucleotide

d)

monosaccharide

118.

An important type of protein that serve as catalysts for chemical reactions:

a)

enzyme

b)

nitrogen base

c)

cellulose

d)

keratin

119.

When two monosaccharides are joined in a synthesis reaction, it forms a:

a)

polysaccharide

b)

disaccharide

c)

water molecule

d)

fatty acid

120.

Amino acids are joined by ____ bonds for form a protein.

a)

hydrogen

b)

ionic

c)

covalent

d)

peptide

121.

Starch and cellulose are _____ found in plants.

a)

lipids

b)

monosaccharides

c)

polysaccharides

d)

monomers

122.
Which macromolecule is shown?
a)
lipid
b)
protein
c)
nucleic acid
d)
carbohydrate
123.

An avocado is an example of a which macromolecule?

a)

Carbohydrate

b)

Lipid/Fat

c)

Protein

d)

Nucleic Acid

124.

Which type of fat is considered healthier than others?

a)

Saturated Fat

b)

Unsaturated Fat

c)

Monounsaturated Fats

d)

Trans Fat

125.
DNA and RNA are examples of 
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
126.

Which two types of epithelial tissue contain goblet cells?

a)

Pseudostratified Columnar & Simple Columnar

b)

Simple cubodial & Stratified Cubodial

c)

Simple Squamous & Stratified Squamous

d)

Transitional & Glandular

127.

Which of the following is NOT a glandular epithelium?

a)

merocrine

b)

holocrine

c)

apocrine

d)

eccrine

128.

Which of the following glandular epithelium simply secretes?

a)

merocrine

b)

holocrine

c)

apocrine

d)

eccrine

129.

This tissue allows for distensibility and found in the bladder

a)

Transitional

b)

Glandular

c)

Pseudostratified columnar

d)

Simple squamous

130.

Which of the following diagrams represents glandular epithelium?

a)
b)
c)
d)
131.

Which of the following diagrams represents pseudostraified columnar epithelium?

a)
b)
c)
d)
132.

Which of the following diagrams represents simple columnar?

a)
b)
c)
d)
133.

Which of the following is an anticoagulant

a)

histiocytes

b)

histamine

c)

heparin

d)

fibroblast

134.

Which of the following promotes inflammation

a)

histiocytes

b)

histamine

c)

heparin

d)

fibroblast

135.

Which of the following are examples of mast cells

a)

histiocytes

b)

histamine

c)

heparin

d)

fibroblast

136.

Which of the following BUILD collagen and are the most common cell type of connective tissue

a)

histiocytes

b)

histamine

c)

heparin

d)

fibroblast

137.

Which of the following are examples of dense connective tissue

a)

tendons

b)

ligmants

c)

adipose

d)

