Free Printable STAAR Review

1.

Organisms who receive their energy by consuming other organisms.

a)

Chloroplast

b)

Heterotroph

c)

Autotroph

d)

Phototropism

2.

The part of a cell that contains the chromosomes (wound up DNA) in eukaryotic cells.

a)

Chloroplasts

b)

Cell Wall

c)

Nucleus

d)

Homeostasis

3.

The genetic code for all of your traits.

a)

Nucleus

b)

DNA

c)

Chloroplast

d)

Recessive gene

4.

The organelle inside a plant cell that converts sunlight into energy.

a)

Chloroplast

b)

Photosynthesis

c)

Parasite

d)

Cell Wall

5.

The part of a plant cell that is rigid & permeable.

a)

Chloroplast

b)

Turgor Pressure

c)

Cell Wall

d)

Phototropism

6.

The term used to define a cell that has a nucleus containing DNA.

a)

Prokaryote

b)

Eukaryote

c)

Autotroph

d)

Homeostasis

7.

A force exerted outward on a cell wall by the water contained on a cell.

a)

Turgor Pressure

b)

Adaptation

c)

Cell Wall

d)

Photosynthesis

8.

The building up of an ecosystem after lava or glaciers have left nothing but rock.

a)

Secondary Succession

b)

Primary Succession

c)

Natural Selection

d)

Adaptation

9.

A cell without a nucleus.

a)

Eukaryotic

b)

Prokaryotic

c)

Heterotroph

10.

Organisms who receive energy from dead or decaying matter.

a)

Prokaryotic

b)

Omnivore

c)

Heterotrophic

d)

Decomposers

11.

Rebuilding an ecosystem after a catastrophic event has occurred and soil is present.

a)

Primary Succession

b)

Secondary Succession

c)

Natural Selection

d)

Adaptations

12.

Behavior patterns, or internal and external structures which allow an organism to survive and reproduce in their environment successfully.

a)

Adaptations

b)

Homeostasis

c)

Recessive traits

d)

Natural Selection

13.

Organisms who make their own energy by taking in light or chemicals.

a)

Heterotroph

b)

Phototropism

c)

Autotroph

d)

Heterotroph

14.

Successful traits are passed onto offspring through natural circumstances.

a)

Natural Selection

b)

Primary Succession

c)

Secondary Succession

d)

Dominant

15.

The response of a plant due to the stimuli of light energy.

a)

Parasitic

b)

Chloroplast

c)

Photosynthesis

d)

Phototropism

16.

This type of organism feeds on a host organism, causing harm to the host.

a)

Decomposer

b)

Parasite

c)

Heterotroph

d)

Carnivore

17.

The organism's ability to maintain equilibrium in their body.

a)

Homeostasis

b)

Heterotroph

c)

Prokaryotic

d)

Autotrophic

18.

The process where plants use the light from the sun to convert carbon dioxide and water into glucose.

a)

Phototropism

b)

Chloroplast

c)

Photosynthesis

d)

Prokaryotic

19.

Which of the following best describes a relationship in this grassland?

a)

Badgers are top predators because they eat upland sandpipers and beetles.

b)

A producer–consumer relationship exists between lupines and ants.

c)

A predator–prey relationship exists between beetles and ground squirrels.

d)

Upland sandpipers are primary and secondary consumers because they eat grasses and grasshoppers.

20.

Which statement about stars is correct?

a)

Star formation begins in a nebula.

b)

White dwarfs become main-sequence stars when they gain mass.

c)

Supergiants are stars that can absorb black holes.

d)

Main-sequence stars are formed by comets.

21.

Based on their observations, can the students correctly conclude that a chemical reaction occurred?

a)

No, because the metal strip was still visible

b)

Yes, because a new material of a different color formed on part of the metal strip

c)

No, because the solution stayed blue

d)

Yes, because the volume of the blue solution stayed the same

22.

