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Bio 121 Exam

Total questions: 115

Worksheet time: 10hrs 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

How many genes are present in the human genome?

a)

tens of thousands

b)

23

c)

A hundred thousand

d)

46

2.

what is a locus?

a)

A type of spore made only by fungi

b)

the precise DNA sequence of a gene

c)

the precise location of a gene on a chromosome

d)

a cell with two chromosome sets

3.

Sexual and asexual reproduction are alike in that_______

a)

they both involve two parents

b)

in both cases, every parent transmits all of its genes to its progeny

c)

they both require meiosis to complete the reproductive cycle

d)

they can both occur in multicellular organisms

4.

A karyotype is.............

a)

A list of all the genes a person carries

b)

the physical trait a person has

c)

a method of identifying crossover events

d)

a photograph of all the chromosomes in a single cell from an individual

5.

Fertilization produces

a)

a haploid zygote

b)

a diploid zygote

c)

a diploid zygote, except during the gametophyte stage of alternations of generation

d)

a diploid and haploid zygote

6.

Which of the following statements is most accurate

a)

diploid cells can divide by meiosis

b)

haploid cells cannot divide by meiosis

c)

haploid cells can divide by mitosis

d)

all the above

7.

Which of the following is part of the life cycle called alternation of generations?

a)

Zygote

b)

Spores

c)

Spores

d)

All of the listed responses are correct.

8.

The sexual cycle of the diploid, multicellular algal genus Fucus involves..........

a)

both mitosis and meiosis but not fertilization

b)

mitosis, meiosis, and fertilization

c)

only meiosis and fertilization

d)

mitosis only

9.

A life cycle in which the only multicellular form is haploid is most typical of.

a)

prokaryotes

b)

plants

c)

fungi

d)

fish

10.

In sexually reproducing species, the chromosome number remains stable over time because

______and_________

always alternate.

a)

meiosis; mitosis

b)

meiosis I; meiosis lI

c)

mitosis; fertilization

d)

meiosis; fertilization

11.

The egg (ovum) of a rabbit contains 22 chromosomes. How many chromosomes are in the

somatic (body) cells of a rabbit?

a)

132

b)

22

c)

44

d)

11

12.

Which of the following represents a mismatch or incorrect description?

a)

Anaphase: there is movement of the chromosomes to the poles

b)

Metaphase: the nuclear envelope disappears

c)

Telophase: chromosomes become more extended

d)

Prophase: chromosomes become more tightly coiled

13.

At what point do sister chromatids separate?

a)

Anaphase

b)

G2 phase

c)

prophase

d)

Metaphase

14.

In animal cell mitosis, the cleavage furrow forms during which stage of the cell cycle?

a)

The G1 phase

b)

Cytokinesis

c)

Prophase

d)

Metaphase

15.

At which stage of mitosis are chromosomes lined up in one plane in preparation for their separation to opposite poles of the cell?

a)

telophase

b)

interphase

c)

prophase

d)

metaphase

16.

You would know that a dividing cell was a plant cell rather than an animal cell if you saw that

a)

it had two pairs of centrioles during prophase

b)

it had formed a cleavage furrow

c)

it had microtubules

d)

it had formed a cell plate

17.

Which of the following processes does not occur in dividing bacteria?

a)

Inward pinching of the plasma membrane

b)

Separation of the origins of replication

c)

Replication of DNA

d)

Mitosis

18.

During binary fission in a bacterium,

a)

the two DNA molecules divide in half, forming four DNA fragments

b)

the origins of replication move apart

c)

the two DNA molecules attach to the centrioles

d)

the two DNA molecules break up into plasmids

19.

Which of the following is involved in the binary fission of most bacteria?

a)

Formation of a spindle apparatus

b)

Formation of a cell plate

c)

Distribution of a copy of the single parental chromosome to each daughter cell

d)

Disintegration of the nuclear membrane

20.

When a cell in S phase is fused with a cell in G1

a)

DNA synthesis begins immediately in the original G, nucleus

b)

the replication of DNA occurring in the original S nucleus is terminated

c)

the chromosomes of the original G nucleus condense in preparation for mitosis

d)

the two nuclei fuse and additional division is arrested

21.

