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exam

Total questions: 124

Worksheet time: 2hrs 39mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

True or False: The most palatable feeds available will be used for the high producing dairy cow in order to achieve high feed intake along with high milk production

a)

True

b)

False

2.

True or False: Rations should be formulated on a crude protein basis for cattle, but on a lysine basis for swine and poultry

a)

True

b)

False

3.

True or False: A good source of protein in swine and poultry diets is urea

a)

False

b)

True

4.

True or False: A feed with about the same feeding value as soybean meal for beef cattle of cottonseed meal

a)

True

b)

False

5.

True or False: Without microbes in the rumen, ruminants could not digest hay and other feeds containing cellulose any better than we can

a)

True

b)

False

6.

True or False: Corn and other grains are fed primarily for the protein content

a)

True

b)

False

7.

A big difference between ruminants and non-ruminants is that ruminants rely on (a)   much more for their source of energy.

8.

What category is Burmuda grass placed in for feeds?

(a)  

9.

What category is Corn cobs placed in for feeds?

(a)  

10.

What category is Corn stover placed in for feeds?

(a)  

11.

What category is Distiller's grains placed in for feeds?

(a)  

12.

What category is Alfalfa placed in for feeds?

(a)  

13.

What category is Orchard grass placed in for feeds?

(a)  

14.

What category is Peanut meal placed in for feeds?

(a)  

15.

What category is Wheat middlings placed in for feeds?

(a)  

16.

What category is Corn gluten meal placed in for feeds?

(a)  

17.

What category is wheat straw placed in for feeds?

(a)  

18.

What category is corn placed in for feeds?

(a)  

19.

What category is Wheat bran placed in for feeds?

(a)  

20.

What category is Big Bluestem placed in for feeds?

(a)  

21.

What category is Soybean meal placed in for feeds?

(a)  

22.

What category is Spent hops placed in for feeds?

(a)  

23.

What category is Brewer's grains placed in for feeds?

(a)  

24.

Which animal has a high need for protein because it cannot down-regulate its catabolic enzymes of amino acid degradation and requires dietary taurine?

a)

Rabbit

b)

Steer

c)

Sheep

d)

Cat

25.

Which has the highest need for protein in the diet?

a)

A dairy cow producing 80 pounds of milk per day.

b)

A beef steer gaining weight at 3 pounds per day.

26.

What structure in the horse allows it to utilize large amounts of forage?

a)

Rumen

b)

Cecum

c)

Teeth

d)

Small intestine

27.

True or False: A balance of amino acids in the protein of the ration is more important to the horse than it is to the cow.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

True or False: Amino acid composition of the DIP is more important than the UIP protein.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

The reason B-vitamins are not added routinely to beef cattle diets is that:

a)

beef cattle are provided with the B-vitamins naturally through the bacterial fementation that takes place in their rumen

b)

beef cattle normally obtain enough of the vitamins from their feed

c)

they have no need for those vitamins in their tissues

30.

True or False: Compensatory gain refers to improved growth and feed efficiency when an animal is placed on a high energy ration after a period on a low energy ration.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

True or False: The rabbit needs high quality forage with a high protein content because unlike the cow, it is a nonruminant animal and the microbial fermentation only provides energy.

a)

True

b)

False

32.

True or False: When harvested as hay, legumes generally have higher protein than grasses.

a)

True

b)

False

33.

True or False: A good substitute for corn with about the same feeding value is grain sorghum (milo).

a)

True

b)

False

34.

One difference between rations for poultry versus rations for pigs is that:

a)

chickens need more methionine

b)

chickens need more fiber in their diet

c)

they eat different feeds

35.

What nutrient requirement increases the most as the work of the horse increases?

a)

Energy

b)

Vitamins

c)

Minerals

d)

Protein

36.

Crude protein is determined by:

(a)  

37.

A symptom of low calcium in the blood of cows following calving is:

a)

milk fever

b)

anemia

c)

grass tetany

d)

goiter

38.

The symptoms of a zinc deficiency include: (mark 1 correct answer)

a)

goiter

b)

parakeratosis

c)

anemia

d)

milk fever

39.

The symptoms of an iodine deficiency include: (mark 1 correct answer)

a)

milk fever

b)

grass tetany

c)

goiter

d)

anemia

40.

Dr. Forsyth has a great regard for what great person of the past for his insight to investigate nutrition by feeding simplified diets, containing only corn and corn plant, or only wheat and wheat plant, or only oats and oat plant, which showed corn-fed cows performed better, and led to the astounding discovery of a whole class of nutrients, the vitamins, that were previously unknown?

a)

Dr. Stephen Babcock

b)

Sr James Lind

c)

Atoine Lavi

41.

Which of the following is not a monosaccharide?

a)

ribose

b)

sucrose

c)

glucose

d)

galactose

42.

which of the following is table sugar?

a)

sucrose

b)

fructose

c)

lactose

d)

glucose

43.

which of the following is blood sugar?