Which statement describes the energy changes that occur when water in a tea kettle is heated on a stove that uses natural gas?

a)

Some of the chemical energy in the natural gas transforms into thermal energy, which heats the water. Then some of the thermal energy changes into sound energy when the water forms steam and the steam leaves the kettle.

b)

Some of the thermal energy in the natural gas transforms into sound energy when the water becomes hot. Then some of the sound energy changes into light energy when the kettle becomes warm.

c)

Some of the electrical energy in the natural gas transforms into thermal energy, which causes the water to form steam. Then some of the thermal energy changes into sound energy and light energy when the steam leaves the kettle.

d)

Some of the light energy in the natural gas transforms into chemical energy in the water. Then some of the chemical energy changes into kinetic energy when steam leaves the kettle and into sound energy when the water boils.

23.

To fight a bacterial infection, a patient was given an antibiotic to take for 10 days. After the patient finished taking the antibiotics as directed, almost all the bacteria were killed. After another 10 days, the patient was sick again with the same type of infection.

What most likely happened?

a)

A few bacteria survived the antibiotics and stopped reproducing.

b)

The patient’s high fever inactivated the antibiotic, allowing the surviving bacteria to grow

rapidly.

c)

The antibiotic slowed the life cycle of the bacteria.

d)

Some of the bacteria were resistant to the antibiotic, and they reproduced.

24.

A 1,100 kg car comes uniformly to a stop. If the vehicle is accelerating at - 1.2 m/s², which force is closest to the net force acting on the vehicle?

a)

-9,600 N

b)

-1,300 N

c)

-900 N

d)

-94 N

25.

Why does autumn start in different months of the year in North America and South America?

a)

Earth’s orbit around the sun is not a perfect circle.

b)

North America has a larger landmass than South America.

c)

The moon has a greater pull on South America than on North America.

d)

Earth’s axis has a 23.5° tilt.

26.

What is the primary function of this body system?

a)

The protection of vital organs from injury

b)

The chemical breakdown of food into smaller pieces

c)

The transport of nutrients, water, and oxygen to body cells

d)

The production of hormones that regulate growth and metabolism

27.

An ecosystem that is not sustainable can break down when a natural disaster occurs. This can lead to organisms in the ecosystem either leaving the area or dying off.

Increased biodiversity results in a more sustainable ecosystem because —

a)

a greater number of plant species means that there is less barren land

b)

a greater variety of species present allows more organisms to adapt after changes occur

c)

the transition area between two ecosystems is narrower

d)

there are fewer species to be affected by environmental stresses

28.

How many valence electrons are in an atom of each element in Group 15 in the periodic table?

a)

7

b)

8

c)

5

d)

2

29.

Which statement describes the geologic process that is most likely responsible for the formation of these mountains?

a)

They are along a transform plate boundary that is no longer active, so erosion is creating deep valleys.

b)

They are along a transform plate boundary in which plates are currently moving side by side, causing earthquakes and faults.

c)

They are along a plate boundary in which plates are currently converging, causing uplift and steep slopes.

d)

They are along a plate boundary in which plates diverged in the distant past, allowing new rock to build up.

30.

Which inference is best supported by these data?

a)

Pine trees in a dense forest can grow taller than pine trees in an open meadow.

b)

Pine trees in a dense forest compete for sunlight with the surrounding trees.

c)

Pine trees in a dense forest are part of a less-complex food web than pine trees in an open meadow.

d)

Pine trees in a dense forest have more living branches than pine trees in an open meadow.

31.

An action–reaction pair of forces exists between —

a)

the aerialist’s feet and the rope

b)

the rope and the balancing bar

c)

the two ends of the rope

d)

the aerialist’s arms and legs

32.

Based on these drawings, which element is the least reactive?

a)

Neon, because it has two energy levels with eight electrons in the second level

b)

Chlorine, because it has three energy levels with seven electrons in the third level

c)

Gallium, because it has four energy levels with three electrons in the fourth level

d)

Tin, because it has five energy levels with four electrons in the fifth level

33.