Tissue culture experiments with PDF demonstrate that without this substance,

a)

bacterial cells lose their resistance to antibiotics

b)

animal cells are unable to attach to the substratum

c)

the various kinases, such as MPF, are unable to bind to cyclin

d)

fibroblasts fail to divide

22.

You would be ‚unlikely to see which of the following human cells dividing?

a)

Cancer cell

b)

Skin cell

c)

Nerve cell

d)

Cell from an embryo

23.

Which of the following hypotheses is best supported by observing cancer cells in a culture?

a)

The cancer cells exhibit anchorage dependence.

b)

The cancer cells spend the majority of their time in the Go phase.

c)

The cancer cells spend the majority of their time in the Go phase.

d)

The cancer cells produce molecules that inhibit the growth factors required for cell division.

24.

What is the difference between a benign tumor and a malignant tumor?

a)

Cells of benign tumors do not metastasize; those of malignant tumors do.

b)

Benign tumors will not kill you; malignant tumors will.

c)

Benign tumors arise by transformation; malignant tumors do not.

d)

Cells of benign tumors metastasize; those of malignant tumors do not.

25.

If a human somatic cell is just about to divide, it has

_________ chromatids.

a)

46

b)

0

c)

92

d)

23

26.

Down syndrome is characterized by cells having three copies of chromosome 21. As a cell in an individual with Down syndrome prepares to enter mitosis, how many chromatids would be present?

a)

98

b)

23

c)

92

d)

94

27.

Which of the following does not occur during mitosis?

a)

condensation of chromatin

b)

separation of chromatids

c)

alignment of chromosomes along the cell's equator

d)

replication of chromosomes

28.

During what phase in the cell cycle would you find the most DNA per cell?

a)

G1

b)

G2

c)

S

d)

S1

29.

Generally speaking, how many genetic codes are there?

a)

Four

b)

20

c)

one for each organism

d)

one

30.

The number of nucleotide bases "read" together on the mRNA to designate each amino acid is______; this unit is called a(n)_________.

a)

two; anticodon

b)

three; triose

c)

two; dipeptide

d)

three; codon

31.

Which statement is true?

a)

it takes three genes to code for one protein.

b)

Each gene codes for three proteins.

c)

Each amino acid in a protein is coded for by three bases in the DNA.

d)

Each DNA base codes for three amino acids.

32.

When RNA is being made, the RNA base___ always pairs with the base _____ in DNA

a)

T and G

b)

U and A

c)

A and U

d)

U and T

33.

Who formulated the one gene one enzyme hypothesis

a)

Watson and Crick

b)

Hershey and Chase

c)

Franklin

d)

Beadle and Tatum

34.

Genetic information of eukaryotic cells is transferred from the nucleus to the cytoplasm in the form of_________

a)

RNA

b)

DNA

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

Proteins

35.

Which of the following considerations was/were important in the choice of viruses and bacteria for early experiments on DNA?

a)

They have short generation times.

b)

They typically have relatively small genomes

c)

Their chromosomes have a simpler structure.

d)

All of the listed responses are correct.

36.

In the "beads on a string" structure of unfolded chromatin, the "beads" are

a)

heterochromatin

b)

nucleoids

c)

looped domains

d)

nucleosomes

37.

What is the major difference between bacterial chromosomes and eukaryotic chromosomes?

a)

Bacterial chromosomes have much more protein associated with the DNA than eukaryotes.

b)

Eukaryotes have a single circular chromosome, whereas bacteria have several linear chromosomes.

c)

Bacteria usually have a single circular chromosome whereas eukaryotes have several linear chromosomes.

d)

The DNA molecules of bacterial chromosomes have a slightly different structure than those of eukaryotic chromosomes.

38.

