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Honors Biology Disease Storyline Bank

Total questions: 119

Worksheet time: 2hrs 27mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The process of DNA replication is called semi conservative because it results in

a)

none of these

b)

Two DNA molecules.  One original molecule and one with two new strands

c)

two exact copies with new strands

d)

two DNA molecules, each with 1 original strand and one new.

2.

The image shows the process of

a)

DNA Replication

b)

Protein Synthesis

c)

Photosynthesis

d)

Cellular Respiration

3.

Where does DNA replication take place? Where is DNA located in a cell?

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Nucleus

c)

Ribosome

d)

Cytoplasm

4.

In the DNA model pictured, click on the nucleotide.

A
B
C
D
5.

In the DNA model pictured, click on the Sugar-Phosphate backbone.

A
B
C
D
6.

In the DNA model pictured, click on the base pair.

A
B
C
D
7.

In the DNA model pictured, click on the hydrogen bond (between the base pair).

A
B
8.

A cell will spend most of its time in which part of the cell cycle?

a)

Interphase

b)

M-phase

c)

Cytokinesis

d)

Mitosis

9.

What could happen if there's a mutation that causes a checkpoint protein not to work the way it is supposed to work (no longer stops the cell cycle)?

a)

Uncontrolled cell division/ cancer

b)

Cells don't divide at all

c)

Cells die

d)

Cells divide like normal

10.

Apoptosis is

a)

programmed cell death

b)

Uncontrolled cell division/growth

c)

Normal cell division

d)

When the cell no longer divides

11.

A dog has 78 total chromosomes (39 pairs). It's diploid (2n) number would be:

a)

78

b)

39

c)

0

d)

156

12.

A dog has 78 total chromosomes (39 pairs). It's haploid (n) number would be:

a)

78

b)

39

c)

0

d)

156

13.

Somatic (body) cells have diploid or haploid number of chromosomes?

a)

Haploid

b)

Diploid

14.

Which karyotype shows the DNA in a haploid cell?

A
B
C
15.

Which karyotype shows the DNA after DNA Replication?

A
B
C
16.

A newly discovered creature has 14 chromosomes in its body cells. How many chromosomes would it have gotten from its father?

a)

14

b)

28

c)

7

17.

Which of the following is not a reason a cell would go through mitosis?

a)

Tissue is growing or needs to be repaired

b)

Gametes need to be produced

c)

An organism is going through asexual reproduction

18.

Increased genetic diversity, needing two parents, requires more time and energy, all describe which type of reproduction?

a)

Asexual

b)

Sexual

19.

Less genetic diversity, only needs one parent, quick and easy, relies on mitosis, all describe which type of reproduction?

a)

Asexual

b)

Sexual

20.
The end of meiosis results in  ____ to each other.
a)
2 cells that are identical
b)
4 cells that are identical
c)
2 cells that are not identical
d)
4 cells that are not identical
21.

In which type of cell division does crossing over occur?

a)

mitosis

b)

meiosis

22.

Which event is an important factor in increasing variety among sexually reproducing organisms?

a)

crossing over

b)

gene linkage

c)

testcross

d)

mitosis

23.

Select the image that represents meiosis:

a)
b)
24.

What can cancer cells do that normal cells cannot?

a)

they do everything the same

b)

they regenerate their telomeres, preventing them from aging

c)

they go through cellular division

d)

they grow

25.

What is the end result of mitosis?

a)

2 identical body cells

b)

2 gametes

c)

2 zygotes

d)

2 different body cells

26.
Cancer tumors result from
a)
rapid cell division
b)
rapid DNA replication
c)
slow cell division
d)
long interphase
27.
a)
cell cycle
b)
mitosis
c)
cancer tumor
d)
DNA Replication
28.
a)
cell cycle
b)
mitosis
c)
cancer tumor
d)
DNA Replication
29.
Uncontrolled cell growth is called___.
a)
Mitosis
b)
DNA Replication
c)
Cancer
d)
Radiation
30.

Apoptosis is

a)

the process of programmed cell death

b)

the process of programmed cell growth

c)

the process of programmed cell birth

d)

the process of programmed cell regulation

31.

True or False: Having healthy tumor suppressor genes is an advantage to fighting cancer.

a)

True

b)

False

32.

What is the complementary mRNA strand for the following DNA strand? TGA GTT TGT

a)

CAU CAA ACA

b)

ACU CGG ACA

c)

ACU CAA ACA

d)

ACT CAA ACA

33.

What is the mutation present in the following DNA strands?

TGA ATG GAC

TGA ACG GAC

a)

insertion of Cytosine

b)

deletion of Thymine

c)

substitution of Cytosine to Adenine

d)

substitution of Thymine to Cytosine

34.

