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PMA 1 Review

Total questions: 91

Worksheet time: 3hrs 54mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What type of microscope requires light passing through a specimen?

a)

TEM

b)

Light

c)

SEM

d)

NBA

2.

Instead of light, a TEM and SEM utilize ____________ to create an image

a)

a colored pencil

b)

neutrons

c)

protons

d)

electrons

3.

True or False? SEM images look 3D and are colorful.

a)

True

b)

False

4.
Which type of microscope uses electrons to provide a 3-dimensional view of the surface of an object?
a)
transmission electron microscope
b)
scanning electron microscope
c)
light microscope
d)
dissecting microscope
5.

True or False: An electron microscope gives a higher resolution than a light microscope.

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Only in certain conditions

6.

Select the best answer to the question: Explain why a scientist might choose to use an electron microscope rather than a light microscope.

a)

The light microscope won't show as much and it doesn't make the picture as bigger as the electron microscope.

b)

Electron microscope is better for a scientist to choose than a light microscope it uses electrons and not light.

c)

An electron microscope gives a greater magnification and better resolution than a light microscope.

d)

Scientists might need to choose the electron microscope because it is cheaper and easier than the light microscope.

7.

What does TEM stand for?

a)

transmission electron microscope

b)

translation electron microscope

c)

telepathic electron microscope

d)

tori eats mangos

8.

What does SEM stand for?

a)

scanning electron microscope

b)

sandwich electron microscope

c)

soft electron microscope

d)

Sara eats margarine

9.

The microscopes we use are called

a)

compound microscopes

b)

dissecting microscopes

c)

stereo microscopes

d)

electron microscopes

10.
Which microscope would you be able to see the outside of this small section of plant cells?
a)
Compound light
b)
Scanning electron
c)
Dissecting
d)
Transmission electron
11.
Which microscope would you use to see the outside of a bee with a magnification under 100. 
a)
Compound Light
b)
Scanning Electron
c)
Dissecting
d)
Transmission Electron
12.
Which type of microscope would you use to see the outside of a paramecium at 1000 magnification?
a)
Compound Light
b)
Scanning Electron 
c)
Dissecting
d)
Transmission Electron
13.
Which microscope would you use to see a bed bug in 3-D, with a magnification of about 500,000?
a)
Compound Light
b)
Scanning Electron
c)
Dissecting
d)
Transmission Electron
14.
Which microscope would you use to see a mitochondria (found inside of a cell) with a magnification around 10,000?
a)
Compound Light
b)
Scanning Electron
c)
Dissecting
d)
Transmission Electron
15.

What is one disadvantage of using an electron microscope

a)

The specimen cannot be alive when viewed

b)

The specimen cannot be viewed with as great a magnification as with a light microscope

c)

One cannot view thin sections, only the surface of objects

d)

It has less resolving power compared to a compound light microscope

16.

What is the difference between transmission electron microscopes and scanning electron microscopes

a)

TEM is used for thin sections while SEM is for surface photography

b)

SEM does not require heavy metal staining while TEM does.

c)

One can use a slide prepared for a compound light microscope directly in TEM, but not in SEM.

d)

SEM generally has higher magnification than TEM

17.
The graph shows how enzymes affect reactions in cells. Which statement best summarizes the information shown in the graph?
a)
Enzymes increase the energy of the reactants.
b)
Enzymes decrease the energy level of the products.
c)
Enzyme decrease the activation energy of the reaction.
d)
Enzymes reverse the direction of the reaction.
18.
Based on the graph, what is the optimal temperature for this enzyme? 
a)
15oC
b)
40oC
c)
30oC
d)
35oC
19.
What is the function of an enzyme?
a)
enzymes break themselves into small pieces
b)
enzymes slow down chemical reactions
c)
enzymes speed up chemical reactions
d)
enzymes combine products to form reactants 
20.

What ph do enzymes work best at?

a)

1-3

b)

4-5

c)

6-8

d)

9-14

21.

What happens to the enzyme if it is outside of its ph range?

a)

the enzyme will lose its shape and become denatured

b)

the enzyme will work better

c)

the enzyme will become bigger

d)

the enzyme will stop working entirely

22.