In a comparison between asexually reproducing bacteria and sexually reproducing multicellular eukaryotes, uncorrected errors in replication are more likely to be transmitted to subsequent generations in bacteria than in multicellular eukaryotes. Which of the following provides the best evidence-based explanation for this difference?

a)

Although the genome for each is represented as pairs of homologous chromosomes, errors in bacteria affect both homologs, but only one is affected in eukaryotes.

b)

Unlike multicellular eukaryotes, bacteria lack DNA repair enzymes, so there are just more uncorrected errors at play.

c)

Because they are asexual and single-celled, all uncorrected errors of replication in bacteria are transmitted to subsequent generations. Multicellular eukaryotes typically reproduce sexually, so uncorrected errors are transmitted only if they occur in germ cells that meiotically divide to produce gametes.

d)

Only errors that lead to faster-growing strains are left uncorrected in bacteria, whereas all errors are detected and repaired in multicellular eukaryotes.

39.

Telomeres

a)

are shorter for younger individuals

b)

remain the same regardless of the frequency of DNA replication

c)

are found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells

d)

get longer with each round of DNA replication

40.

telomerase

a)

speed cell aging

b)

is the enzyme that lengthens telomerase

c)

slows the rate of cancer cell growth

d)

prevents the loss of centromeric DNA

41.

Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to individuals with the disorder xeroderma pigmentosum?

a)

Cells in these individuals have difficulty repairing thymine dimers.

b)

These individuals usually have inherited defects in the nucleotide excision repair system.

c)

These individuals are extremely sensitive to sunlight.

d)

All of the listed responses are correct.

42.

Unlike prokaryotic DNA replication, replication of eukaryotic chromosomes

a)

involves two leading strands and no lagging strands

b)

is error-free

c)

cannot be completed by DNA polymerase

d)

is semiconservative

43.

The incorporation of an incorrect base into the DNA during replication

a)

will trigger the cell to destroy the new strand, and replication will begin again

b)

will almost certainly lead to the death of the cell

c)

can be repaired by the mismatch repair system

d)

cannot be repaired, and a new mutation will invariably result

44.

Which set of enzymes is involved in nucleotide excision repair?

a)

DNA polymerase, helicase, primase

b)

Ligase, nuclease, and primase

c)

Nuclease, DNA polymerase, primase

d)

nuclease, DNA polymerase, and ligase

45.

As a result of proofreading by DNA polymerases, the overall error rate in the completed DNA molecule is approximately

a)

1 error per 100 nucleotides

b)

1 error per 10,000,000,000 nucleotides

c)

1 error per 1,000,000,000 nucleotides

d)

1 error per 1,000 nucleotides

46.

Once the DNA at the replication fork is unwound by helicases, what prevents the two strands from coming back together to re-form a double helix?

a)

The helicase modifies the DNA in such a way as to eliminate the affinity between the two strands.

b)

DNA polymerase follows the helicase so closely that there is no chance for the strands to come back together.

c)

One of the strands is rapidly degraded, preventing the double helix from re-forming.

d)

Single-strand binding proteins bind the unwound DNA and prevent the double helix from re-forming.

47.

Which one of the following statements regarding DNA replication is correct?

a)

Ligase separates the two strands of the DNA double helix. Then DNA polymerase synthesizes the leading strand and primase synthesizes the lagging strand.

b)

Helicases separate the two strands of the double helix, and DNA polymerases then construct two new strands using each of the original strands as templates.

c)

all the above

d)

none of the above

48.

A biochemist measured the amount of DNA in cells growing in the laboratory and found that the quantity of DNA in the cells doubled

a)

between the G2 phase and prophase

b)

between the G1 and G2 phases

c)

during the M phase of the cell cycle

d)

between anaphase and telophase

49.

A cell biologist carefully measured the quantity of DNA in grasshopper cells growing in cell culture.

Cells examined during the G2 phase of the cell cycle contained 200 units of DNA. What would be the amount of DNA at G of the cell cycle in one of the grasshopper daughter cells?

a)

50 units

b)

400 units

c)

200 units

d)

100 units

50.

What appears to be the mechanism for genomic imprinting?

a)

DNA methylation that silences particular genes

b)

Crossing over

c)

DNA methylation that activates particular genes

d)

Both the first and third listed responses

51.

