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End of year review

Total questions: 153

Worksheet time: 2hrs 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Many hypothesis were tested and scientist decided that humans evolved because of natural selection. 
a)
Hypothesis
b)
Theory
c)
Law
d)
Fact
2.
An observation or prediction that can be tested.
a)
Law
b)
Theory
c)
Hypothesis
d)
Fact
3.
When experimenting with the growth of a plant, a scientist uses three (of the same type of) plants, two different fertilizers, equal light, and equal water. What type of variable is the fertilizer?
a)
Dependent
b)
Independent
c)
Control
d)
Compound
4.
 In a controlled experiment, the variable that is changed to test the hypothesis is called the –
a)
Controlled Variable
b)
Responsive Variable
c)
Dependent Variable
d)
Independent Variable
5.
Khaleel is testing how the use of stress balls during testing affects a student's test score.  The students' average test scores who used the stress balls is the __ variable.
a)
dependent (measured)
b)
constant (same)
c)
independent (changes)
6.
An organism that obtains energy by eating other organisms.
a)
Consumer
b)
Producer
c)
Decomposer
d)
Detriov
7.
Organisms that break down dead or decaying organisms.
a)
Decomposers
b)
Producers
c)
Consumers
8.
Which is the correct order of tropic levels? 
a)
Primary Consumer, Producer, Secondary Consumer, Tertiary Consumer
b)
Tertiary Consumer, Primary Consumer, Secondary Consumer, Producer 
c)
Producer, Primary Consumer, Secondary Consumer, Tertiary Consumer
d)
Quaternary Consumer, Tertiary Consumer, Secondary Consumer, Producer  
9.
The efficiency of energy transfer from a lower trophic level to the next highest level is roughly
a)
1%
b)
10%
c)
100%
d)
1000%
10.
The unique position that a species has in the physical use of its habitat and in its function (job) within an ecosystem  
a)
producer
b)
biotic factors
c)
ecosystem
d)
niche
11.
The arrows in a food chain or web represents what?
a)
They point to the organism that is being eaten.
b)
It shows how sunlight flows within an ecosystem.
c)
They show what direction the energy is flowing between organisms. 
d)
They represent how water is transferred within a habitat.
12.
Proteins are made of monomers called ___________
a)
Nucleotides
b)
Monosaccharides
c)
Amino Acids
d)
Glycerol and fatty acids
13.
The element _______is found in all of the organic compounds.
a)
Iron
b)
Nitrogen
c)
Carbon
d)
Oxygen
14.
Monosaccharides are monomers of
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
15.
Which macromolecule is shown?
 View Figure 1 (if not visible)
a)
lipid
b)
protein
c)
nucleic acid
d)
carbohydrate
16.
Which macromolecule is shown?
 View Figure 3 (if not visible)
a)
lipid
b)
protein
c)
nucleic acid
d)
carbohydrate
17.
What type of macromolecule are enzymes?
a)
Protein
b)
Carbohydrate
c)
Lipid
d)
Nucleic Acid
18.
What suffix (word ending) is used in the names of most carbohydrates?
a)
-ase
b)
-nic
c)
-ose
d)
-yme
19.
What is the building block of a lipid?
a)
monosaccharide
b)
nucleic acid
c)
fatty acid
d)
amino acid
20.
Which macromolecule is this?
a)
carbohydrates
b)
lipids
c)
proteins
d)
nucleic acids
21.
I am only found in a plant cell. What am I?
a)
cell wall
b)
mitochondria
c)
cytoplasm
d)
chloroplast
22.
What is this?
a)
mitochondria
b)
lysosomes
c)
chloroplast
d)
endoplasmic reticulum
23.
I store water in both plant and animal cells. What am I?
a)
cytoplasm
b)
ribosomes
c)
vacuole
d)
lysosomes
24.
I am a protein packaging and shipping machine! Who am I?
a)
vacuole
b)
ribosome
c)