Enzymes work by __________________ the activation energy of a reaction.

a)

raising

b)

lowering

c)

fixing

d)

breaking

23.

Enzymes are substances that ______________ chemical reactions.

a)

slow down

b)

don't affect

c)

speed up

d)

don't like

24.

Which factor does NOT affect the rate of enzyme catalyzed reactions?

a)

Temperature

b)

Surface area

c)

Color

d)

pH

e)

Concentration

25.

What kind of molecule is water?

a)

Ionic

b)

Polar Covalent

c)

Nonpolar Covalent

d)

Metallic

26.

Which part of a water molecule has a Positive Charge?

a)

The Hydrogen

b)

The Oxygen

c)

The Top

d)

The Bottom

27.

What is the correct chemical formula for water?

a)

H2O

b)

HO2

c)

H2O2

d)

2H1O

28.

Which of the following is an example of COHESION?

a)

water sticking to water

b)

water sticking to glass

c)

oil sticking to plastic

d)

hydrogen sticking to oxygen

29.

Which of the following is the CORRECT list of water's properties?

Read Carefully!

a)

adhesion, cohesion, high specific heat, universal solvent

b)

adhesion, cohesion, low specific heat, universal solvent

c)

adhesion, no cohesion, low specific heat, universal solute

d)

no adhesion, cohesion, high specific heat, universal solute

30.

You body sweats to help prevent you from overheating. How does water regulate temperature?

a)

it lets heat pass through it

b)

it absorbs a lot of heat, then decreases in temperature

c)

it absorbs a lot of heat, but only increases a little in temperature

d)

heat is afraid of water and avoids it

31.

Water is polar. What does that mean?

a)

it is a molecule with opposite charges on opposite ends

b)

it is a molecule with no charge

c)

it is a molecule with identical charges on opposite ends

d)

it is a molecule with too many protons

32.

Water sticks well to many materials. What term relates to this property of water?

a)

cohesion

b)

adhesion

c)

density

d)

surface tension

33.

What is the term for water's ability to defy gravity and climb up a tube?

a)

Capillary Action

b)

Specific Heat

c)

Universal Solvent

d)

Magic

34.

Why does ice float?

a)

water expands when it freezes, making ice less dense than water

b)

water compacts when it freezes, making ice more dense than water

c)

hydrogen bonds in water push the ice to the surface

d)

ice is afraid of water, and avoids it

35.

What are the bonds called between a slightly positive hydrogen in a polar molecule and a negatively charged atom?

a)

Hydrogen Bonds

b)

Water Bonds

c)

Covalent Bonds

d)

Bail Bonds

36.

A water strider can skate along the top of a pond because:

a)

covalent bonds result in water cohesion (surface tension)

b)

hydrogen bonds result in water cohesion (surface tension)

c)

water striders have adapted to take advantage of water cohesion

d)

water striders are afraid of water and avoid it

37.
The amount of energy required to raise the temperature 1ºC for every kilogram is called____?
a)
Thermal Energy
b)
Specific Heat
c)
Temperature
d)
Kinetic Energy
38.

What cycle is Transpiration a part of?

a)

Life Cycle

b)

Water Cycle

c)

Carbon Cycle

d)

Phosphorus Cycle

39.

What is absorbed by the plant by it's roots, and transpiration takes place as the water exits the ________?

a)

Leaves

b)

Stem

c)

Branch

d)

Roots

40.

Which is true?

a)

99% of water taken by the plant evaporates through transpiration

b)

9% of water taken by the plant evaporates through transpiration

c)

Evaporation through transpiration accounts only for 1% of all the water the plant takes in

d)