Which of the following is false regarding sister chromatids?

a)

Both of the sister chromatids end up in the same daughter cell after cytokinesis has occurred.

b)

Sister chromatids are separated during mitosis.

c)

Sister chromatids are attached to one another at the centromere.

d)

Sister chromatids are created when DNA is replicated.

52.

In telophase of mitosis, the mitotic spindle breaks down and the chromatin uncoils. This is essentially the opposite of what happens in

a)

interphase

b)

anaphase

c)

prophase

d)

S phase

53.

Which of the following phases of mitosis is essentially the opposite of prometaphase in terms of the nuclear envelope?

a)

anaphase

b)

telophase

c)

metaphase

d)

S phase

54.

The complex of DNA and protein that makes up a eukaryotic chromosome is properly called

a)

a chromatid

b)

a centromere

c)

chromatin

d)

a chromoplast

55.

The region of a chromosome in which the two double strands of replicated DNA are held together is called

a)

a chromatid

b)

chromatin

c)

a centromere

d)

a centriole

56.

Why did Morgan choose Drosophila for his genetics experiments?

a)

They have a long generation time.

b)

A single mating can produce many offspring.

c)

Both the second and fourth answers are correct.

d)

Drosophila chromosomes can be easily distinguishable under a light microscope.

57.

Wild type refers to

a)

the most common phenotype thought to be found in the natural population

b)

a kind of chromosomal deletion

c)

any mutant genotype

d)

extranuclear genes

58.

Assume that you are dealing with a species in which the number of chromosomes in each somatic cell is 14. How many sister chromatids are present in the early telophase of mitosis?

a)

0

b)

7

c)

14

d)

28

59.

In a human skin cell that is going through the cell cycle, when do the centrosomes separate?

a)

prophase

b)

S phase

c)

Metaphase

d)

interphase

60.

A person with two X chromosomes and one Y chromosome would appear to be

a)

male

b)

female

c)

both male and female

d)

neither male nor female

61.

Which of the following is the only known viable human monosomy?

a)

XXX

b)

XO

c)

XYY

d)

XY

62.

During interphase, the genetic material of a typical eukaryotic cell is

a)

dispersed in the nucleus as long strands of chromatin

b)

transported through the nuclear pores

c)

condensed and the chromosomes are often visible under the light microscope

d)

dispersed in the cytoplasm as long strands of chromatin

63.

DNA replication occurs in

a)

the G1 phase of interphase

b)

prophase of mitosis

c)

metaphase of mitosis

d)

The S phase of interphase

64.

It is proposed that a certain disorder affecting the inner ear is caused by mitochondrial DNA.

Which of the following observations would be the most decisive evidence against this idea?

a)

Females and males have the disorder in equal numbers.

b)

Mothers pass the disorder on to their offspring, but fathers do not.

c)

Fathers with the disorder pass it on to all their children, but mothers with the disorder do not pass it along.

d)

All of the listed responses are correct.

65.

The centromere is a region in which

a)

the new cell plate forms in telophase

b)

the chromosomes are connected to the cell plate in metaphase

c)

sister chromatids are attached to one another in prophase

d)

chromosomes become aligned during metaphase

66.

How many maternal chromosomes are present in a somatic human cell when it is not engaged in cell division?

a)

23

b)

48

c)

92

d)

184

67.

A cell entering the cell cycle with 32 chromosomes will produce two daughter cells, each with

a)

16 chromosomes

b)

64 chromosomes

c)

32 pairs of chromosomes

d)

none of the listed numbers of chromosomes

68.

"Cytokinesis" refers to

a)

the division of the entire cell

b)

the division of the cytoplasm

c)

the movement of a cell from one place to another

d)

the reduction in the number of chromosomes

69.

Following cytokinesis in an animal cell, how many centrioles does each new daughter cell possess?

a)

two

b)

one

c)

six

d)

eight

70.

The phase of mitosis during which the chromosomes move toward separate poles of the cell is

a)

prophase

b)

prometaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase

71.

Hemophilia is an X-linked disorder. The daughter of a father with hemophilia and a carrier mother has a ____________ probability of having hemophilia.

a)

33%

b)

50%

c)

0%

d)

25%

72.

