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Worksheets

GCSE Physics 23 mmd

Total questions: 146

Worksheet time: 2hrs 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is a derived SI unit?

a)

Newton

b)

Kilogram

c)

Celsius

d)

Second

2.

Which of the following situations indicates zero acceleration?

a)

A durian falling down from the tree

b)

A netball is thrown up to the sky at the beginning of the game

c)

A force of 2 N, acting on a toy car which is on rough surface with frictional force of 2 N

d)

An aircraft climbing up to a certain height

3.

Diagram 2 shows a displacement – time graph of a moving car.

Which pair of object motion from P to R is correct?

a)

Motion at PQ =Velocity increases ;

Motion at QR= Velocity decrease in the same direction

b)

Motion at PQ =Uniform velocity ;

Motion at QR= Velocity decrease in the same direction

c)

Motion at PQ =Uniform velocity ;

Motion at QR=Velocity decrease in opposite direction

d)

Motion at PQ =Velocity increases ;

Motion at QR=Velocity decrease in opposite direction

4.

Diagram 3 shows a chili sauce in the bottle can be easily poured out if the bottle is moved down fast with a sudden stop.

a)

Right hand grip rule

b)

Newton’s first law of motion

c)

Newton’s second law of motion

d)

Newton’s third law of motion

5.

Diagram 4 shows two identical trolleys, P and Q with masses of 1 kg on a frictionless plane. Trolley P is moving with a velocity of 10 ms-1 and trolley Q is moving with a velocity of 5 ms-1 in an opposite direction.


Trolley P and trolley Q collide with each other and then move together with a common velocity, v. What is the magnitude of v?

a)

2.5 ms-1

b)

5.0 ms-1

c)

7.5 ms-1

d)

15.0 ms-1

6.

In which situation will the block move with acceleration?

a)
b)
c)
d)
7.

Diagram 5 shows an athlete performing the high jump

What is the function of the mattress?

a)

To reduce the collision time between the athlete and the mattress

b)

To reduce the change of momentum of the athlete when he hit the mattress

c)

To reduce the impulsive force acting on the athlete when he hit the mattress

d)

To increase the impulsive force acting on the athlete when he hit the mattress

8.

Diagram 12 shows 20g of milk at temperature 10oC being poured into a glass containing 50g of coffee at temperature 60oC.

What is the final temperature of the mixture?

a)

Between 20oC and 70oC

b)

Between 5oC and 30oC

c)

Between 5oC and 70oC

d)

Between 10oC and 60oC

9.

Diagram 14 shows a metal block of mass 4.0 kg and specific heat capacity of 500 J kg-1 oC-1.

What is the increase in temperature after the heater has been switched on for 15 seconds?

a)

0.6

b)

0.8

c)

7.5

d)

5.0

10.

The specific heat capacity of aluminium is 900 J 𝑘𝑔−1 °𝐶−1.

Which statement explains the specific heat capacity of aluminium correctly?

a)

1kg of aluminium absorbs 900 J of heat energy during heating.

b)

The temperature of 1kg of aluminium will rise by 1 °C when it absorbs 900 J of heat energy.

c)

The temperature of 1 kg of aluminium will drop by 1 °C when it absorbs 900 J of heat energy.

d)

Aluminium requires 900 J of heat energy to increase its temperature by 1°C.

11.

Which is needed to determine the amount of gravitational force between two objects?

a)

distance and mass

b)

weight and time

c)

area and weight

12.

The gravitational force exerted by an object depends on its

a)

volume

b)

mass

c)

weight

13.

Gravity on moon is less than the gravity on earth because

a)

moon's mass is less

b)

moon's mass is more

c)

moon's mass is equal to Earth

d)

moon has no mass

14.

Calculate the gravitational force between a 15-kg chinchilla and a 65-kg dog which are separated by 0.30 m.

a)

Fg = 3.7*10-8 N

b)

Fg = 1.3*1012 N

c)

Fg = 7.2*10-7 N

d)

Fg = 1.1*105 N

15.