fibroblast

138.
Which type of tissue is this?
a)
Nervous
b)
Epithelial
c)
Connective
d)
Muscle 
139.
Which of the following is not one of the four tissue types? 
a)
Blood
b)
Connective
c)
Epithelial
d)
Nervous 
140.
Where is epithelial tissue found?
a)
glands
b)
covering body surfaces
c)
lines organs
d)
all of the above
141.
Which of the following epithelial tissues allows materials to pass through diffusion and filtration? 
a)
stratified squamous
b)
simple cuboidal
c)
simple columnar
d)
simple squamous
142.
What type of epithelium is this:
a)
Simple Columnar
b)
Simple Squamous
c)
Stratified Squamous
d)
Pseudostratified Columnar 
143.
Which epithelium is this?
a)
Simple Squamous
b)
Simple Columnar
c)
Stratified Cuboidal
d)
Simple Cuboidal
144.
What type of connective tissue is found at the ends of bones to reduce friction?
a)
Cartilage
b)
Dense Connective Tissue
c)
Adipose Tissue
d)
Loose Connective Tissue
145.
What type of connective tissue has a fluid-like matrix?
a)
bone
b)
cartilage
c)
blood
d)
ligaments
146.
What type of connective tissue has a hard matrix of calcium and salts?
a)
Bone
b)
Adipose
c)
Blood
d)
Dense Connective
147.
What type of connective tissue is this
a)
Bone
b)
Cartilage
c)
Blood
d)
Adipose
148.
The muscle tissue shown is called ______.
a)
Skeletal
b)
Cardiac
c)
Smooth
149.
What tissue type is this?
a)
Nervous Tissue
b)
Connective Tissue
c)
Muscular Tissue
d)
Epithelial Tissue
150.
What part of the neuron receives or invites information into the cell? 
a)
Axons
b)
Dendrites
c)
Cell Bodies
d)
Nucleus
151.
Name this tissue
a)
Skeltal
b)
Cardiac
c)
Smooth
152.
Name this tissue
a)
Bone
b)
Cartilage
c)
Blood
d)
Adipose
153.
Name the tissue
a)
Adipose tissue
b)
Simple squamous epithelium
c)
Blood
d)
Fibrocartilage
154.
Identify the tissue
a)
Areolar
b)
Smooth Muscle
c)
Transitional
d)
Simple Squamous
155.
Name the tissue
a)
Skeletal Muscle
b)
Hyaline Cartilage
c)
Smooth Muscle
d)
Squamous
156.
Name the tissue
a)
Cuboidal
b)
Pseudostratified
c)
simple squamous
d)
stratified
157.
Connective tissue is
a)
The tissue that protects, supports, and binds together other body tissue
b)
Tissue that is the lining, covering, and glandular tissue of the body
c)
Tissue that contracts and shortens to produce movement
158.
Label the Neuron-What does the letter "C" represent?
a)
Cell Body
b)
Dendrite
c)
Axon Terminal
d)
Myelin Sheath
159.
Name this tissue.
a)
Blood
b)
Hyaline Cartilage
c)
Adipose
d)
Elastic Cartilage
160.
Which of the following represents the reason that cartilage repairs itself so slowly?
a)
it is never damaged
b)
it is vascular
c)
it is avascular
d)
hormones are present
161.
Which of these substances gives cartilage the ability to spring back after
being compressed?
a)
proteoglycan aggregates
b)
elastic fibers
c)
reticular fibers
d)
collagen fibers
162.
The matrix of dense connective tissue has what fibers as its main matrix component?
a)
Elastic
b)
Reticular 
c)
Collagen
d)
Cotton 
163.

Layers or groups of similar cells with a common function

a)

Tissues

b)

Organs

c)

Organ systems

d)

Molecules

164.

Histology

a)

The study of cells

b)

The study of the human body

c)

The study of tissues

d)

The study of past events

165.

Which part of epithelial tissue attaches it to the connective tissue below?

a)

Basement membrane

b)

Free surface

c)

Extracellular matrix

d)

Nucleus

166.

Two or more layers of cells

a)

Basic

b)

Complex

c)

Simple

d)

Stratified

167.

A single layer of flattened cells

a)

Stratified columnar epithelium

b)

Simple cuboidal epithelium

c)

Stratified squamous epithelium

d)

Simple squamous epithelium

168.

Glands that release products to the outside of the body

a)

Exocrine

b)

Endocrine

c)

Exothermic

d)

Endothermic

169.

Glands that lose portions of their cell bodies

a)

Merocrine

b)

Apocrine

c)

Holocrine

d)

Connecrine

170.
Goblet cells secrete 
a)
oil
b)
sweat
c)
mucus
d)
acid
171.
These structures aid with movement along the epithelial surface.
a)
flagella
b)
microvilli
c)
cilia
172.

What type of product is secreted by endocrine glands?

a)

Sweat

b)

Hormones

c)

Saliva

d)

Tears

173.
Salivary glands are 
a)
Endocrine Glands
b)
Exocrine Glands
174.
What type of muscle tissue is VOLUNTARILY controlled
a)
Skeletal Only
b)
Skeletal and Cardiac
c)
Smooth and Cardiac
d)
Cardiac Only
175.
The muscle tissue which shows no striations is 
a)
skeletal muscle
b)
smooth muscle
c)
cardiac muscle