Lions and cheetahs prey on wildebeests that graze in the grasslands of the African savanna. What likely effect would increased rainfall over several rainy seasons have on the populations of wildebeests, lions, and cheetahs?

a)

All three populations would increase.

b)

The wildebeest population would decrease, and the lion and cheetah populations would increase.

c)

The wildebeest population would increase, and the lion and cheetah populations would decrease.

d)

All three populations would decrease.

34.

Which statement accurately describes the atoms of a specific element?

a)

An indium‚ In‚ atom contains 115 protons inside the nucleus and 49 neutrons outside the nucleus.

b)

A scandium‚ Sc‚ atom contains 45 electrons outside the nucleus and 21 neutrons inside the nucleus.

c)

An aluminum‚ Al‚ atom contains 27 electrons and 27 protons inside the nucleus.

d)

A zinc‚ Zn‚ atom contains 30 protons inside the nucleus and 30 electrons outside the nucleus.

35.

A student notices that the moon is full one evening. Which sequence of moon phases will the student observe over the next eight days?

a)

Full, waning gibbous, third quarter

b)

Full, waning gibbous, first quarter, waning crescent

c)

Full, new, waning gibbous

d)

Full, waxing gibbous, new, waning crescent

36.

Which statement does NOT correctly compare silicon with another element?

a)

Silicon is a better conductor of electricity than sulfur.

b)

Silicon conducts electricity as well as copper does.

c)

Silicon is a solid at room temperature, but argon is a gas.

d)

Silicon is less malleable than silver.

37.

At which location does the marble have maximum kinetic energy?

a)

Location W

b)

Location X

c)

Location Y

d)

Location Z

38.

Which chemical reaction involves the fewest oxygen atoms?

a)

2AgNO₃ + K₂SO₄ ----------> Ag₂SO₄ + 2KNO₃

b)

4Fe + 6H₂O+3O₂ ------> 4Fe(OH)₃

c)

6CO + 6H₂O ----------> C₆H₁₂O₆+6O₂ + 6O₂

d)

C₂H₄+3O₂ ----------> 2CO₂ + 2H₂O

39.

How are the convection currents in the student’s model different from the convection currents in Earth’s atmosphere and oceans?

a)

The warm air in Earth’s atmosphere and the warm water in Earth’s oceans sink instead of rise.

b)

The heat source for Earth’s atmosphere and oceans is the sun, which heats from above instead of below.

c)

Convection cells in Earth’s atmosphere and oceans flow in the same direction instead of opposite directions.

d)

Cold air in Earth’s atmosphere and cold water in Earth’s oceans are less dense than warm air and warm water instead of being more dense.

40.

Based on the life-cycle information, which statement best describes the relationship between the nest fly larvae and the young birds?

a)

The larvae are prey for the young birds.

b)

The larvae are predators of the young birds.

c)

The young birds are hosts for the larvae.

d)

The young birds are consumers of the larvae.

41.

Sulfur hexafluoride, SF₆, is a very stable, nonflammable gas at room temperature. It is used in many electronic products because it is a good electrical insulator.

Which statement describes the composition of sulfur hexafluoride?

a)

SF₆ is a compound containing atoms of sulfur and fluorine.

b)

SF₆ is a compound that contains seven identical atoms.

c)

SF₆ is an element with sulfur in the atom’s nucleus and fluorine outside the nucleus.

d)

SF₆ is an organic compound composed of long chains of sulfur atoms surrounded by fluorine atoms.

42.

Four boxes are sliding with constant speed before each box experiences an unbalanced force of 8 N. Which box would experience the greatest acceleration when the unbalanced force is applied?

a)

The box with a mass of 2 kg

b)

The box with a mass of 4 kg

c)

The box with a mass of 6 kg

d)

The box with a mass of 8 kg

43.

A mid-ocean ridge is located at the boundary of two tectonic plates. Which diagram correctly models the relative plate motion on each side of a mid-ocean ridge?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

44.

a)

Procedure 1: All the reactants were liquids that evaporated.