Consider a woman who is a carrier of a recessive X-linked allele for hemophilia. Which of the following possibilities could explain the presence of the hemophilia allele in her genotype?

a)

Both her mother and her father had hemophilia.

b)

Either her mother was a carrier or her father had a dominant allele.

c)

Either her mother was homozygous dominant or her father had hemophilia.

d)

Either her mother was a carrier or her father had hemophilia.

73.

The removal of the RNA primer and addition of DNA nucleotides to the 3' end of Okazaki fragments in its place is carried out by _______

a)

DNA polymerase Ill

b)

DNA polymerase I

c)

nuclease

d)

primase

74.

The unwinding of DNA at the replication fork causes twisting and strain in the DNA ahead of the fork, which is relieved by an enzyme called

a)

ligase

b)

topoisomerase

75.

A woman is a carrier for red-green color blindness, a sex-linked trait. Her husband is normal (not color-blind) for this trait. What are the chances that their newborn daughter will be red-green color-blind?

a)

0%

b)

50%

c)

25%

d)

75%

76.

Duchenne muscular dystrophy is caused by a sex-linked recessive allele. Its victims are almost invariably boys, who usually die before the age of 20. Why is this disorder almost never seen in girls?

a)

Nondisjunction occurs in males but not in females.

b)

To express an X-linked recessive allele, a female must have two copies of the allele, one of which is contributed by the father.

c)

The allele is carried on the Y chromosome.

77.

The gene for ear shape is on the X chromosome. (Sex determination in werewolves is the same as for "other" humans.) A certain female werewolf has pointy ears even though her father had round ears. What percentage of her sons will have round ears if she mates with a werewolf with round ears?

a)

100%

b)

75%

c)

0%

d)

50%

78.

A woman is red-green color-blind. What can we conclude, if anything, about her father?

a)

He has two Y chromosomes.

b)

We have too little information to tell.

c)

He is red-green color-blind.

79.

For an X-linked trait, it is the contribution of ________ that determines whether a son will display the trait

a)

the father

b)

the mother

c)

the grandparents

80.

If a woman is heterozygous for a recessive sex-linked allele and her husband has the dominant allele, which one of the following is true about the probabilities for their children?

a)

All of their sons will show the recessive trait.

b)

None of their sons will show the recessive trait.

c)

Half of their sons will show the recessive trait.

d)

All of their daughters will be heterozygous.

81.

Which of the following results of Thomas Hunt Morgan's experiments with white-eyed mutant flies was unexpected in light of Mendelian genetics?

a)

The mutant allele (white eyes) was recessive.

b)

Among the F2 progeny, only males had white eyes. All of the females had red eyes.

c)

The Ft flies were crossed with each other, and the F2 progeny included red-eyed and white-eyed flies in a 3:1 ratio.

d)

All of the listed responses are correct.

82.

What is the probability that a human male will inherit an X-linked recessive allele from his father?

a)

0%

b)

50%

c)

100%

d)

25%

83.

Which of the following properties were present in the characters that Mendel examined in his breeding experiments?

a)

The traits varied in an either-or fashion.

b)

It was possible to isolate true-breeding varieties for each trait.

c)

All of the listed responses are correct.

d)

They were controlled by loci that were (or behaved as if they were) on different chromosomes.

84.

One event occurring during prophase is

a)

the beginning of the formation of a spindle apparatus

b)

the alignment of chromosomes in a single plane

c)

the synthesis of a new nuclear envelope

d)

cytokinesis

85.

Which event or events occur during anaphase?

a)

Cohesins joining sister chromatids at the centromeres are cleaved during anaphase.

b)

A spindle made of microtubules is present during anaphase.

c)

The centrioles are at opposite poles during anaphase.

d)

All of the listed responses are correct.

86.

27 The first amino acid inserted into a new polypeptide chain in eukaryotic cells is usually

a)

alanine

b)

methionine

c)

serine

d)

glycine

87.

Which is a post-translational modification of a polypeptide?

a)

Cleavage of a polypeptide into two or more chains

b)

Removal of introns and splicing of exons

c)

The growing polypeptide signals the ribosome to attach to the ER.

d)

Formation of a polysome that allows simultaneous formation of many polypeptides from one mRNA transcript

88.