endoplasmic reticulum
d)
golgi apparatus
25.
I make proteins for the cell. What am I?
a)
ribosome
b)
mitochondria
c)
chloroplast
d)
lysosome
26.
The plant cell wall is made up of
a)
chitin
b)
peptidoglycan
c)
cellulose
d)
glycogen
27.
Movement of particles from high to low concentration. 
a)
Passive Transport
b)
Active Transport
28.
Osmosis is a form of ______________. 
a)
Passive Transport
b)
Active Transport
29.
Low to High
a)
Passive Transport
b)
Active Transport
30.
Solutes move against the concentration gradient, therefore energy is needed. 
a)
Passive Transport
b)
Active Transport
31.
Uses ATP (energy)
a)
Passive Transport
b)
Active Transport
32.
Fruit fly body cells have 8 chromosomes. After mitosis, you would expect a resulting fruit fly daughter cell to have ...
a)
16 chromosomes.
b)
46 chromosomes.
c)
8 chromosomes.
d)
4 chromosomes.
33.
Structure (a) is a ____.
a)
chromosome
b)
chromatid
c)
centromere
34.
Structure (c) is a ____.
a)
chromosome
b)
chromatid
c)
centromere
35.
Name the phase:
a)
Anaphase
b)
Telophase
c)
Metaphase
d)
Prophase
36.
What is the next phase of mitosis?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
37.
What is the next phase of mitosis?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
38.
Name the phase:
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
39.
The stages of mitosis in order
a)
Metaphase, Anaphase, Prophase, Telophase
b)
Prophase, Anaphase, Metaphase, Telophase
c)
Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase
d)
Anaphase, Prophase, Telophase, Metaphase
40.
Which amino acid is made from the RNA codon GUA?
a)
Phenylalanine
b)
Leucine
c)
Serine
d)
Valine
41.
The process of making RNA (i.e. mRNA) from DNA is called
a)
Replication
b)
Transcription
c)
Translation
d)
Protein synthesis
42.
What will be the resulting mRNA from this DNA sequence:
GAT-TAC-AGA-TTA-CAT?
a)
CTA-ATG-TCT-AAT-GTA
b)
GAU-UAG-UGA-UUA-GUT
c)
CUA-AUG-UCU-AAU-GUA
d)
CAT-ACA-TAC-ATA-TAG
43.
Which  represents the bases of mRNA?
a)
A U C G
b)
A T U G
c)
A T C G
d)
U T C G
44.
Which is true for all organisms?
a)
Replication is when RNA makes RNA.
b)
Duplication is when RNA makes DNA.
c)
Transcription is when DNA makes DNA.
d)
Translation is when RNA makes proteins.
45.
Transcription occurs in the ______ of the cell.
a)
Ribosomes
b)
ER
c)
nucleus
d)
cytoplasm
46.
What is tRNA role during translation?
a)
To bring the amino acids to the ribosome
b)
Positioning the ribosome
c)
Carries the instructions on how to make a protein.
d)
None of the above
47.
Translation occurs at the _______
a)
Nucleus
b)
Smooth ER
c)
Ribosome
d)
None of the above
48.
What process is shown?
a)
Translation
b)
Transcription
c)
DNA replication
d)
Non-disjunction
49.
What process is occurring in the diagram?
a)
DNA replication
b)
Transcription
c)
Translation
d)
Protein synthesis
50.
A type of mutation that changes an entire amino acid sequence in a polypeptide a chain
a)
Subsitituion
b)
Frame shift mutation
c)
Translocation
d)
Inversion
51.
Which of the following is heterozygous
a)
FF
b)
tt
c)
Gg
d)
RR
52.
Which of the following is homozygous recessive?
a)
rr
b)
AA
c)
TT
d)
Ff
53.
Which of the following is homozygous dominant?
a)
Jj
b)
Rr
c)
MM
d)
ee
54.
The physical appearance of a trait is known as the-
a)
genotype
b)
phenotype
c)
characteristics
d)
intelligence
55.
Mark is heterozygous. If B is for brown hair, and b is for blonde hair, what is Mark's phenotype?
a)
Brown Hair
b)
Blonde Hair
c)
Brown and Blonde Hair
d)
Black Hair
56.
rr
a)
Homozygous Dominant
b)
Homozygous Recessive
c)
Heterozygous
d)
Heterozygous Recessive
57.