Procedure 2: A gas was formed as one product, and it escaped into the air.

b)

Procedure 1: One of the reactants was converted to thermal energy. Procedure 2: All the products were liquids.

c)

Procedure 1: The reactants were liquids with different densities. Procedure 2: The reactants were combined into only one product.

d)

Procedure 1: One of the products was a gas that escaped into the air. Procedure 2: A gas from the air reacted with one of the other reactants.

45.

a)

Cold temperatures in the North favored the survival of populations of larger sparrows over populations of smaller sparrows.

b)

High elevations in the West provided a survival advantage for populations of larger sparrows over populations of smaller sparrows.

c)

Warm temperatures in the South allowed populations of larger sparrows to survive over populations of smaller sparrows.

d)

Coastal environments in the East tended to give a survival advantage to populations of larger sparrows over populations of smaller sparrows.

46.

Which picture shows how the moon appears from Earth when it is in the position shown in this model?

a)

Waxing Gibbous

b)

Waning Crescent

c)

Waning Gibbous

d)

Waxing Crescent

47.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

48.

a)

3.6

b)

0.36

c)

1.8

d)

1.5

49.

Some areas of an ocean are known as dead zones. These zones form when excess organic material decomposes. This increased decomposition uses up the oxygen from the water.

Which human activity is most affected by the increasing number of dead zones in the ocean?

a)

Offshore oil drilling, because water in dead zones is toxic

b)

Commercial fishing, because fish cannot survive without oxygen

c)

Commercial shipping, because dead zones change the course of ocean currents

d)

Sand mining, because oxygen is not available to form the sands on ocean beaches

50.

Which area of the diagram represents the white dwarfs?

a)

Area M

b)

Area X

c)

Area P

d)

Area Z

51.

Both the esophagus and the small intestine are involved in the digestion of food. The esophagus squeezes food into the stomach by wave-like muscle contractions. Peptidase enzymes in the small intestine break food molecules into smaller molecules.

Which statement best describes changes to food during digestion?

a)

The muscle contractions result in physical changes, while the action of the peptidase results in chemical changes.

b)

The muscle contractions and the action of the peptidase both result only in physical changes.

c)

The muscle contractions result in chemical changes, while the action of the peptidase results in physical changes.

d)

The muscle contractions and the action of the peptidase both result only in chemical changes.

52.

Wheat was one of the first plant crops that humans domesticated. In the process of domestication, the wild form of wheat was eventually changed into a form more suited to human agricultural practice.

Early farmers most likely used seeds only from wheat plants with —

a)

larger grains that could produce more food per plant

b)

taller stems that could block sunlight from weeds growing at ground level

c)

larger flowers that could be sold for additional income

d)

thinner stems that could endure heavy winds

53.

Which sentence best describes how energy flows through this pyramid?

a)

Energy is transferred down each level of the energy pyramid.

b)

The energy lost at each level is consumed by organisms in the top level.

c)

Energy is transferred from organisms in one level to those in the level above.

d)

The organisms at the bottom level provide energy directly to organisms in all the other levels.

54.

a)

F

b)

G

c)

H

d)

J

55.

What keeps planets in the solar system from moving in straight lines through the galaxy?

a)

Light energy

b)

Gravity

c)

Inertia

d)

Potential energy

56.

Whitetip reef sharks spend most of the day lying on the ocean floor. While remaining still, these sharks pump water across their gills.

The movement of water across their gills is necessary for —

a)

staying cool

b)

accessing food

c)

obtaining oxygen

d)

avoiding predators

57.

a)

A. Sun --> Mosquitoes --> Shrimp ---> Coyotes

b)

B. Sun --> Algae ---> Shrimp --> Red drum

c)

C. Sun ---> Pygmy sunfish --> Shrimp --> Wood ducks

d)

D. Sun--> Williow oaks ---> Algae--> River otters

58.

a)

F

b)

G

c)

H

d)

J

59.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

60.

a)

F

b)

G

c)

H

d)

J

61.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

62.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

63.

a)

F

b)

G

c)

H

d)

J

64.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

65.

a)

F

b)

G

c)

H

d)

J

66.