Genomic imprinting in mammals appears to affect primarily genes involved in _

a)

embryonic development

b)

sex determination

c)

function of the nervous system

d)

digestion

89.

Both chloroplasts and mitochondria

a)

are found within the nucleus

b)

display a Mendelian pattern of inheritance

c)

carry extranuclear genes

d)

have linear DNA

90.

Which of the following would result in genetic variation by way of new combinations of alleles?

a)

Independent alignment of homologous chromosomes during meiosis I

b)

Random fertilization increasing the number of possible allele combinations in an individual

c)

The exchange of alleles between homologous chromosomes during meiosis I

d)

The first three responses are correct.

91.

Individuals with an extra X chromosome

a)

are generally sterile

b)

have distinguishing physical features

c)

are always female

d)

may have abnormal intelligence or be at risk for learning disabilities

92.

Which summary of protein synthesis is correct?

a)

DNA exchanges its thymine units with uracil in polymerase. This activates polymerase, and it starts joining amino acids together.

b)

Messenger RNA is made on a DNA template, and then amino-acid-bearing transfer RNAs bind to the mRNA through codon-anticodon pairing

c)

Transfer RNAs line up on a ribosome, and amino acids bind to them with hydrogen bonds.

d)

Replicated DNA leaves the nucleus, is transported to a ribosome, and catalyzes the polymerization of amino acids in a protein.

93.

The bonds that hold tRNA molecules in the correct three-dimensional shape are

a)

hydrogen bonds

b)

hydrophobic interactions

c)

peptide linkages

d)

covalent bonds

94.

Gene A is normallv found on chromosome number 15 in humans. If amniocentesis reveals fetal cells containing gene A on chromosome 17 but not on 15, the best explanation would be that

a)

crossing over occurred during synapsis of meiosis I in one parent's gametes

b)

at least one parent probably had a genetic abnormality

c)

translocation occurred

d)

an inversion of gene A occurred on chromosome 15

95.

The chromosomal abnormality in which a fragment of a chromosome breaks off and then reattaches to the original chromosome in the same place but in the reverse direction is called

a)

duplication

b)

inversion

96.

Because the frequency of crossing over is not uniform along the length of a chromosome,

a)

the map unit is an unreliable unit of measurement and is rarely used today

b)

pairs of homologous chromosomes contain small but significant differences in gene order

c)

map units do not necessarily correlate to physical distances along the chromosome

d)

recombination frequency cannot be used to determine the number of map units separating two genes

97.

Which type of chromosomal alteration is responsible for the cri du chat syndrome?

a)

inversion

b)

deletion

c)

translocation

d)

duplication

98.

Chromatids are

a)

held together by the centrioles

b)

found only in aberrant chromosomes

c)

identical copies of each other if they are part of the same duplicated chromosome

d)

composed of RNA

99.

If a cell contains 60 chromatids at the start of mitosis, how many chromosomes will be found in each daughter cell at the completion of the cell cycle?

a)

45

b)

15

c)

60

d)

30

100.

During translation in a eukaryotic cell,

a)

polypeptides are synthesized at ribosomes, according to instructions carried by mRNA

b)

tRNA carries amino acid molecules to the nucleus, where they are added to a growing polypeptide chain

c)

mRNA is synthesized by the bonding of free nucleotides to the bases on the template strand of DNA

d)

ribosomes move into the nucleus

101.

The P site of a ribosome does which of the following?

a)

It holds the tRNA carrying the growing polypeptide chain.

b)

It holds the tRNA that is carrying the next amino acid to be added to the growing polypeptide chain.

c)

It helps "unzip" DNA during transcription.

d)

It catalyzes the addition of amino acids to the tRNAs.

102.

Why are individuals with an extra chromosome 21, which causes Down syndrome, more numerous than individuals with an extra chromosome 3 or chromosome 16?

a)

Extra copies of the other chromosomes are probably fatal to the developing embryo.

b)

There are probably more genes on chromosome 21 than on the others.

c)

Nondisjunction of chromosomes 3 and 16 probably occurs much less frequently.

d)

There are probably more genes on chromosome 21 than on the others.