What is the simple definition of photosynthesis?

a)

A process that is made by animals

b)

A process that exchanges Oxygen to make ATP

c)

A process that exchanges Oxygen to make CO2

d)

A process that exchanges sunlight to make glucose

58.

What are the reactants of photosynthesis?

a)

Sugar and Water

b)

Sugar, light, Oxygen

c)

CO2, Water & light

d)

CO2 and Oxygen

59.

What are the products of photosynthesis?

a)

Water and CO2

b)

Sugar and Water

c)

Sugar and Oxygen

d)

Oxygen and Water

60.

What is the green substance that absorbs solar engergy for photosynthesis?

a)

Hemoglobin

b)

Myoglobin

c)

Chlorophyll

d)

Chloroplast

61.

What processes are taking place in a plant at night?

a)

Photosynthesis and Cellular Respiration

b)

Photosynthesis only

c)

Cellular Respiration only

d)

None of these

62.

What can do cellular respiration?

a)

plants

b)

animals

c)

plants and animals

63.

Which of the following is NOT a part of cellular respiration?

a)

Calvin cycle

b)

Krebs cycle

c)

ETC

d)

Glycolysis

64.

The process that requires oxygen is called...

a)

anaerobic respiration

b)

aerobic respiration

c)

respiration

65.

Where does anaerobic respiration take place?

a)

cytoplasm

b)

mitochondria

c)

cell

66.

Where does aerobic respiration take place?

a)

cytoplasm

b)

mitochondria

c)

cell

67.

Glycolysis goes through...

a)

aerobic respiration

b)

anaerobic respiration

c)

both

68.

Water and carbon dioxide are waste products of...

a)

the Krebs cycle and ETC

b)

ETC

c)

Krebs cycle

d)

glycolysis

69.

What are the reactants of cellular respiration?

a)

water and carbon dioxide

b)

sugar and oxygen

c)

water and oxygen

d)

sugar and carbon dioxide

70.
Most of the cell membrane is made of...
a)
Lipids
b)
Carbs
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic acids
71.
The cell membrane is selectively permeable, which means...
a)
All materials can enter and leave the cell
b)
Certain things can enter while others cannot
c)
The cell manually sorts through all materials
d)
Only certain cells can interact with the cell.
72.
How many layers is the lipid bilayer?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
73.
The picture is an example of _________________.
a)
osmosis
b)
isotonic
c)
diffusion
d)
active transport
74.
Which of the following can be compared to a battery in need of recharging?  (empty wallet)
a)
ADP
b)
ATP
c)
Ribose
d)
Adenosine
75.
Which bond of the ATP molecule is broken in order to release energy?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
76.

An animal cell has a 2% percent salt concentration. It is placed into a solution with a 0.05% percent salt concentration. What will happen to the animal cell?

a)

Water will move out of the animal cell, causing it to shrivel

b)

Water will move into the animal cell, causing it to shrivel

c)

Water will move out of the animal cell, causing it to swell and burst

d)

Water will move into the animal cell, causing it to swell and burst

77.
Which is true about active transport?
a)
It requires energy
b)
it does not require energy
c)
It moves substances down the concentration gradient
d)
it moves material from high to low concentration
78.

What does "hydrophobic" mean?

a)

water loving, associates with water

b)

water fearing, does not associate with water

c)

a world war II submarine

d)

an example would be solutes like sugar or salt

79.

Which are example is hydrophobic in nature.

a)

Oil

b)

Sugar

c)

Salt

d)

Water

80.

What is the "big idea" of the fluid mosaic model of plasma membranes?

a)

the plasma membrane creates a specialized FLUID that looks like a MOSAIC.

b)

the plasma membrane is a MOSAIC.

c)

the fluid mosaic model is NOT related to the plasma membrane.

d)

a plasma membrane is a MOSAIC of components that move FREELY and FLUIDLY.

81.

Where can PROTEINS be found when part of a plasma membrane?

a)

On the outside of the membrane

b)

On the inside of the membrane

c)

Embedded part of the way into the membrane

d)

Embedded the whole way through the membrane

e)

All of the above

82.