(a)

67.

a)

F

b)

G

c)

H

d)

J

68.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

69.

a)

F

b)

G

c)

H

d)

J

70.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

71.

a)

F

b)

G

c)

H

d)

J

72.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

73.

a)

F

b)

G

c)

H

d)

J

74.

a)

F

b)

G

c)

H

d)

J

75.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

76.

a)

F

b)

G

c)

H

d)

J

77.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

78.

a)

F

b)

G

c)

H

d)

J

79.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

80.

a)

F

b)

G

c)

H

d)

J

81.

All living things require oxygen to survive. Where on the periodic table above would you find gases like oxygen?

a)

section A

b)

section B

c)

section C

d)

section D

82.

Henry is investigating the properties of elements in section A. What are the general characteristics of elements from section A?

a)

conducts heat and electricity, shiny, and solid

b)

mostly gases and are very reactive

c)

share properties of metals and nonmetals

d)

liquids that are stable in pure form

83.

Some elements have properties of metals and nonmetals, which make them useful in electronic devices. Where can these elements be found?

a)

section A

b)

section B

c)

section C

d)

section D

84.

Transition metals are malleable and are found in section B. What is another property of metals in section B?

a)

conducts heat

b)

liquid state of matter

c)

highly reactive and never found as a pure element

d)

poor conductors of electricity

85.

Which two sections of elements are mostly likely to react and form chemical bonds with one another?

a)

section A and section B

b)

section B and section C

c)

section C and section D

d)

section D and section A

86.

CH₄ +2O₂→ CO₂ +2H₂O
How many different elements are involved in this reaction?

a)

two

b)

three

c)

four

d)

five

87.

CH₄ +2O₂→ CO₂ +2H₂O
How many atoms are there on the left side of the equation compared to the right side?

a)

The left side has more atoms than the right side.

b)

The right side has more atoms than the left side.

c)

The left and right side have the same number of atoms.

d)

It is impossible to know because it depends on the reaction speed.

88.

CH₄ +2O₂→ CO₂ +2H₂O
How many atoms of hydrogen are involved in this reaction? Record you answer below.

a)

6

b)

10

c)

4

d)

2

89.

CH₄ +2O₂→ CO₂ +2H₂O
Which of the following lab equipment is necessary when conducting this reaction?

a)

A filter to safeguard against contaminants in the water used to initiate the reaction.

b)

A glass beaker to hold the methane gas.

c)

A magnet to ensure the oxygen is free of iron filings.

d)

A fire extinguisher as a safety precaution since the methane gas is flammable.

90.

In the hypothetical chemical reaction below, which element will be recombined into two separate atoms of one single element following the reaction?

2AB + C₂ → 2CB + 2A

a)

element A

b)

element B

c)

element C

d)

All of the reactants will recombine into two separate atoms of a single element.

91.

Consider the following reaction between iron and oxygen to form iron oxide.

2Fe + O₂ → 2FeO

Iron oxide is a (an):

a)

element

b)

compound

c)

product

d)

both B and C

92.

In the table above, what would be an appropriate title for column C?

a)

Metals

b)

Nonmetals

c)

Metalloids

d)

Solid Compounds

93.

The chart below shows the densities of various substances. Which of the answer choices indicate the mass of 6 cm3 of salt?

a)

0.06 grams

b)

6.0 grams

c)

12.6 grams

d)

81.0 grams

94.

When comparing two elements on the periodic table, elements in the same ___________ are most likely to have similar chemical and physical properties.

a)

group

b)

period

c)

area

d)

section

95.

Describe the movement of the box in between the two trucks pulling on it.

a)

It moves to the left at an increasing speed.

b)

It moves to the right at an increasing speed.

c)

It moves to the left at a constant speed.

d)

It moves to the right at a constant speed.

96.