What gene is often mutated to become inactive which can lead to cancers?

a)

p57

b)

EVR 1

c)

p53

d)

telomerase

35.

Use the codon wheel to determine the amino acid sequence below:

AUU CCG UUG GAG

a)

Methionine - Leucine- Leucine - Aspartic Acid

b)

Isoleucine - Proline - Leucine -Aspartic Acid

c)

Isoleucine - Proline - Leucine -Glutamic Acid

d)

Asparagine - Arginine - Phenylalanine - Glycine

36.

A nitrogen base is lost from the healthy DNA strand. What do we call this mutation?

a)

substitution

b)

insertion

c)

point mutation

d)

deletion

37.

The Hayflick limit involves

a)

the size a cell can reach before dividing

b)

a cell dividing about 50 times before it reaches senescence

c)

telomeres lengthening with each cell division

d)

None of the choices

38.

If the DNA of a gene reads as follows what would the final amino acid sequence be?

CAC - TGA - TTA - ATG

a)

Histidine - Threonine - Lysine - Glycine

b)

Histidine - Stop - Lysine - Methionine

c)

Valine - Threonine - Asparagine - Tyrosine

39.

Telomeres ___ with each cell division

a)

lengthen

b)

shorten

40.
Which of the following best describes a DNA molecule?
a)
double helix
b)
contains ribose
c)
made of amino acids
d)
contains uracil
41.
What are the three components of a nucleotide?
a)
sugar, hydrogen, nitrogen base
b)
sugar, oxygen, nitrogen base
c)
sugar, phosphate, nitrogen base
d)
sugar, phosphate, protein
42.
The sugar in DNA is ?
a)
sucrose
b)
glucose
c)
deoxyribose
d)
fructose
43.
In a molecule of double-stranded DNA, the amount of adenine present is always equal to the amount of _________.
a)
cytosine
b)
guanine
c)
thymine
d)
uracil
44.

Each 3 letter unit is called a

a)

codon

b)

amino acid

c)

RNA

d)

DNA

45.

What are versions of genes

a)

genetics

b)

heredity

c)

eggs

d)

alleles

46.

"AA, Aa, aa" are examples of what?

a)

dihybrid crosses

b)

monohybrid crosses

c)

phenotypes

d)

genotypes

47.

Blue eyes and brown eyes are examples of what?

a)

prismatic coloration

b)

phenotypes

c)

genotypes

d)

masking traits

48.

If the genotype is "Bb", what is this called?

a)

homozygous

b)

heterozygous

49.

If the genotype is "bb", what is this called?

a)

homozygous dominant

b)

homozygous recessive

c)

heterozygous dominant

d)

heterozygous recessive

50.
Identify the stage of mitosis.
a)
interphase
b)
prophase
c)
metaphase
d)
anaphase
51.
A heterozygous long-tusked elephant is crossed with a homozygous recessive short-tusked elephant. What is the probability of the offspring having short tusks?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
52.
How many generations are shown in this pedigree?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
53.

Is this pedigree dominant, recessive, or sex-linked recessive?

a)

Dominant

b)

Recessive

c)

Sex-Linked Recessive

54.
If hemophilia is a sex-linked recessive trait, what genotype would individual III-3 have?
a)
XbX
b)
XbXb
c)
XbYb
d)
XbY
55.

Which phase does the image represent?

a)

Prophase I

b)

Metaphase I

c)

Anaphase I

d)

Telophase I

56.

Which part of meiosis produces diversity in gametes?

a)

DNA replication

b)

Prophase

c)

Crossing-over

d)

Cytokinesis

57.

Meiosis produces daughter cells that are genetically _________ each other.

a)

identical to

b)

different from

c)

superior to

d)

inferior to

58.

Identify the phase of meiosis.

a)

Anaphase I

b)

Anaphase II

c)

Telophase I

d)

Telophase II

59.

A pair of chromosomes having the same gene sequences, each derived from one parent

a)

Sister Chromatids

b)

Homologous Chromosomes

c)

Proto-Oncogenes

d)

Oncogenes

60.

What is the purpose of the cell cycle checkpoints?

a)

To make sure the cell isn't duplicating too fast

b)

They were there by chance and happen to help reduce the chances of cancer

c)

To make sure that all parts of the cell are healthy to avoid mutations

61.
Uncontrolled cell division is stopped by...
a)
tumor suppressor genes
b)
oncogenes
62.
Which is an example of a tumor suppressor gene?
a)
apoptosis
b)
proto-oncogenes
c)
p53
d)
oncogenes
63.

Identify the phase of meiosis in the image.

a)

Prophase I

b)

Prophase II

c)

Telophase I

d)

Telophase II

64.