This image is an example of a phospholipid. Which part of a phospholipid is HYDROPHILIC?

a)

the phosphate "head"

b)

the lipid "tails"

83.
Enzymes are capable of increasing the rate of a chemical reaction within a living cell.  Enzymes accomplish this through which of the following means?
a)
reducing the number of products   
b)
reducing the activation energy
c)
increasing the temperature of the cell
d)
increasing the concentration of reactants 
84.
Any substance that is acted upon by an enzyme is called a(n)?
a)
Coenzyme
b)
Substrate
c)
Vitamin
d)
Polypeptide
85.
In the diagram, what is letter A? 
a)
product
b)
substrate
c)
enzyme-substrate complex
d)
active site
86.
Based on the graph, what is the optimal temperature for this enzyme? 
a)
15oC
b)
40oC
c)
30oC
d)
35oC
87.

What happens to the reaction rate if an enzyme is denatured or nonfunctional?

a)

No change in the reaction rate

b)

Increase in reaction rate

c)

Decrease in reaction rate

d)

Decrease then increase in reaction rate

88.

Which of the following would NOT denature an enzyme?

a)

HIGH temperature

b)

LOW pH

c)

HIGH pH

d)

LOW temperature

89.
When a molecule can occupy the same active site as the substrate, a situation called __________________ can result
a)
Competitive lnhibition
b)
Allosteric Regulation
c)
Non-Competitive Inhibition
d)
Feedback Inhibition
90.

Which of the following can be used to determine the rate of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction?

a)

The rate of substrate formed

b)

The decrease in temperature in the system

c)

The rate of enzyme used up

d)

The rate of substrate used up

91.

This animal cell is in a ____________ solution.

a)

hypertonic

b)

hypotonic

c)

isotonic

92.

This animal cell is in a __________________ solution.

a)

hypertonic

b)

hypotonic

c)

isotonic

93.

This animal cell is in a ____________ solution.

a)

hypertonic

b)

hypotonic

c)

isotonic

94.

The plant cell on the right is in a _____________ solution.

a)

hypertonic

b)

hypotonic

c)

isotonic

95.

DNA is what kind of Macromolecule?

a)

Protein

b)

Lipid

c)

Carbohydrate

d)

Nucleic Acid

96.

Label the Nucleotide

a)

5 Carbon Sugar

b)

Nitrogen Base

c)

Phosphate Group

1
2
3
1)
2)
3)
97.

DNA's Shape is known as a

a)

A Ladder

b)

A Double Helix

c)

A Single Helix

d)

A Backbone

98.

DNA is related to

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Photosynthesis

c)

Cellular Respiration

d)

Genetics

99.

What is "A"?

a)

Nucleotide

b)

Deoxyribose Sugar

c)

Nitrogenous base

d)

Phosphate

100.

What is "C"?

a)

Nucleotide

b)

Deoxyribose Sugar

c)

Nitrogenous base

d)

Phosphate

101.

What is "B"?

a)

Nucleotide

b)

Deoxyribose Sugar

c)

Nitrogenous base

d)

Phosphate

102.

What is the complimentary sequence of the following sequence:

GATCAG

a)

TGACAT

b)

GACATG

c)

CTAGTC

d)

CGACTA

103.

What do the dotted lines between the nitrogenous bases (A,T,C,G) represent in the image provided?

a)

Covalent bonds

b)

Ionic bonds

c)

Peptide bonds

d)

Hydrogen bonds

104.

What determines the specific traits in an organism?

a)

The number of carbons in the DNA molecule.

b)

The number of hydrogen bonds that hold the strands of DNA together. 

c)

The sequence of nucleotide bases in the DNA molecule.

d)

The sequence of phosphates along each DNA strand. 

105.

This gene segment codes for a peptide in humans.

GCT GTG TGA GGC AGA

What is the expected mRNA sequence when the gene segment is transcribed in transgenic mice?

a)

GCT GTG AGG CAG AAC

b)

CGA CAC UCC GUC UUG

c)

CGA CAC ACU CCG UCU

d)

GCU GUG AGG CAG AAC

106.