Suppose you are riding a bicycle uphill and are pedaling at a constant speed. The force of your pedaling is equal to and opposite of:

a)

the force of gravity

b)

the force of friction between the tires and the road

c)

both the force of gravity and friction

d)

neither the force of gravity and friction

97.

What is the net force acting on this balloon?

a)

7 N to the right

b)

10 N to the right

c)

6 N to the left

d)

4 N to the right

98.

During a football game, a quarterback passes a ball through the air. What will happen to the ball as it is traveling in the air?

a)

It’s speed will decrease due to air friction.

b)

It’s speed will decrease due to its mass.

c)

It’s speed will increase due to the quarterback’s arm.

d)

It will travel at a constant speed the entire time.

99.

Frank drew the following chart using data from an experiment he conducted on a toy car. At what point does the car have an unbalanced force acting on it?

a)

5s

b)

15 s

c)

25 s

d)

35 s

100.

Which of the following scenarios is an example of an unbalanced force?

a)

a car traveling constantly at 50 mph

b)

a golf ball being hit with a club

c)

a big truck stopped at a red light

d)

a satellite orbiting the earth

101.

Sara is investigating how the slope of an incline will affect the amount of unbalanced force acting on a marble. She sets up her experiment similar to the illustration below.

How will Sara change the variable in the experiment?

a)

use a marble of different mass

b)

change the surface material of the incline

c)

change the slope of the incline

d)

adjust the temperature in the room

102.

A rocket has a downward force of 1 N due to gravity and an upward force of 1 N. The rocket is:

a)

launching and accelerating upward

b)

reaching the peak of its traveled height

c)

increasing its speed as it is falling

d)

accelerating either upward or downward

103.

Capt. Sanchez announces to the passengers on his airplane they are traveling at 300 mph 950 eastbound. He is describing the ___________________ of the airplane.

a)

velocity

b)

speed

c)

direction

d)

acceleration

104.

Annabelle walks to school every day from her house. The diagram below shows the distance from her house to school measured in 1 km increments. If it takes her 30 minutes to walk to school, what was her average speed?

a)

4 km/hr

b)

7.5 km/hr

c)

8 km/hr

d)

0.13 km/hr

105.

Samuel throws a ball into the air 20 meters. It reaches the top of its flight at 2 seconds and hits the ground at 4 seconds? What was the ball’s average speed on the way down?

a)

5 m/s

b)

10 m/s

c)

20 m/s

d)

40 m/s

106.

A train is traveling away from you at a constant speed. What would a distance-time graph look like for this train?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

107.

An astronomer observes several items in the night sky and writes down their approximate distance from Earth. What is mostly likely Object #3?

a)

a planet, probably Jupiter or Saturn

b)

a nearby star relatively close to our solar system

c)

a comet

d)

another galaxy

108.

Using the chart in Question 1, what is most likely Object #2.

a)

Venus

b)

a nearby star relatively close to our solar system

c)

a black hole near the center of the Milky Way

d)

another galaxy

109.

The following picture is the Horsehead Nebula and is located about 1,500 light years from Earth in the constellation Orion. What is most likely occurring in the Horsehead Nebula?

a)

new star formation

b)

formation of black holes

c)

star explosions like supernovas

d)

the birth of new galaxies

110.

The stars we see at night are:

a)

in the Milky Way galaxy

b)

in the solar system

c)

in galaxies other than the Milky Way

d)

both A and C

111.

Use this model of the Hertzsprung-Russell diagram to answer question.
An astronomer discovers a new star that is very hot, but not very bright. What type of star did she discover?

a)

a red giant

b)

a young star on the main sequence

c)

an old star on the main sequence

d)

a white dwarf

112.

Our Sun is a middle-aged star with an average temperature and brightness. What type of star is our Sun according to the Hertzburg-Russell diagram?

a)

a white dwarf

b)

a red giant

c)

a star on the upper left portion on the main sequence

d)

a star in the middle of the main sequence

113.