What would the gravitational force be between the Sun and Mars if they were 2.3*1011 m apart? The masses for the Sun and Jupiter are 1.99*1030 kg and 6.42*1023kg, respectively.

a)

Fg = 1.6*1021 N

b)

Fg = 3.8*1015 N

c)

Fg = 2.8*10-42 N

d)

Fg = 4.6*10-75 N

16.

Given the mass of the earth is 5.97x10^24 kg, radius of the earth is 6.37x10^6 m, G = 6.67x10^-11 N m^2 kg^-2. Calculate the gravitational acceleration of object B at 400 km height from the surface of the earth.

a)

8.57 N kg^-1

b)

8.23 N kg^-1

c)

8.00 N kg^-1

d)

8.69 N kg^-1

17.

Which of the following is true about geostationary satellite?

a)

It does not experience any gravitational pull

b)

Above different geographical location.

c)

The orbital period is longer than 24 hours.

d)

Its period of rotation is one day.

18.

Given the radius of the moon is 1740 km, the mass of the moon is 7.35x10^22 kg and G = 6.67x10^-11 N m^2 kg^-2, find the escape velocity from the moon.

a)

2374 m s^-1

b)

1679 m s-1

c)

2300 m s^-1

d)

75067 m s-1

19.

Kepler's 2nd Law deals with

a)

the shape of the planets' orbits

b)

the speed/area the planet travels

c)

the length of time it takes the planet to orbit the sun

20.

Planets orbit the Sun in a shape called a(n)

a)

circle

b)

ellipse

c)

focus

d)

perihelion

21.

Identify the circuit symbol

a)

Resistor

b)

Fuse

c)

Thermistor

d)

Lamp

22.

Identify the circuit symbol

a)

Diode

b)

Light Emitting Diode (LED)

c)

Light Dependent Resistor (LDR)

d)

Ammeter

23.

Identify the circuit symbol

a)

Light Dependent resistor

b)

Variable Resistor

c)

Thermistor

d)

Resistor

24.

Identify the circuit symbol

a)

Battery

b)

Power Pack

c)

Ammeter

d)

Lamp

25.

Identify the circuit symbol

a)

Thermistor

b)

Light Dependent Resistor

c)

Variable Resistor

d)

Resistor

26.

Two identical bulbs are wired in series with each other, shortly after turning the circuit on, one bulb blows. What happens to the other bulb?

a)

It gets brighter

b)

It gets dimmer

c)

It goes out

27.

Three identical bulbs are wired in series with each other. The resistance of the whole circuit is 60Ω. What is the resistance of 1 bulb

a)

10Ω

b)

20Ω

c)

60Ω

28.

A student wants to experiment with this circuit and decides to put an ammeter in. Which of these is correct

a)

It does not matter where it goes so long as it is parallel

b)

It does not matter where it goes so long as it is in series

c)

It must go between two bulbs

d)

It must go between the power supply and the bulbs

29.

Wired correctly the ammeter reads 0.25A. Assuming the three bulbs still have a combined resistance of 60Ω, calculate the potential difference across all 3 bulbs.

a)

15V

b)

60.25V

c)

59.75

d)

240V

30.

The three lamps are rewired parallel to each other, compare the brightness of these lamps from when they were in series. The power supply has stayed the same.

a)

They are now brighter

b)

They are now dimmer

c)

It is impossible to say

31.

The resistance of each lamp is the 20Ω, and the power supply is turned to 6V. Calculate the current through the first lamp.

a)

26A

b)

0.3

c)

14A

d)

3.333A

32.

Which of these will not increase the resistance of a length of wire

a)

Using a shorter wire

b)

Using a different colour lamp

c)

Using a longer wire

d)

Using a thicker wire

33.

A student draw up their results. What is the relationship between length of wire and resistance of wire

a)

There is no relationship

b)

Directly proportional

c)

Inversely proportional

34.

In a three core wire, what wire is the BROWN wire

a)

Live

b)

Earth

c)

Neutral

35.