Which best explains why DNA replication in the human body is significant?

a)

it is needed for cell division

b)

it is necessary for protein synthesis

c)

it replaces any damaged DNA cells

d)

it produces RNA strands

107.

What aspect of the DNA molecule encodes hereditary information concerning an organism’s traits?

a)

the molecular mass

b)

the sequence of base pairs

c)

the distribution of electrical charges

d)

the folded three-dimensional shape

108.

Transcription (the process of producing RNA) of the sequence TTAAG produces which sequence?

a)

TTAAG

b)

UUAAG

c)

AAUUC

d)

AATTC

109.

A DNA strand undergoing replication contains the bases TACGTT. Which complementary strand does it produce?

a)

AUCGAA

b)

ATGCAA

c)

ATCGAA

d)

AUCGTT

110.

The enzyme that is responsible for adding the correct nucleotides to a replicating strand of DNA.

a)

Okazaki Fragments

b)

DNA Polymerase

c)

DNA Nuclease

d)

DNA Peptidase

111.

The nucleotides that form on the lagging strand.

a)

Okazaki Fragments

b)

Leading Strand

c)

Lagging Strand

d)

Replication Fork

112.
DNA replication results in two DNA molecules,
a)
each one with two original strands
b)
each one with two new strands
c)
each one with one new strand and one original strand
d)
one with two new strands and the other with two original strands
113.

Which viral cycle takes the longest to show symptoms?

a)

Lysogenic

b)

Lytic

114.

When the viral DNA becomes active in the lysogenic cycle, which life cycle does it enter?

a)

lytic

b)

lysogenic

c)

cell cycle

d)

DNA replication

115.

Which is the smallest out of the following?

a)

eukaryotic cell

b)

prokaryotic cell

c)

viruses

116.
What is shown here?
a)
Lysogenic Cycle
b)
Lytic Cycle
c)
Binary Fission
d)
Conjugation
117.

Viruses are considered

a)

living things

b)

non-living things

c)

partially living things

118.

viruses are non-living because

a)

they cannot reproduce on their own

b)

they do not evolve

c)

they have no genetic material

d)

they cannot be destroyed

119.

What is the protective protein coat of a virus?

a)
envelope
b)
membrane
c)
capsid
d)
nucleus
120.

Two groups of prokaryotes are​ (a)   (can be found everywhere) ​ and ​ (b)   (can be found in extreme environments)

Choose from the below words
bacteria
archaea
flagellum
endospore
121.

Viruses are bacteria.

a)

True

b)

False

122.

Which of the following pictures is NOT a example of a virus?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

123.

Observe the diagram of the two viruses.

Part C is the ______________

a)

Genetic material

b)

Capsid

c)

Ligand

d)

Envelope

124.

A karyotype shows 23 pairs of DNA "packages" called ________.

a)

genomes

b)

genes

c)

chromosomes

d)

proteins

125.

Using Chargaff's Rules, choose the correct DNA strand based on this template strand:

AATCGGATTAG

a)

TTAGAAGGTA

b)

UUAGCCUAAUC

c)

TTAGCCTAATC

d)

AATCGGATTAG

126.

Label the diagram with the 2 steps of protein synthesis.

a)

translation

b)

transcription

1
2
1)
2)
127.

Label the diagram.

a)

cytoplasm

b)

amino acids

c)

polypeptide chain

d)

ribosome

e)

mRNA

f)

tRNA

1
2
3
4
5
6
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
6)
128.

True or False: mRNA contains anticodons and tRNA contains codons.

a)

True

b)

False

129.

What are the two steps to protein synthesis?

a)

Transcription and translation

b)
Mutation and splicing
c)
Replication and recombination
d)
Denaturation and elongation
130.