The daughter cells produced by meiosis are also called __________.

a)

somatic cells

b)

stem cells

c)

germ cells

d)

gametes

65.
DNA replication results in two DNA molecules,
a)
each one with two original strands
b)
each one with two new strands
c)
each one with one new strand and one original strand
d)
one with two new strands and the other with two original strands
66.
What kind of information does DNA carry?
a)
genetic
b)
nuclear
c)
cell structure
d)
it doesn't carry any info
67.
What are the building blocks for DNA?
a)
carbohydrates
b)
nucleotides
c)
lipids
d)
proteins
68.
Which of the following best describes a DNA molecule?
a)
double helix
b)
contains ribose
c)
made of amino acids
d)
contains uracil
69.
What are the three components of a nucleotide?
a)
sugar, hydrogen, nitrogen base
b)
sugar, oxygen, nitrogen base
c)
sugar, phosphate, nitrogen base
d)
sugar, phosphate, protein
70.
The molecule pictured is a monomer of _______.
a)
RNA
b)
DNA
c)
a carbohydrate
d)
a protein
71.
Which of the following monomers are repeatedly joined together to form a strand of DNA?
a)
amino acids
b)
nucleotides
c)
fatty acids
d)
polysaccharides
72.
In a molecule of double-stranded DNA, the amount of adenine present is always equal to the amount of _________.
a)
cytosine
b)
guanine
c)
thymine
d)
uracil
73.
In a molecule of double-stranded DNA, the amount of Adenine present is always equal to the amount of
a)
cytosine
b)
guanine
c)
thymine
d)
uracil
74.

What can cancer cells do that normal cells cannot?

a)

they do everything the same

b)

they regenerate their telomeres, preventing them from aging

c)

they go through cellular division

d)

they grow

75.

The scientist who said that cells lose DNA with each cell division and therefore will only divide a finite number of times is

a)

James Watson

b)

Leonard Hayflick

c)

Albert Einstein

d)

Rachel Carson

76.

A nitrogen base is lost from the healthy DNA strand. What do we call this mutation?

a)

substitution

b)

insertion

c)

point mutation

d)

deletion

77.

How many more (not total) copies of p53 gene do elephants have compared to humans?

a)

2 times

b)

40 times

c)

20 times

d)

10 times

78.

What is the relationship between cancer rates and the body mass of animals?

a)

The larger the animals the higher the cancer rates

b)

The smaller the animal the lower the cancer rates

c)

There is no correlation between cancer rates and body size

d)

The small the animal the higher the cancer rates

79.

How is facial tumor disease spread between Tasmanian devils?

a)

biting

b)

virally passed on

c)

grooming

d)

through mating

80.

In a healthy cell, if p53 identifies a mutation in the DNA of a cell it will

a)

destroy it

b)

not allow it to move to the next phase until it is repaired

c)

allow the cell to continue dividing

d)

attack and destroy the DNA

81.

The image is what a student saw when looking at a tissue sample under a microscope. Most of the cells in this tissue are in which phase?

a)

Interphase

b)

M-Phase/Mitosis

82.

Somatic (body) cells have diploid or haploid number of chromosomes?

a)

Haploid

b)

Diploid

83.
Mitosis produces cells with haploid or diploid number of chromosomes?
a)

Haploid

b)

Diploid

84.

Homologous chromosomes are

a)

Identical copies of a chromosome from the same parent

b)

pairs of the same type of chromosome, one from mom and one from dad

c)

different sets of chromosomes all from the same parent.

85.
The end of meiosis results in  ____ to each other.
a)
2 cells that are identical
b)
4 cells that are identical
c)
2 cells that are not identical
d)
4 cells that are not identical
86.

In relation to the cell cycle and cancer, a mutation in this gene is like having your foot stuck on the gas pedal.

a)

oncogene

b)

tumor suppressor gene

c)

DNA repair gene

87.

How many more copies of p53 gene do elephants have compared to humans?

a)

2 times

b)

40 times

c)

20 times

d)

10 times

88.

What is the relationship between cancer rates and the body mass of animals?

a)

The larger the animals the higher the cancer rates

b)

The smaller the animal the lower the cancer rates

c)

There is no correlation between cancer rates and body size

d)

The small the animal the higher the cancer rates

89.

How is facial tumor disease spread between Tasmanian devils?

a)

biting

b)

virally passed on

c)

grooming

d)

through mating

90.

In a healthy cell, if p53 identifies a mutation in the DNA of a cell it will

a)

destroy it

b)

not allow it to move to the next phase until it is repaired

c)

allow the cell to continue dividing

d)

attack and destroy the DNA

91.

Telomeres ___ with each cell division

a)

lengthen

b)

shorten

92.

True/False: the more copies of p53 an organism has the more likely they will develop cancer.

a)

True

b)

False

93.

region of repetitive nucleotide sequences at each end of a chromosome, which protects the end of the chromosome from deterioration

a)

centromere

b)

telomere

c)

cytoplasm

d)

chromatid

94.