What will happen if you replace a fuse with one a current rating too low for the appliance

a)

Nothing, perfectly safe.

b)

The fuse will never melt

c)

The fuse will melt even when things are working normally

36.

What will happen if you replace a fuse with one rated too high for the appliance

a)

Nothing, perfectly safe

b)

The appliance will draw a lower current so it will work.

c)

The fuse will not melt, even if the current is too high.

37.

What is the function of the EARTH wire.

a)

Touches the metal casing to ground it in case there is a fault

b)

Decoration, electricians love yellow and green

c)

Carries current toward the appliance

d)

Carries current away from the appliance.

38.

Which of these is a correct IV graph for a diode

a)
b)
c)
39.

The potential difference across a resistor is 6V, and the current through the circuit is 0.2A. What is the resistance of the resistor?

a)

12Ω

b)

0.03Ω

c)

15Ω

d)

30Ω

40.

Calculate the power of a lamp which draws a current of 0.25A and a potential difference of 12V.

a)

3W

b)

4W

c)

48W

d)

24W

41.
Which states allow easy flow of particles
a)
Gas and Solid
b)
Gas and Liquid
c)
Solid and Liquid
d)
Gas only
42.
What sorts of things are made of particles?
a)
Everything in the universe
b)
Anything solid
c)
Water 
d)
Most solids, liquids and gases. 
43.
Can Solids be compressed?
a)
No
b)
Yes
c)
Sometimes (it depends what it's made of)
d)
Generally no
44.
What happens to particles as they heat up?
a)
They slow down
b)
Nothing
c)
They don't move
d)
They speed up
45.
Adding HEAT to matter causes its particles to:
a)
move faster and farther apart
b)
Move slower and farther apart
c)
Move faster and closer together
d)
Move slower and closer together
46.
If a balloon is cooled what will happen to the volume?
a)
Volume will increase
b)
Volume will decrease
c)
Volume will not change
47.

Which of the following is not a state of matter

a)

Ice

b)

Gas

c)

Liquid

d)

Solid

48.

Latent Heat of Fusion: The amount of energy required to change the state of 1kg a substance from solid to liquid at fixed _____________

a)

Quantity

b)

Heat Energy

c)

Temperature

d)

Pressure

49.

Which is not a change of state

a)

Melting

b)

Boiling

c)

Sublimation

d)

Frosting

50.

Find the energy required to boil 0.250 kg of water away at 100ºC. The Latent Heat of Vapourisation of water is 2260 KJ/kg.

Q=mLv Q=mL_v\  

Lv of water = 2260 kJ per kgL_v\ of\ water\ =\ 2260\ kJ\ per\ kg  

a)

565 000 J

b)

565 J

c)

9040 J

d)

9.040 J

51.

What is the graph called?

a)

Melting and Boiling graph

b)

Temperature Graph

c)

Heating Curve of a substance

d)

Graph of Temperature and heating up

52.

At which point does the substance finish boiling

a)

B

b)

C

c)

E

d)

F

e)

D

53.

At Which point is the Kinetic Energy Store increasing?

a)

B-C

b)

C-D

c)

D-E

d)

All of the above

54.

At stage is the Potential Energy Store increasing?

a)

A-B

b)

B-D

c)

C-D

d)

D-E

55.

Which stage is a gas heating up?

a)

F

b)

A

c)

D

d)

B

56.

Which is true of liquids?

a)

Particles arranged in an ordered manner

b)

Particles are not touching one another.

c)

Particles are quite closely packed

d)

Particles can vibrate but not move around

57.

A cube of metal has side 2 cm. It weighs 10g. Find its density.

a)

5 g / cm3

b)

20 g / cm3

c)

0.2 g / cm3

d)

1.25 g / cm3

58.
What two types of measurements make up DENSITY? 
a)
Mass and Volume
b)
Temperature and Mass
c)
Grams and Centimeters
d)
Volume and Weight
59.

It's the SI unit for Heat

a)

Watts

b)

Celsius

c)

Joules

d)

Nm

60.