As a normal, averaged-size star progresses through its life cycle, what change will it undergo?

a)

it becomes cooler

b)

it gets smaller

c)

it becomes brighter

d)

its gravity increases

114.

Which of the following galaxies is most like our own Milky Way?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

115.

Looking at the answer choices in Question#8, which answer choice could best be classified as an asymmetrical galaxy?

a)

Galaxy A

b)

Galaxy B

c)

Galaxy C

d)

Galaxy D

116.

Pulsars are dense, rotating stars that emit strong electromagnetic radiation with a wavelength around 6 mm. Using the chart below, what type of telescope would be best suited for observing pulsars?

a)

radio telescopes

b)

infrared telescopes

c)

optical telescopes

d)

ultraviolet telescopes

117.

You hear an astronomer on television mention that an object in space is about 10 light-years away from planet Earth. This object is located:

a)

in the solar system

b)

nearby in the Milky Way galaxy

c)

on the other side of the Milky Way galaxy

d)

in another galaxy

118.

Samuel kicks a soccer ball across a grassy field and it eventually comes to a stop. If Newton’s law of inertia is true, why did the ball stop?

a)

Newton’s law only applies to objects at rest.

b)

The mass of the ball is not great enough to have inertia.

c)

Friction with the grass applies a net force on the ball causing it to decrease its speed.

d)

Gravity slowed the ball until it came to a stop.

119.

Once in orbit, the space shuttle used very little, if any, rocket power to maintain its speed despite traveling over 15,000 mph! How were NASA engineers able to do this?

a)

The space shuttle is very massive and must burn its rockets at full power to achieve this speed.

b)

The space shuttle was able to use a special coating in order to achieve its fast speed in space.

c)

Gravity provides the necessary force to keep the space shuttle traveling at a high rate of speed.

d)

The speed generated from force of rockets during liftoff is maintained throughout the flight since there is no air friction.

120.

In the case of a car crash, the body’s inertia will continue to carry it in its initial direction. However, if the person is wearing a seatbelt, in which direction will this force act?

a)

to the right

b)

to the left

c)

upward

d)

downward

121.

Suppose you pull Nick, who is standing on a skateboard, using a rope at a constant acceleration. Nick’s friend, who weighs the same as Nick, then gets on the skateboard too. How is the force you have to apply to the rope affected to maintain the same constant acceleration?

a)

There will be no change to the required amount of force.

b)

The amount of force required is slightly increased.

c)

The amount of force required is doubled.

d)

The amount of force required is four-times as great.

122.

The data chart below indicates how carts of different mass accelerate when a constant force is applied. Using the data, determine the amount of force used in Newtons.

a)

1N

b)

2N

c)

4N

d)

8N

123.

Josh Hamilton crushes a home run over the center field wall. The ball is struck with a force of 20 N. How much force does the ball apply to the bat?

a)

5N

b)

10 N

c)

20 N

d)

40 N

124.

Suppose you launch two different model rockets using two different engines. Each engine produces a different amount of force, and you record the following acceleration data for each rocket.
What conclusion can you reach about the mass of the two rockets?

a)

The mass of the two rockets are the same.

b)

The mass of the first rocket is double the mass of the second rocket.

c)

The mass of the second rocket is double the mass of the first rocket.

d)

There is not enough information to compare the mass of the two rockets.

125.

A tennis ball being dropped, then bouncing upward after hitting the ground is an example of:

a)

the law of inertia

b)

the law of force and acceleration

c)

the law of action-reaction

d)

the law of reflection

126.

At what point on a roller coaster does the train have the highest potential energy?

a)

at the bottom of the first drop

b)

at the top of the second hill

c)

when the train first leaves the loading station

d)

at the top of the first drop

127.

What energy transformations are occurring in this scenario?

a)

electrical energy --> mechanical energy --> light energy

b)

solar energy --> electrical energy --> light energy

c)

solar energy --> mechanical energy --> light energy

d)

solar energy --> electrical energy --> mechanical energy

STAAR Review

Total questions: 127

Worksheet time: 4hrs 24mins

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