A calico cat shows both the traits for orange fur and black fur. What kind of allele expression is this?

a)

Incomplete dominance

b)

Codominance

c)

Complete dominance

d)

Mendelian inheritance

131.
What goes in box 3
a)

Aabb

b)

Abab

c)

AAbb

d)

aaBb

132.
This type of inheritance pattern is a MIXTURE of both traits, like the old theory of blending
a)

incomplete dominance

b)

co-dominance

c)

complete dominance

d)

recessive pattern

133.
The genotypic percentage resulting from this this cross would be _____________________.
a)
25% blue eye 75 % brown eye 
b)
BB = 25% Bb = 50% bb = 25%
c)
BB= 50 % bb = 50%
d)
All brown eye
134.
Two heterozygous parents produce offspring. What is the probability of the HOMOZYGOUS DOMINANT GENOTYPE appearing in the offspring generation?
a)
75%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
100%
135.

What would be the gametes for the YyRr plant?

a)

YR, YR, yR, yR

b)

YR, Yr, yR, yr

c)

Yy, Rr, YY, RR

d)

yy, rr, yy, rr

e)

YR, Yr, yR, yr, Rr, Yy

136.

If one of your parents is blood type A and the other is type B, which of the following blood types could you be?

a)

O

b)

AB

c)

A or B

d)

Any of these

137.

What does A indicate?

a)

A male that has the trait.

b)

A female that has the trait.

c)

A female that does not have the trait.

d)

A male that does not have the trait.

138.

How many generations are represented in the pedigree?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

139.

In the diagram, individual II-1 indicates

a)

a female with no freckles

b)

a male with no freckles

c)

a male with freckles

d)

a female with freckles

140.

What is the Genotype of individual I-1?

a)

FF

b)

Ff

c)

ff

d)

Can't know for sure

141.

A phenotype that improves an organism’s chance of survival in their environment is considered a(n) ____________.

a)

natural selection

b)

adaption

c)

speciation

142.

Many different groups of organisms have wings, even though they do not share a recent common ancestor. This is because they evolved in environments with similar selective pressures. Wings are an example of a(n) ______________ structure.

a)

vestigial

b)

analogous

c)

homologous

143.

Which best describes the phrase survival of the fittest?

a)

strongest in a population are most successful

b)

fastest in a population are most successful

c)

those that can survive and reproduce are most successful

d)

those that can live the longest are most successful

144.

Homologous structures and vestigial structures show evidence of

a)

divergent evolution

b)

convergent evolution

c)

both divergent and convergent evolution

d)

analogous structures

145.
Comparing human hemoglobin of chimpanzees, horses, kangaroos, and chickens, reveal that humans have the fewest amino acid differences with 
a)
Kangaroos
b)
Horses
c)
chickens
d)
chimpanzees
146.
Mutations are important because they bring about
a)
death of the organism in which they develop
b)
genetic variation needed for a population to evolve
c)
benefits for the individual, not for the population
d)
Hardey-Weinberg equilibrium within a population
147.
This mechanism of evolution occurs when populations migrate.
a)
Extinction
b)
Gene flow
c)
Genetic drift
d)
Natural Selection
148.

What is speciation?

a)

when a population reaches a balance and change is no longer occuring

b)

when populations move away from each other

c)

when species begin to pass on acquired traits and change their behavior

d)

when two species can no longer interbreed

149.

In a population of ladybugs, black bugs are more successful in escaping predators. Overtime, this gene becomes more popular in the population and the ladybug population loses its red color. This is an example of?

a)

Natural Selection

b)

Mutation

c)

Genetic Drift

d)

Gene Flow

150.
Humans, birds, whales, and lizards all have similar arm bones. What is the reason for this?
a)
The function of these bones is the same in all animals
b)
They live in similar environments
c)
They have a common ancestor
d)
All organisms resemble humans
151.

According to the diagram, crocodiles evolved from dinosaurs and birds.

a)

True

b)

False

152.

Humans evolved from chimpanzees

a)

True

b)

False

153.

How do populations change due to genetic drift?

a)

A random event occurs that reduces the population, and the new surviving population has a different allele frequency from the original population.

b)

The population undergoes competition with each other for limited resources changing allele frequency from the original population.

c)

The organism/animal with the most favorable trait will be able to produce more offspring than others creating the new population.

d)

organisms within a population undergo symbiotic relationships with each other due to mutations

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