103.

When a person has Down syndrome, he or she has an extra chromosome 21. Therefore, Down syndrome is a kind of______ and results from ________

a)

aneuploidy; nondisjunction of chromosome 21

b)

genomic imprint; excessive methylation of either the paternal or maternal chromosome 21

c)

replication error; an extra cycle of DNA synthesis during the S phase

d)

polyploidy; occurrence of meiosis without cytokinesis

104.

A gray-bodied, vestigial-winged fly is crossed with a black-bodied, normal-winged fly. The F progeny is test crossed. Among the resulting offspring, _________ is a parental type, and______ is a recombinant type

a)

gray-bodied, normal-winged; black-bodied, vestigial-winged

b)

black-bodied, normal-winged; black-bodied, normal-winged

c)

gray-bodied, normal-winged; black-bodied, normal-winged

d)

black-bodied, normal-winged; black-bodied, vestigial-winged

105.

During meiosis, homologous chromosomes sometimes "stick together" and do not separate properly. This phenomenon is known as

a)

meiotic failure

b)

gametic infertility

c)

nondisiunction

106.

In Klinefelter syndrome, individuals are phenotypically male, but they have reduced sperm production and may have some breast development in adolescence. The cells of Klinefelter individuals have two X chromosomes and one Y (they are XXY instead of XY). This occurs because of what meiotic error?

a)

Polyploidy

b)

Nondisiunction

c)

Translocation

107.

The function of the mitotic cell cycle is to produce daughter cells that

a)

have a random assortment of maternal and paternal chromosomes

b)

have the same number of chromatids as the parent cell had chromosomes

c)

are genetically identical to the parent cell (assuming no mutation has occurred)

d)

have the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell but not the same genetic content

108.

Cells that have an abnormal number of some particular chromosome are said to be

a)

polyploid

b)

trisomy

c)

hexaploid

d)

aneuploid

109.

_______is usually less severe than___ and species have been observed in plants, fish, amphibians, and even mammals.

a)

Trisomy; polyploidy; trisomic

b)

Polyploidy; aneuploidy; polyploid

c)

Monosomy; polyploidy; monosomic

d)

Nondisjunction; disjunction; nondisjunctional

110.

At one point, as a cell carried out its day-to-day activities, the nucleotides GAT were paired with the nucleotides CUA. This pairing occurred

a)

during translation

b)

in a double-stranded DNA molecule

c)

during transcription

d)

when an mRNA codon paired with a tRNA anticodon

111.

The function of tRNA during protein synthesis is to

a)

attach mRNA to the small subunit of the ribosome

b)

process mRNA

c)

guide ribosomal subunits out of the nucleus through nuclear pores

d)

deliver amino acids to their proper site during protein synthesis

112.

Which accurately describes the usual process of eukaryotic transcription?

a)

Both introns and exons are transcribed, but neither type of transcribed region leaves the nucleus.

b)

Both introns and exons are transcribed, but the RNA transcribed from introns does not leave the nucleus.

c)

Exons are not transcribed.

d)

Introns are not transcribed.

113.

Which statement correctly describes mRNA processing?

a)

Exons are cut out of the primary transcript, and the introns are spliced together.

b)

Introns are cut out of the primary transcript, and the resulting exons are spliced together.

c)

Introns are cut out of the primary transcript and spliced together at the end of the transcript.

d)

Exons are cut out of the primary transcript and transported to the endoplasmic reticulum.

114.

One strand of a DNA molecule has the following sequence: 3'-AGACAAACTATCCACCTC-5'. In order for that strand to be transcribed, there would have to be a specific recognition sequence, called a(n)_______to the left of the DNA sequence indicated.

a)

AUG codon

b)

intron

c)

promoter

d)

centromere

115.

In transcription,____

a)

the promoter region acts as an initial binding site for RNA polymerase

b)

only one of the DNA strands is used as the template

c)

the RNA nucleotides used are produced by the cell

d)

All of the answer choices are correct.