This symbol represents latent heat

a)

Q

b)

c

c)

ΔT

d)

L

61.

It's the amount of heat required to change the state (gas,liquid, solid) of a unit of material

a)

Latent Heat

b)

Specific Heat

c)

Temperature

d)

Q

62.

Which element is a black shiny solid at room temperature but turns into a purple vapour when heated?

a)

Bromine

b)

Chlorine

c)

Iodine

d)

Fluorine

63.

How many known elements are there?

a)

52

b)

106

c)

201

d)

118

64.

Who is this?

a)

Moana

b)

Maui

c)

Mike

d)

The Rock

65.

What does sonorous mean?

a)

Clean

b)

Shiny

c)

Can make a sound

d)

Sharp

66.

What is the only letter NOT to appear in the periodic table?

a)

A

b)

N

c)

O

d)

J

67.

How long does it take for light to travel from the Sun to Earth?

a)

2 minutes

b)

5 minutes

c)

8 minutes

d)

10 minutes

68.

How many electrons can occupy the second shell?

a)

One

b)

Two

c)

Five

d)

Eight

69.

Which of these alkali metals is the MOST reactive?

a)

Lithium

b)

Sodium

c)

Cesium

d)

Francium

70.

Who is the richest music artist in the world?

a)

Jay-Z

b)

Madonna

c)

Dr. Dre

d)

Paul McCartney

71.

Lola wants to measure her average speed when biking around her neighborhood. What information does Lola need to gather?

a)

bike weight and total time traveled

b)

distance traveled and direction

c)

distance traveled and total time traveled

d)

bike weight and direction

72.

A ball travels at a constant speed of 6 meters per second along a frictionless surface. Which table correctly shows what a student may have measured and recorded if they watched this ball in motion over a 10-second time period?

a)

b)

c)

d)

73.

Which of the following statements about the car's motion is true?

a)

The total time for the car trip was 50 minutes.

b)

The car returned to where it had started the trip at the end of the trip.

c)

The car did not slow down during the trip.

d)

The car did not travel at a constant speed during the entire trip.

74.

Which statement BEST describes the motion of the cars?

a)

Cars 1 and 3 have constant speeds, whereas Car 2 has a variable speed.

b)

Cars 1 and 3 have variable speeds, whereas Car 2 has a constant speed.

c)

All three of the cars have variable speeds.

d)

All three of the cars have constant speeds

75.

Which of the following correctly describes the object's motion?

a)

The object is moving with increasing acceleration

b)

The object is moving with constant acceleration.

c)

The object is moving with increasing velocity.

d)

The object is moving with constant velocity.

76.

Taryn is playing with a bouncy ball. She notices that the ball seems to travel faster on its way back toward the ground than on its way up into the sky. Why would the ball go slower moving away from the ground?

a)

because the ball must move against the force of Earth's gravitational field on the way up

b)

because the ball must move against the force of Earth's magnetic field on the way up

c)

because the ball moves with the friction force of air molecules on the way down

d)

because the ball moves with the elastic force of air molecules on the way down

77.

Kevin places a book on a desk. Why does the book stay still on the desk?

a)

There are no upward forces on the book.

b)

There are no downward forces on the book.

c)

The forces acting on the book are balanced.

d)

The forces acting on the book are unbalanced.

78.

Which of the following explains why an apple would fall from a tree?

a)

the gravitational attraction between the apple and Earth

b)

the kinetic attraction between the apple and Earth

c)

the potential attraction between the apple and Earth

d)

the weak attraction between the apple and Earth

79.

A teacher is demonstrating acceleration to his class by throwing two balls. He throws both balls using the same amount of force in the same direction. The first ball he throws has a mass of 0.1 kg and the second ball has a mass of 0.5 kg. Which statement BEST compares and describes the likely results of the demonstration?

a)

The first ball has a smaller mass, so it will have less acceleration than the second ball.

b)

The first ball has a smaller mass, so it will have greater acceleration than the second ball.

c)

The balls will have equal acceleration because they are being thrown in the same direction.

d)

The balls will have equal acceleration because they are being thrown with the same force.