(a)  

44.

Water plays an essential role in:

a)

maintaining body temperature

b)

supplying energy

c)

many of the chemical rxns in the bodys

45.

A polyunsaturated fatty acid:

a)

has double bonds between carbons and less H than it could have

b)

is a protein

c)

is a six carbon fatty acid

46.

the difference between starch and cellulose is:

a)

starch is a polysaccharide and cellulose is a disaccharide

b)

a carbohydrate whereas cellulose is a protein

c)

both are composed of glucose and in starch they are connected with alpha bonds whereas in cellulose they are connected with beta bonds

47.

Lignin is:

a)

completely indigestible

b)

associated with carbohydrate fraction of the feed

c)

increases in a plant as the plant matures

d)

decreases the feeding value

e)

all of the above

48.

Excess protein in the diet:

a)

is broken down and used for energy

b)

is stored until it is used

c)

is broken down to AA

49.

Which of the following is the main storage fatty acid in beef fat?

a)

Stearic acid

b)

Lysine

c)

Glutamic acid

50.

Which of the following could result from limiting water to livestock?

a)

poor growth

b)

poor feed intake

c)

increased body temperature

d)

death

e)

all of the above

51.

Which vitamin is not needed in the diet of any farm animals, but is needed in the diet of humans to prevent scurvy?

a)

Vitamin C

b)

Vitamin A

c)

Vitamin B-complex

52.

The reason ruminant animals can digest roughages and non-ruminants cannot is because:

a)

ruminants have microbes that ferment the feed in their rumens

b)

large digestive tract

c)

ruminants can produce digestive enzyme cellulase

53.

Why is protein quality a much bigger issue with nonruminants than with ruminants?

a)

because ruminants have bacteria in the rumen which can utilize the contents of low quality proteins to produce the amino acids that they need

b)

the statement is not true

c)

ruminants grow more slowly

54.

True or False: In order to get the maximum productivity from ruminants, including the optimal fermentation in the rumen, it is important to balance rations to provide for the needs of the bacteria

a)

True

b)

False

55.

Which is true about starch and cellulose?

a)

starch and cellulose are both made of the same kind of sugar but the way they are bonded together is different

b)

they are low energy

c)

they are both carbs

56.

Which of the following is not an essential fatty acid:

a)

Pantothenic acid

b)

Linolenic

c)

Arachidonic

57.

What is the most import reason cows can digest hay containing cellulose?

a)

Bacteria in the rumen produce cellulase

b)

Cows chew cud

c)

cows eat many meals per day

58.

Which amino acid is required and contains sulfur?

a)

Methionine

b)

Acetic acid

c)

Folic acid

59.

Which energy value best represents what an animal can actually use for productive purposes?

a)

Net energy

b)

DE

c)

ME

60.

Which energy value is an index of energy on a carbohydrate basis?

a)

Gross energy

b)

TDN

c)

ME

61.

True or False: NDF (Neutral Detergent Fiber) is a newer method that has improved on Crude Fiber determination.

a)

True

b)

False

62.

What VITAMIN would you supplement to prevent Rickets?

(a)  

63.

What nutrient would you supply to prevent grass tetany?

(a)  

64.

What MINERAL would you supplement to prevent rickets?

(a)  

65.

What nutrient would you supplement to prevent pernicious anemia?

(a)  

66.

What VITAMIN would you supplement to prevent failure of the blood to clot?

(a)  

67.

What nutrient would you supplement to prevent anemia in new-born pigs?

(a)  

68.

What nutrient is deficient in the blood in milk fever?

(a)  

69.

What vitamin(s) would you supplement to pigs and chickens but not cows?

(a)  

70.

What nutrient would you supplement to prevent parakeratosis in pigs?

(a)  

71.

What nutrient would you supplement to prevent perosis in chickens?

(a)  

72.

What mineral is added at 1000-2000 ppm at weaning in some young pig diets to maintain health?

(a)  

73.

What nutrient can be formed in the skin when exposed to sunlight?

(a)  

74.

What nutrient corresponds to ascorbic acid?

(a)  

75.

What nutrient corresponds to (is the same as or is made from) retinol?

(a)  

76.

What nutrient corresponds to (is the same as or is made from) menadione and phyloquinone?

(a)  

77.

What nutrient would you supplement to prevent encephalomalacia in birds, stiff lamb disease, white muscle disease, mulberry heat disease, degenerating livers in pigs and peroxidation of tissues by free-radicals in general?

(a)  

78.

What nutrient corresponds to (is the same as or is made from) 1,25 di-hydroxycholecalciferol?

(a)  

79.

What nutrient would you supplement to prevent night blindness, keritomalacia, poor reproduction, increased incidence of infection, and integrity of epithelial tissues everywhere?

(a)  

80.

