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Final Exam Quizizz Review

Total questions: 89

Worksheet time: 6hrs 56mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Name the INDEPENDENT variable from the table below.
a)
words
b)
minutes
2.
An experiment is performed on plants to see how different liquids affect plant growth. Each plant in the experiment is given a different liquid; water, apple juice, or milk.  In this investigation, the independent variable is ...
a)
The type of plant
b)
The amount of sunlight
c)
The type of music
d)
The type of liquid
3.
Students took a test after they had studied either in silence or with the television turned on. What is the dependent variable?
a)
silence
b)
television turned on
c)
score on test
d)
subject 
4.

A custodian notices some dirty tables and wants to know which cleaner is the best to use. He tests three different cleaners and looks at how well they clean compared to tap water. What is the control group?

a)

type of cleaner

b)

tap water

5.

At what two points are the girl and the dog standing still?

a)

4 to 20 minutes

b)

6 to 18 minutes

c)

0 to 6 minutes

d)

3 minutes

6.

How many protons does indium have?

a)

49

b)

66

c)

114

d)

115

7.

Identify #1

a)

proton

b)

neutron

c)

electron

d)

nucleus

8.
An ionic bond forms when 
a)
Valence electrons are shared
b)
a sea of mobile electrons surround the cations
c)
valence electrons are transferred between atoms
d)
none of the above
9.

Which label shows hydrogen bond in between water molecule?

a)

X

b)

Y

c)

Z

10.

Bond Y is called...

a)

Covalent bond

b)

Peptide bond

c)

Ionic bond

d)

Hydrogen bond

11.
When water molecules stick easily to other water molecules, this is called what?
a)
cohesion
b)
adhesion
c)
solution
d)
polar molecule
12.
What word describes when water is attracted to other substances?
a)
cohesion
b)
adhesion
c)
capillary action
d)
surface tension
13.

What does the atomic number identify?

a)

The number of neutrons.

b)

The number of protons.

c)

The number of protons + neutrons.

d)

The number of electrons.

14.

How many valence electrons does carbon have?

a)

4

b)

5

c)

6

d)

7

15.
The atomic number of this pictured element is
a)
28
b)
58.6934
c)
Ni
d)
Nickel
16.
What is the primary function of carbohydrates in your body?
a)
Speed up chemical reactions.
b)
Give immediate energy.
c)
Help to store energy.
d)
Build cell walls in plants.
17.
The molecule show is a ______ and is the building block of _____.
a)
monosaccharide, carbohydrate
b)
fatty acid, lipid
c)
nucleotide, nucleic acids
d)
amino acid, protein
18.
Which macromolecule is shown in the image?
a)
Carbohydrate
b)
Lipid
c)
Protein
d)
Nucleic Acid
19.

This molecule is a(n) ____________.

a)

nucleic acid

b)

lipid

c)

protein

d)

carbohydrate

20.

Amino acids are the building blocks of __.

a)

proteins

b)

carbohydrates

c)

lipids

d)

nucleic acids

21.
What characteristic defines this organism as prokaryotic?
a)
Ability to move
b)
Ability to respond
c)
Shape and size
d)
Lacking of membrane-bound organelles
22.
Where is the DNA found in a eukaryotic cell? 
a)
floating around in the cytoplasm 
b)
in the nucleus 
23.
Which is true of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
a)
Prokaryotic cells are larger than eukaryotic cells.
b)
Eukaryotic cells do not have nuclei, and prokaryotic cells do have nuclei.
c)
Prokaryotic cells lack membrane-bound organelles, and eukaryotic cells contain membrane-bound organelles.
d)
Eukaryotic cells are simpler than prokaryotic cells.
24.
Under a microscope, a student observes a specimen containing a cell wall, nucleus, and chloroplasts. Which of the following could the specimen being observed belong to?
a)
oak tree leaf
b)
human
c)
bacteria
d)
cat hair
25.

Which of the following is a correct list of structures found in both plant AND animal cells?

a)

mitochondria, nucleus, cell membrane, cytoplasm

b)

mitochondria, nucleus, cell membrane, cytoplasm, cell wall, chloroplasts

c)

mitochondria, nucleus, cell membrane, cell wall, chloroplasts

d)

mitochondria, nucleus, cell membrane, cell wall

26.
What are tiny organelles that convert glucose into ATP?
a)
Ribosomes
b)
Vesicles
c)
Cytoskeleton
d)
Mitochondria
27.

This organelle packages and ships materials around the cell. What is the name of this organelle?

a)

vacuole

b)

ribosome

c)

endoplasmic reticulum

d)

Golgi apparatus

28.
 Look at the diagram of a cross-section of a cell membrane below. The cell membrane controls movement of materials into and out of the cell. The following particles are moving from high concentration to low concentration and are using a carrier protein. How would you describe this type of movement across the membrane? 
a)
simple osmosis
b)
active transport
c)
simple diffusion
d)
facilitated diffusion
29.