What enzyme do some cells have that can increase the length of telomeres?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

RNA polymerase

c)

DNase

d)

telomerase

95.

Are these normal or cancer cells?

a)

Cancer cell

b)

Normal cell

96.

Are these normal or cancer cells?

a)

Cancer cell

b)

Normal cell

97.

Are these normal or cancer cells?

a)

Cancer cell

b)

Normal cell

98.

Are these normal or cancer cells?

a)

Cancer cell

b)

Normal cell

99.

Are these normal or cancer cells?

a)

Cancer cell

b)

Normal cell

100.

Which of the following is true of the two types of cell growth?

a)

normal cells cannot control their growth

b)

cancer cells grow at a slower rate than normal cells

c)

cancer cells grow at a faster rate than normal cells

d)

normal cell growth results in more cels being produced

101.

Normal cells have a contact inhibition feedback mechanism that prevents the cells from replicating when other cells are touched. A diagram of cells with contact inhibition and cells without contact inhibition is shown. Which statement best describes what will happen to cells in an organism that lack contact inhibition?

a)

The cells will continue to grow, causing a tumor in the body.

b)

The cells will replicate normally, replacing body cells that die.

c)

The cells will replicate until the food supply for each cell is used, causing each cell to die.

d)

The cells will stop replicating once one layer is produced, as other body cells will crowd them out.

102.

What causes cancer?

a)

Errors in the regulatory process of the cell cycle that results in uncontrolled cell growth

b)

There is no known cause for cancer

c)

Viruses and other pathogens infecting cells

d)

It is an infectious disease cause by contact with an infected person

103.
The spreading of cancerous cells is called
a)
metastasis
b)
carcinogenesis
c)
angiogenesis
d)
homeostasis
104.

in which phase of the cell cycle do cells spend most of their time?

a)

Interphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Telophase

e)

Cytokinesis

105.
Cancer creates abnormal cells by disrupting
a)
the cell cycle
b)
red blood cell formation
c)
DNA replication
d)
ATP synthesis
106.

When is apoptosis initiated?

a)

When DNA damage is repaired.

b)

When cells are removed from the cell cycle.

c)

When DNA damage cannot be repaired.

107.
Uncontrolled cell division is stopped by...
a)

tumor suppressor genes

b)

oncogenes

108.

Wound healing and mitotic rates in the damaged cornea of a mouse. The level of DNA

replication in corneal epithelial cells in mice is high in the morning and low in the

afternoon/evening. As a consequence, injury in the morning is expected to lead to accelerated

entry into mitosis and wound repair compared to injury in the afternoon/evening. Shaded

areas indicate dark periods and ZT stands for Zeitgeber Time (24 hour period).


Based on the information provided, when is the level of DNA replication higher in mice eye

cells? (1 point)


a)

morning

b)

its always the same

c)

evening

109.

What stage is represented with this image?

a)

Interphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Anaphase

e)

Telophase

110.

What stage is represented by this image?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

111.

What stage is represented by this image?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

112.

A ________________is a critical point where stop and go signals can regulate the cycle

a)

tumor

b)

checkpoint

c)

growth factor

d)

oncogene

113.

Which of the following describes a difference between normal cells and cancer cells?

a)

Cancer cells are all the same size and shape.

b)

Caner cells divide at a normal rate.

c)

Cancer cells have a normal amount of chromosomes or DNA.

d)

Cancer cells have a larger nucleus and darker than usual.

114.

How are cancer cells different from normal cells?

a)

Damaged normal cells self destruct

b)

The chromosomes of cancer cells are normal

c)

Normal cells vary in size and shape

d)

All are correct

115.

Which statement is true about the graph?

a)

Caner cells multiply quicker than normal cells.

b)

Normal cells multiply quicker than cancer cells.

c)

Cancer cells and normal cells multiply at the same rate.

116.

The scientist who said that cells lose DNA with each cell division and therefore will only divide a finite number of times is

a)

James Watson

b)

Leonard Hayflick

c)

Albert Einstein

d)

Rachel Carson

117.

What purpose do telomeres serve (select all that apply)?

a)

they protect the coding regions of chromosomes

b)

they code for proteins

c)

they help cancer progress

d)

they help maintain genome stability

118.

Select the sentence from the article that BEST explains why collecting cells is important to medicine.

a)

Cells are the building blocks of life.

b)

We are all made up of cells.

c)

Scientists study them to learn more about diseases.

d)

Those cells were named HeLa cells.

119.

Who are the HeLa cells named after.

a)

Henry lacks

b)

Lucy

c)

Henrietta Lacks

d)

Hoola Lukes

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