80.

Which argument is supported by the results of the investigation?

a)

The acceleration of an object is proportional to the mass of the object but not the force applied to it.

b)

The acceleration of an object is proportional to the force applied to the object but not the mass of it.

c)

The acceleration of an object is proportional to both the mass of the object and the force applied to it.

d)

The acceleration of an object is neither proportional to the force applied to the object nor the mass of it.

81.

Which graph correctly shows the distance and time traveled by the race car?

a)

b)

c)

d)

82.

An object that is traveling east at a constant rate has

a)

velocity, but neither acceleration nor speed.

b)

speed, but neither velocity nor acceleration.

c)

speed and velocity, but no acceleration.

d)

acceleration and speed, but no velocity.

83.

Unlike acceleration and velocity, speed does NOT need to specify

a)

direction.

b)

distance.

c)

mass.

d)

time.

84.

Which of the following can cause a moving object to change direction?

a)

acceleration

b)

velocity

c)

inertia

d)

force

85.

A little girl pushes her toy car along the concrete sidewalk. Eventually, the toy car slows down and comes to a stop. What force played the greatest role in causing the toy car to slow down and stop?

a)

frictional force

b)

gravitational force

c)

the force from the girl's push

d)

the normal force from the ground

86.

If the force of each team is balanced by the other, then

a)

both teams will fall to the ground.

b)

both teams will move to the right.

c)

both teams will move to the left.

d)

both teams will remain in place.

87.

Which of the following describes what will happen when the ball hits the seesaw?

a)

The box will move up against gravity

b)

The box will stay in the same position.

c)

The box will slide off the seesaw.

d)

The box will move closer to the ground.

88.

Which answer choice best explains why tractor trailers take more time to speed up and slow down than regular cars?

a)

Tractor trailers have less mass and require less force to move.

b)

Tractor trailers have more mass and require more force to move.

c)

Tractor trailers have less mass and require more force to move.

d)

Tractor trailers have more mass and require less force to move.

89.

According to Newton's second law, which object requires the least amount of force to accelerate?

a)

bike

b)

skateboard

c)

car

d)

moving truck

90.

The student claims that if she applies a force of 10 N to a block with a mass of 10 kg, it will accelerate faster than 2 m/s2. Which statement evaluates her claim correctly?

a)

The claim is correct because heavier objects require more force to accelerate.

b)

The claim is correct because heavier objects require less force to accelerate.

c)

The claim is incorrect because heavier objects require more force to accelerate.

d)

The claim is incorrect because heavier objects require less force to accelerate.

91.

If two cars are travelling towards each other, which of these statements is true.

a)

One has a negative time

b)

One has a negative mass

c)

One has a negative distance

d)

One has a negative momentum

e)

One has a negative kinetic energy

92.

What is 30 km/h in m/s given to 1 decimal place? Do not type the units.

a)

8.3

b)

9.8

c)

6.9

d)

9.4

e)

108

93.

Which of these are measured in Joules? Tick all that apply (two answers).

a)

Kinetic energy

b)

Weight

c)

Thrust

d)

Power

e)

Work done

94.

Which of these does not affect the time taken for an object to fall from a height?

a)

mass

b)

initial speed

c)

final speed

d)

acceleration

e)

distance

95.

What are the two quantities needed to work out momentum and also kinetic energy?

a)

mass

b)

time

c)

acceleration

d)

velocity

e)

distance

96.

Which has the highest density? Do not guess, use your day to day knowledge of each substance.

a)

water

b)

oil

c)

copper

d)

gold

e)

aluminium

97.

Which of these is not an equation for energy?

a)

12mv2\frac{1}{2}mv^2

b)

mghmgh

c)

PtPt

d)

mvmv

e)

FdFd

98.

What type of wave is this?

a)

Transverse

b)

Longitudinal

99.

Which letter represents the wavelength?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

100.

Which letter represents the amplitude?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

101.