What nutrient corresponds to (is the same as or is made from) cyanocobalamine?

(a)  

81.

What nutrient corresponds to (is the same as or is made from) d-alpha-tocopherol?

(a)  

82.

What nutrient corresponds to (is the same as or is made from) carotene?

(a)  

83.

What enzyme digests carbohydrates?

(a)  

84.

What substance emulsifies fat?

(a)  

85.

What substance digests fat from triglycerides to free fatty acids?

(a)  

86.

What is the end product of rumen fermentation of carbohydrate?

a)

VFA's

b)

Vitamins

c)

sugars

87.

Name the mycotoxin: Is estrogenic, causing reproductive difficulties

(a)  

88.

Name the mycotoxin: Kills horses, mainly

(a)  

89.

Name the mycotoxin: Is carcinogenic and deadly

(a)  

90.

Which is true of cats?

a)

They require high protein diets

b)

They have a strict requirement for arginine and taurine

c)

They require preformed Vitamin A not carotene

d)

All of the above

91.

True or False: Dogs should be fed meat and meat-by-products, and never grain for energy.

a)

True

b)

False

92.

True or False: Dog feeding is complicated because each breed differs from others so much that diets should be specific for each breed.

a)

True

b)

False

93.

Carbohydrates are made of:

a)

Simple sugars

b)

Amino acids

c)

Vitamins

94.

True or False: Carbohydrates are made of C, H and O, just like fats, but they have much less oxygen than fats.

a)

True

b)

False

95.

Table sugar is:

a)

a disaccharide composed of glucose and fructose

b)

a monosaccharide mostly fructose

c)

a polysaccharide

96.

Which of the following is an essential fatty acid?

a)

linoleic acid

b)

glutamic

c)

stearic

97.

Proteins are analyzed by determining the amount of (a)   present.

98.

Triglycerides are composed of:

a)

one glycerol and 3 fatty acids

b)

proteins

c)

three glycerids

99.

Proteins are essential in the diet to supply:

(a)  

100.

Lipids are the same as:

(a)  

101.

The fat soluble vitamins are:

a)

Vitamin A

b)

Vitamin D

c)

Vitamin E

d)

Vitamin K

e)

all of the above

102.

True or False: Fat soluble vitamins are needed in large quantity for energy.

a)

True

b)

False

103.

True or False: B-complex vitamins are (generally) involved in regulating metabolism in the body.

a)

True

b)

False

104.

The 2 minerals making up most of the bones are:

(a)  

105.

Anemia in baby pigs is most likely due to a deficiency of:

(a)  

106.

Generally the fat soluble vitamins are used for:

(a)  

107.

Salt is important to supply:

a)

Sodium

b)

chloride

c)

water

108.

Lysine is an

(a)  

109.

What mineral interacts with Vitamin E, which is necessary to add in our area to keep young pigs alive?

a)

selenium

b)

cobalt

c)

calcium

110.

True or False: Cats are true carnivores and should be fed differently than dogs.

a)

True

b)

False

111.

Match the feeds with the problems associated with them: Alfalfa

(a)  

112.

Match the feeds with the problems associated with them: cottonseed meal

(a)  

113.

Match the feeds with the problems associated with them: soybean meal

(a)  

114.

Match the feeds with the problems associated with them: sweet clover

(a)  

115.

Match the feeds with the problems associated with them: tall fescue

(a)  

116.

Milk fever:

a)

may be controlled by lowering calcium to get a parathyroid hormone response, then raising calcium after calving

b)

is due to overfeeding grain

c)

is due to a magnesium deficiency

117.

Horses have a special need for what, to avoid colic and keep them healthy?

(a)  

118.

Which has a higher need in the diet for protein, for mature animals?

a)

Cats

b)

Pigs

c)

Horses

119.

For which is it legal to use BST and for what purpose?

a)

Dairy cows to increase milk production

b)

Pigs to improve leanness

c)

Sheep to increase twinning

120.

What does CREEP FEEDING mean?

a)

Feeding young animals separately from adult animals

b)

Feeding scary things to animals at Halloween

c)

Feeding beef steers high grain rations to improve marbling

121.

Which best describes the usual use of COMPENSATORY GAIN?

a)

Feeding beef steers and heifers high grain rations in feedlots following feeding on grass

b)

Feeding a dairy cow to recover following lactation

c)

Feeding lambs grain to supplement milk before they are weaned

122.

The abbreviations DIP and UIP refer to:

a)

Protein that is and is not available to the microbes in the rumen

b)

Hormones of the GI tract that help control the digestive process

c)

Digestible and Undigestible Intake Phosphorus

123.

Which of the following is NOT one of the 10 essential amino acids for the rat and pig?

a)

Thiamine

b)

Arginine

c)

Phenylalanine

124.

The MAIN nutritional benefit  of feeding corn to animals is to provide (12 points)

(a)