Evaporation through transpiration is minuscule

41.
What part of the water cycle does this picture show?
a)
condensation
b)
precipitation
c)
evaporation
42.
Which is the opposite of condensation?
a)
runoff
b)
evaporation
c)
precipitation
d)
transpiration
43.
Which best explains why runoff is important?
a)
It returns water to other locations on Earth
b)
It increases the chance of flooding
c)
It makes evaporation occur faster
d)
It increases condensation
44.
Snow, sleet, hail, and rain are all examples of  ________________. 
a)
evaporation
b)
condensation
c)
accumulation
d)
precipitation
45.
What is it called when WATER is FORMED from an LIQUID to a WATER VAPOR Oor an [GAS]?
a)
EVAPORATION
b)
PRECIPITATION
c)
TRANSPIRATION
46.
What is it called when plants give off water vapor as a waste product?
a)
condensation
b)
evaporation
c)
sublimation
d)
transpiration
47.
Which stage does the #2 show in the diagram?
a)
condensation
b)
evaporation
c)
precipitation
d)
run off
48.
Which stage does the #3 show in the diagram?
a)
condensation
b)
evaporation
c)
precipitation
d)
run off
49.
The ________ is the driving force of the earth's surface.
a)
sun
b)
moon 
c)
stars
50.

What is another name for the water cycle?

a)

Perspiration Cycle

b)

Carbon Cycle

c)

Hydrologic Cycle

d)

Life Cycle

51.

When a solid turns into a gas without ever being a liquid

a)

Evaporation

b)

Precipitation

c)

Sublimation

d)

Condensation

52.

Water that is not absorbed into the soil or evaporated into the atmosphere

a)

Infiltration

b)

Runoff

c)

Water Storage

d)

Watershed

53.

The process where water soaks into soil or porous rock

a)

Infiltration

b)

Runoff

c)

Water Storage

d)

Watershed

54.

Biodiversity, aka biological diversity, usually refers to

a)

the number of people on Earth

b)

the variety of species on Earth

c)

the number of animal species in a specific area

d)

the number of plant species in a specific area

55.

a species that is not native to a particular region

a)

endemic

b)

exotic

c)

endangered

d)

extinct

56.

Why is biodiversity important to ecosystems?

a)

It helps populations adapt to ecological changes.

b)

It increases at each level of the food chain.

57.

The lionfish is a venomous fish found primarily in the Red Sea and the Indian Ocean. In the 1990s, lionfish were accidentally released into the Atlantic Ocean, where they found abundant resources and favorable environmental conditions. Which of the following scenarios is most likely to result in the lionfish having a major impact on the communities into which they were introduced?

a)

With no natural predators, the lionfish population will become very large.

b)

Some native species of invertebrates will develop a resistance to lionfish venom.

58.
How can humans best help an endangered species avoid extinction?
a)
they can feed the animals
b)
they can put the animals in a zoo
c)
they can protect the animal’s habitat
d)
they can take the animal to new habitats
59.

What is an example of a human disturbance?

a)

Deforestation

b)

Drought

c)

Tsunami

d)

Changing Seasons

60.

What is the bottom layer of the an energy pyramid?

a)

producer

b)

tertiary consumer

c)

Secondary consumer

d)

primary consumer

61.

What does an energy pyramid show?

a)

Energy flow in a community

b)

Longest lifespans

c)

The stronger animal the higher it is on the pyramid

62.

What would happen if the primary consumers died out?

a)

the producers would grow and the secondary and tertiary consumers would die

b)

producers would die out

c)

consumers would grow

63.

decomposers are producers.

a)

true

b)

false

64.

A cheetah can be a primary, secondary, tertiary consumers.

a)

yes

b)

No

65.
A pyramid shape is used to show the amount of available energy at each trophic level because... 
a)
energy decreases as you go up the food chain, just like the pyramid shape gets smaller as you go up. 
b)
energy increases up the food chain just like the pyramid shape gets smaller as you go up. 
c)
energy amounts are the same at each trophic level
66.
In this energy pyramid, what is the proper name for ANY ORGANISM ABOVE THE PRODUCER LEVEL?
a)
decomposers
b)
consumers
c)
producers
d)
omnivores
67.
Why are producers found at the base of the pyramid?
a)
They create all of the energy and therefore have the most energy of all of the trophic levels
b)
There are more plants than animals. 
c)
They begin the flow of energy in an ecosystem.
d)
All of these answers are correct. 
68.
Which organism in figure 1 contains the most available energy?
a)
plants
b)
mountain lions
c)
hawks
d)
none of the above
69.
All energy transformations in an ecosystem begin with
a)
a scavenger
b)
the sun
c)
a decomposer
d)
a herbivore
70.
a deer population has significantly increased, the best hypothesis is 
a)
the deer's main predator has been eliminated
b)
competition increased
c)
decreased water levels of local ponds
d)
organisms that rely on similar food sources migrated to the area
71.