Guinea pigs have 16 chromosomes in their diploid cells. How many chromosomes would be present in a guinea pig muscle cell AFTER mitosis?

a)

8

b)

16

c)

2

d)

32

30.

During mitosis the parent cell produces:

a)

2 daughter cells with the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell.

b)

2 daughter cells with the half the number of chromosomes as the parents cell.

c)

4 daughter cells with the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell.

d)

4 daughter cells with half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell.

31.

What type of cell division is illustrated in the picture?

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

32.

What is this phase of mitosis?

a)

Anaphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Telophase

d)

Metaphase

33.

What is this phase of mitosis?

a)

Anaphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Telophase

d)

Metaphase

34.

During which phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur?

a)

G1

b)

S

c)

G2

d)

M

35.
Which type of cells have a cell membrane?
a)
plants
b)
animals
c)
bacteria
d)
all of them
36.

A cell has trouble making insulin, which is a protein that is designed to leave the cells of the pancreas. In which cell structure is insulin produced?

a)

nucleus

b)

free ribosomes

c)

attached ribosomes

d)

Golgi apparatus

37.

A cell has trouble breaking down waste in the cytoplasm. Which cell structures are likely faulty?

a)

mitochondria

b)

lysosomes

c)

chloroplasts

d)

smooth endoplasmic reticulum

38.

What are the two parts of the chromosome that are labeled with "?" called?

a)

sister chromatids

b)

genes

c)

mutations

d)

pathogens

39.
Which 2 molecules form the sides (backbone) of the DNA ladder?
a)
deoxyribose sugar and adenine
b)
deoxyribose sugar and a hydrogen bond
c)
deoxyribose sugar and the nucleus
d)
deoxyribose sugar and phosphate
40.

What are the three components of a nucleotide?

a)

sugar, hydrogen, nitrogen base

b)

sugar, oxygen, nitrogen base

c)

sugar, phosphate, nitrogen base

d)

sugar, phosphate, protein

41.

The two strands of DNA are held together by:

a)

Weak Hydrogen Bonds

b)

Phosphodiester Bonds

c)

Strong Hydrogen Bonds

d)

Glycosidic Linkages

42.

What is the complement to the DNA strand below:

5'-ATGCCAT-3'

a)

ATGCCAT

b)

TACGGTA

43.

How many nucleotides are depicted in the image?

a)

36

b)

1

c)

6

d)

12

44.

Look at the image of DNA, what do the circles represent?

a)

Sugars

b)

Phosphate groups

c)

Nitrogen bases

d)

Covalent Bonds

45.

Where does the above process occur in the cells of eukaryotes?

a)

nucleus

b)

ribosome

c)

cytoplasm

46.

What process is going on in this photo?

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

Replication

47.
What amino acid is represented by the codon UUA?
a)
Phenylalanine
b)
Tyrosine
c)
Leucine
d)
Stop codon
48.
What do you call a section of DNA that codes for a specific trait?
a)
nucleus
b)
chromosome
c)
gene
d)
DNA
49.
A dominant trait shows up __________.
a)
only when two dominant alleles are present
b)
only when one dominant allele is present
c)
when at least one recessive allele is present
d)
when at least one dominant allele is present
50.
A recessive trait only shows up when __________.
a)
two dominant alleles are present
b)
one dominant allele is present
c)
two recessive alleles are present
d)
at least one dominant allele is present
51.
If you cross two parents, both with genotype Bb, what percentage of children will have brown eyes?
a)
25%
b)
50%
c)
75%
d)
100%
52.
The two different forms of a gene are called _________.
a)
zygotes
b)
traits
c)
phenotypes
d)
alleles
53.
Black fur (B) is dominant. Find the probability of a black offspring in a cross: bb x bb. 
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
100%
54.

Study the Punnett Square. What is the probability of a dominant trait showing up?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

100%

55.

What type of inheritance pattern?

a)

complete dominance

b)

incomplete dominance

c)

co-dominance

56.

Duck muscle cell: 76 chromosomes

Gorilla bone cell: 48 chromosomes

Earthworm sperm cell: 18 chromosomes


Which cell above would be produced by meiosis?

a)

Earthworm sperm cell

b)

Gorilla bone cell

c)

Duck muscle cell

57.

Duck muscle cell: 76 chromosomes

Gorilla bone cell: 48 chromosomes

Earthworm sperm cell: 18 chromosomes


How many chromosomes would be present in a gamete of a duck?

a)

76

b)

38

c)

19

d)

4

58.

If the mRNA codon reads UUU, it would translate into which amino acid?

a)

Phe

b)

Stop

c)

Leu

d)

Lys

59.

The image below represents which of the following processes?

a)

Translation

b)

Transcription

c)

Insertion

d)

Deletion

60.
How does RNA differ from DNA?
a)
RNA contains uracil and deoxyribose
b)
RNA contains ribose and thymine
c)
RNA contains uracil and ribose
d)
RNA contains adenine and ribose
61.