What type of wave is sound?

a)

Transverse

b)

Longitudinal

102.

Longitudinal waves are made of areas of compression and ___________.

a)

reflection

b)

rarefaction

c)

rectification

d)

compassion

103.

A period of a wave is the time taken to...

a)

go around the Sun

b)

complete 1 full wave

c)

complete 1/2 a wave

d)

travel 1 metre

104.

What is frequency?

a)

Number of waves per minute

b)

Number of waves per metre

c)

Number of waves per second

d)

How loud a sound is

105.

What is frequency measure in?

a)

Joules (J)

b)

Hertz (Hz)

c)

Metres (m)

d)

Watts (W)

106.

What is the symbol for wavelength?

a)

λ

b)

π

c)

β

d)

Ω

107.

What does ultrasound mean?

a)

Sound that is too high for humans to hear

b)

Sound that is too low for humans to hear

108.

Light is part of the electromagnetic spectrum.

a)

True

b)

False

109.

What type of wave is light?

a)

Transverse

b)

Longitudinal

c)

Reverse

d)

Morose

110.

X-rays are ionising, so they can cause cancer.

a)

True

b)

False

111.

What is the speed of light (in a vacuum)?

a)

300 m/s

b)

300,000 m/s

c)

300,000,000 m/s

d)

3 m/s

112.

Which of these types of electromagnetic waves do not cause damage to human bodies

a)

Radio waves

b)

Ultraviolet light

c)

X-rays

d)

Gamma rays

113.

Which type of waves are used to image bones inside the body?

a)

Microwaves

b)

Radio waves

c)

Ultraviolet light

d)

X-rays

114.

What colour light has the longest wavelength?

a)

Red

b)

Yellow

c)

Pink

d)

Blue

115.

Which of these materials will absorb the most infrared radiation?

a)

Shiny black

b)

Matt black

c)

White

d)

Shiny silver

116.

Which of these materials will reflect the most infrared radiation?

a)

Shiny black

b)

Matt black

c)

White

d)

Shiny silver

117.

What is the name of the radiation that is constantly bombarding us from space?

a)

Hulk rays

b)

Cosmic radiation

c)

Background noise

d)

Galactic noise

118.

Where are magnets strongest?

a)

At the poles

b)

At the top of the magnet

c)

At the bottom of the magnet

d)

In the middle of the magnet

119.

What is a magnetic field?

a)

The area around a magnet where a force acts on magnets or other magnetic materials

b)

The area around a magnet where a force acts on all materials

c)

The area around an object with mass where a force acts

d)

The area around charged materials where a force acts.

120.

Which of the following are magnetic materials? (Choose all correct answers)

a)

Cobalt

b)

Nickel

c)

Iron and steel

d)

Copper

121.

Which of the following are NOT magnetic materials?

a)

Steel

b)

Cobalt

c)

Copper

d)

Aluminium

122.

What is a solenoid?

a)

A coil of wire

b)

A length of wire

c)

A type of permanent magnet

d)

A magnetic material

123.

Where is the magnetic field strongest in a solenoid?

a)

Inside the coil

b)

At the ends of the coil

c)

On top of the coil

d)

Underneath the coil

124.

Which TWO words describe the magnetic field of a solenoid?

a)

Uniform

b)

Concentrated

c)

Large

d)

Dispersed

125.

Which THREE factors make up Flemming's left-hand rule?

a)

Magnetic field

b)

Current

c)

Movement

d)

Force

126.

In Flemming's left-hand rule what does the thumb represent?

a)

Force

b)

Magnetic field

c)

Current

d)

Movement

127.

Which of the following would NOT increase the force of an electric motor?

a)

Increasing the number of coils

b)

Increasing the strength of the magnet

c)

Increasing the size of the magnet

d)

Increasing the current

128.

Which equation links current, force, length of wire and magnetic flux density?

a)

force = magnetic flux density x current x length

b)

magnetic flux density = force x current x length

c)

current = magnetic flux density ÷ (length x force)

d)

length = current ÷ (magnetic flux density x force)

129.