Birds eat insects off the skin of cows. If the relationship is a type of mutualism, then the organisms that will benefit are

a)

only the cattle

b)

neither the birds or the cattle

c)

both the birds and the cattle

d)

only the birds

72.
Which relationship describes predator/prey
a)
hawks and shrubs
b)
mountain lion and deer
c)
frogs and trees
d)
grasses and crickets
73.
a system of food chains that shows the transfer of energy  is termed
a)
food web
b)
food chain
c)
prey
d)
predator
74.
an organism that can produce its own food through photosynthesis
a)
consumer
b)
heterotroph
c)
autotroph
d)
herbivore
75.
an example of producer consumer relationship would be
a)
lion eating a deer
b)
grasshopper getting energy from grass
c)
hawk getting energy from snakes
d)
earthworm breaking down dead material
76.
What animal is on the top of the food chain? 
*Remember Humans are on the top of all food chains because we do not get hunted. 
a)
Grass
b)
Grasshopper
c)
Mouse
d)
Owl
77.
What do Herbivores eat? 
a)
Plants ONLY 
b)
Animals ONLY
c)
Plants AND Animals
78.
Where does the energy start in this food chain?
a)
Plant
b)
Sun
c)
Deer
d)
Wolf
79.

What is a decomposer?

a)
b)
c)
d)
80.
Which of these organisms would receive energy from the snake?
a)
Plant
b)
Rabbit
c)
Mouse
d)
Hawk
81.

In the graph to the right, what is the population of deer at the carrying capacity of the environment?

a)

3

b)

7

c)

70

d)

40

82.
When a specific population grows past the ecosystem's carrying capacity, what happens to the population?
a)
Density Independent limiting factors start to occur resulting in the population going farther above carrying capacity.
b)
Density Dependent limiting factors start to occur resulting in the population going back below carrying capacity.
c)
The population will go extinct due to lack of resources
d)
The population grows then finds a new carrying capacity
83.
What is the carrying capacity of the graph?
a)
around 500
b)
more than 500
c)
less than 500
d)
around 600
84.

What will happen if all of the frogs in a population die?

a)

The frogs' predators will decrease and the frogs' prey will increase

b)

The frogs' predators will increase and the frogs' prey will decrease

c)

We better all pray because there isn't anymore frogs.

85.

What does the yellow line represent?

a)

exponential growth

b)

logistic growth

c)

carrying capacity

d)

none of the above

86.
Food, water, sunlight, shelter, and space are resources that are  __________.
a)
limiting factors
b)
wet
c)
messy
d)
found in rocks
87.

Two arctic fox are fighting with a polar bear for a sea lion carcass. One fox distracts the bear while the other eats. What type of limiting factor is the polar bear?

a)

Predator-Prey Relationships

b)

Competition

c)

Herbivory Effect

d)

Weather

88.

A group of elephants gets stuck in mud at the edge of the river from a recent mud slide. A lion waits for an elephant to get tired before it attacks. What is the limiting factor to the elephant population?

a)

Predator-Prey Relationships

b)

Natural Disaster

c)

Herbivory Effect

d)

Competition

89.

A duck population normally begin migrating south right after the last rain of the late summer season. Suddenly, they’re migrating much earlier. The climate has been changing far too often which is altering the effects of their magnetite.

a)

Predator-Prey Relationships

b)

Weather

c)

Herbivory Effect

d)

Competition

90.

The wolf goes extinct, and the deer population has no predator to worry about. They graze the land. Because there is no more food. Some of the deer begin to bite at each other, while others die of starvation. What is the limiting factor to the deep population?

a)

Competition

b)

Overcrowding

c)

Predator-Prey Relationships

d)

Herbivory Effect

91.
Which of the following would INCREASE the carrying capacity of an ecosystem?
a)
increase in predators
b)
disease
c)
increase in available food
d)
drought

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