The diagram shows homologous chromosomes during prophase I of meiosis. Which of the following correctly describes the process being illustrated?

a)

Segregation of sister chromatids

b)

Mutation in which the DNA content of the gene is altered

c)

Crossing over in which portions of chromatids are exchanged

d)

Condensation and segregation of alleles

62.
Which cell is undergoing meiosis?
a)
cell 3
b)
cell 4
c)
cell 1
d)
cell 2
63.
What is the correct sequence?
a)
RNA --> DNA --> Protein
b)
Protein --> RNA --> DNA
c)
DNA --> RNA --> Protein
d)
DNA --> Protein --> RNA
64.

Meiosis results in ______.

a)

4 genetically unique haploid gametes

b)

4 genetically unique diploid cells

c)

2 genetically identical cells

d)

4 genetically identical cells

65.

The products of photosynthesis are...

a)

glucose and sunlight

b)

carbon dioxide and water

c)

glucose and chlorophyll

d)

oxygen and glucose

66.
According to this cladogram, sharks are MOST closely related to which organism? 
a)
Amphibians
b)
Ray finned fish
c)
Crocodiles
d)
Birds
67.

Which traits do only humans have, according to the cladogram?

a)

jaws and bipedal

b)

mammary glands & hair

c)

terrestrial during all life stages

d)

bipedal & opposable thumbs

68.

Cattle egrets forage (feed) in fields among cattle. The egret gets easy access to flying insects stirred up by the cattle, and the cattle are unaffected.

a)

mutualism

b)

commensalism

c)

competition

d)

parasitism

69.

A tapeworm lives in the intestine of a cat absorbing nutrients through its skin. A tapeworm and a cat have this type of relationship.

a)

mutualism

b)

parasitism

c)

commensalism

d)

competition

70.

Clown fish live among anemones, acting as a lure for the sea anemone's prey. The clown fish get protection and shelter from the anemone. This is an example of which type of symbiosis?

a)

Commensalism

b)

Mutualism

c)

Parasitism

71.

What is an example of an area that is likely to undergo primary succession?

a)

Glaciers melt and leave exposed rock

b)

Plants die from drought and decompose

c)

Land is bulldozed and soil remains

72.
Temperature, light, air, water, and soil are all  _____  parts of the environment
a)
alive
b)
biotic 
c)
abiotic
d)
living
73.
Which of the following lists has ONLY biotic factors?
 
a)
snail, algae, guppy, sunlight
b)
temperature, Daphnia (water flea), snail, guppy (fish)
c)
snail, guppy (fish), Daphnia (water flea), algae
d)
temperature, pH, conductivity, nitrite concentration
74.

What would the carrying capacity of this graph be

a)

800

b)

400

c)

500

d)

480

75.

Many fish die due to a drastic change in water temperature.

a)

Density-Dependent

b)

Density-Independent

76.

Which of the following is a density-dependent limiting factor?

a)

human activities

b)

unusual weather

c)

competition

d)

natural disaster

77.

An extensive drought in the plains threatens wildebeest, giraffe, zebra, and springbok populations.

a)

Density-Dependent

b)

Density-Independent

78.

A severe flood in the Red River Valley causes a decline in the deer population.

a)

Density-Dependent

b)

Density-Independent

79.

Using the food web which of the following is a primary consumer?

a)

butterfy

b)

snake

c)

fox

d)

frog

80.
Which organism gets its energy by eating sea otters?
a)
Sea urchins
b)
Sea Stars
c)
Sharks
d)
Large crabs
81.
If there is 1000 Kcal available in the producers in trophic level 1, how much energy is available in the herbivores in trophic level 2?
a)
10 Kcal
b)
1 Kcal
c)
100 Kcal
d)
1000 Kcal
82.

The diagram represents a pyramid of energy in an ecosystem. If there are 4,800 kilocalories available to organisms in trophic level C, then how many of those kilocalories would be available for organisms in trophic level A?

a)

480

b)

48

c)

4.8

d)

.48

83.

What is the name for the process labeled 1?

a)

condensation

b)

evaporation

c)

precipitation

d)

transpiration

84.

Which process below does NOT release carbon dioxide back into the atmosphere?

a)

Photosynthesis

b)

Burning Fossil Fuels

c)

Animal cellular respiration

d)

Plant cellular respiration

85.
If the plant population decreased, the amount of carbon would _________.
a)
Stay the same
b)
Increase
c)
Decrease
86.

What process occurs when dead plant and animal matter decomposes and nitrogen is released back into the atmosphere?

a)

Assimilation

b)

Fixation

c)

Ammonification

d)

Denitrification

87.

According to this diagram, plants absorb ______________

a)

nitrates

b)

animals

c)

nitrogen fixing bacteria

d)

decomposers

88.

According to this diagram, plants absorb nitrates. What is this process called?

a)

assimilation

b)

denitrification

c)

ammonification

d)

transpiration

89.

The diagram represents a pyramid of energy in an ecosystem. Which level would have the LEAST original energy available?

a)

Level A- tertiary consumers

b)

Level B- secondary consumers

c)

Level C- primary consumers

d)

Level D- producers

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