What is the unit for magnetic flux density?

a)

T

b)

t

c)

te

d)

Te

130.

Which TWO are key features of an electromagnet?

a)

Can be switched on and off

b)

Strength can be modified

c)

They are permanent magnets

d)

They attract and repel

131.

Which of the following would NOT increase the force of an electric motor?

a)

Increasing the number of coils

b)

Increasing the strength of the magnet

c)

Increasing the size of the magnet

d)

Increasing the current

132.

Look at the graph of the AC induced by a generator. Which graph below shows faster movement only?

a)
b)
c)
d)
133.

Look at the graph of the AC induced by a generator. Which graph below shows stronger magnet and faster movement?

a)
b)
c)
d)
134.

Use Flemming's left-hand rule to work out which way coil AB will turn.

a)

Downward

b)

Upward

c)

Into the paper

d)

Out of the paper

135.

A vehicle travels on a straight road, starting at time t = 0

The graph shows how its velocity varies with time.

What is the distance of the vehicle from its start position when t = 40 s?

a)

115m

b)

190m

c)

260m

d)

370m

136.
a)

The acceleration of X is less than that of Y.

b)

The acceleration of X is greater than that of Z.

c)

The acceleration of X is the same as that of Y.

d)

The acceleration of Y is less than that of Z.

137.

A stationary ball is free to move. The ball is hit with a bat.

The graph shows how the force of the bat on the ball changes with time.

The ball has a mass of 0.044 kg.

What is the speed of the ball immediately after being hit?

a)

13 m s−1

b)

60 m s−1

c)

80 m s−1

d)

160 m s−1

138.

A suitcase weighing 200 N is placed on a weighing scale in a lift.

The scale reads 180 N when the lift is moving.

The lift is

a)

moving down at a constant velocity.

b)

moving down with a decreasing velocity.

c)

moving up at a constant velocity.

d)

moving up with a decreasing velocity.

139.

An object of mass m is accelerated from rest to a velocity v by a constant resultant force F.

What is the work done on the object during this acceleration?

a)

Fv2\frac{Fv}{2}

b)

Fv

c)

mv2mv^2

d)

mv22\frac{mv^2}{2}

140.

What is true for an inelastic collision between two isolated objects?

a)

Both total momentum and total kinetic energy are conserved

b)

Neither total momentum nor total kinetic energy is conserved

c)

Only total kinetic energy is conserved.

d)

Only total momentum is conserved.

141.

A parachutist descends to the ground at a constant speed with the parachute open.

 

Which force, together with the parachutist’s weight, makes a pair according to Newton’s third law of motion?

a)

the drag force on the parachutist from the air

b)

the tension in the strings of the parachute

c)

the gravitational force of the parachutist on the Earth

d)

the lift force on the parachute from the air

142.

A tennis ball has a mass of 58 g.

The ball is dropped from rest from a height of 1.8 m above the ground and falls vertically.

The ball rebounds vertically to a height of 1.1 m.

The effect of air resistance is negligible.

What is the change in momentum of the ball during its collision with the ground?

a)

0.040 N s

b)

0.075 N s

c)

0.215 N s

d)

0.614 N s

143.

A truck of mass 2.1 × 103 kg tows a car of mass 1.3 × 103 kg along a horizontal road.

The total resistive force on the car is 1100 N.

The acceleration of the car and truck is 2.3 m s−2.

 

What is the tension in the tow rope?

a)

3000N

b)

4100N

c)

7800N

d)

8900N

144.

A ball is thrown vertically upwards and returns to its original position 2.4 s later. The effect of air resistance is negligible.

What is the total distance travelled by the ball?

a)

5.9m

b)

7.1m

c)

14m

d)

28m

145.

A car travels at 100 km h−1 on a motorway.

What is an estimate of its kinetic energy?

a)

104 J

b)

106 J

c)

108 J

d)

1010 J

146.

Which row is true for an elastic collision between two objects in an isolated system?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

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