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Worksheets

fundcom/electronics/eelectrical equipment

Total questions: 111

Worksheet time: 56mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following characteristics of a sine wave can be modulated?

a)

amplitude

b)

angular phase

c)

angular velocity

d)

all of these

2.

The following are advantages of modulation except

a)

allow the use of practical-size antenna

b)

separate differing transmission

c)

circuit simplicity

d)

overcomes difficulty in transmission at low frequencies

3.

Amplitude modulation generated at a very low voltage or power amplifier is

modulation.

a)

minimum

b)

collector

c)

high-level

d)

low-level

4.

In AM, carrier amplitude variation depends on modulating signal's

a)

amplitude

b)

frequency

c)

amplitude and frequency

d)

none of these

5.

A 400 watts carrier is modulated to a depth of 75 percent. Calculate the total power in the modulated wave.

a)

512.5 W

b)

500 W

c)

530 W

d)

515.5 W

6.

If the receive signal is 600 kHz in an AM broadcast, what is the local oscillator frequency?

a)

600 kHz

b)

145 kHz

c)

1055 kHz

d)

455 kHz

7.

The instantaneous voltage of modulated FM carrier is given by v = 10 sin (750x10 t + 10 sin 1000t). The carrier frequency is

a)

750 MHz

b)

1000 MHz

c)

119.37 MHz

d)

1000 Hz

8.

The amount of frequency deviation from the carrier center of frequency in an FM transmitter

is proportional to the

a)

shape

b)

amplitude

c)

frequency

d)

phase

9.

What is the common unit of the sound absorption coefficient?

a)

watt

b)

erg

c)

sabine

d)

decibel

10.

The input is 0.1 W and the network gain is 13 dB, the output is

a)

2.0 W

b)

2.5 W

c)

1.5 W

d)

1.8 W

11.

Tendency of sound energy to spread

a)

Reflection

b)

Diffraction

c)

Rarefaction

d)

Refraction

12.

One octave above 600 Hz is

a)

601 Hz

b)

800 Hz

c)

1400 Hz

d)

1200 Hz

13.

A technique that enables more than one data source to share the use of a common facility

a)

companding

b)

multiplexing

c)

sharing

d)

all of these

14.

Which of the following carries the most number of channels?

a)

50 multiplexer

b)

100 pairs of cables

c)

100 chips

d)

1 fiber optic

15.

What is the optical source for the transmitting end of an optic fiber cable?

a)

Halogen

b)

LED

c)

Injection Laser Diode

d)

Photocell

16.

What is the most commonly used fiber optic cable?

a)

single mode step index

b)

single mode graded index

c)

Multi mode step index

d)

Multi mode graded index

17.

Which type of fiber optic cable is best for very high speed data?

a)

Single mode step index

b)

Multimode graded index

c)

Single mode graded index

d)

Multimode step index

18.

What replaces coaxial cable for terrestrial transmission?

a)

copper cable

b)

point to point wireless transmission

c)

aluminum cable

d)

fiber optics

19.

The core of a fiber optic cable is made of

a)

Air

b)

Glass

c)

Diamonds

d)

Quartz

20.

A type of communication that uses light rather than electricity to communicate is

called

a)

Laser carrier

b)

Microwave

c)

Powerline carrier

d)

Fiber optic

21.

Which of the following

principle will the operation of fiber-optic cable is based?

a)

dispersion

b)

refraction

c)

reflection

d)

absorption

22.

A transponder with a bandwidth of 400 MHz uses polarization diversity. If the wavelength allocated to transmit a single telephone channel is 4 kHz, how many telephone channels can be carried by the transponder?

a)

300,000

b)

200,000

c)

400,000

d)

100,000

23.

The master control center for a cellular telephone system is the

a)

cell site

b)

mobile telephone switching office

c)

central office

d)

branch office

24.

What contains in each cell site of cellular telephone system?

a)

repeater

b)

touch tone processor

c)

direct-link to branch

d)

control computer

25.

What is the maximum output power of a cellular transmitter?

a)

60 watts

b)

3 watts

c)

6 watts

d)

30 watts

26.

s a cellphone user passes from one cell to another:

a)

A "handoff" process occurs

b)

A "sectoring" process occurs

c)

both cells will handle the cell

d)

nothing occurs

27.

In which type of electronic communications does the information travel in two directions?

a)

half duplex

b)

full duplex

c)

multiplex

d)

bicomm

28.

A type of electronics communication in which only one party transmits at a time.

a)

Full duplex

b)

Half duplex

c)

Bicom

d)

Simplex

29.

A "repeater" is used to:

a)

send a message multiple times over a channel

b)

send a message over multiple channels at the same time

c)

extend the range of a radio communications system

d)

cancel the effects of fading

30.

Single-Side Band signal produces a peak to peak voltage of 720 V on voice peaks across a 75-ohm antenna. What is the peak envelope power?

a)

865 W

b)

856 W

c)

835 W

d)

853 W

31.

In 1885, who invented antenna for long distance transmission of electromagnetic waves?

a)

Benjamin Franklin

b)

Guglielmo Marconi

c)

Isaac Newton

d)

Carl Siemen

32.

An antenna that transmits and receives equally well in all direction is said to be

a)

Omnidirectional

b)

Bidirectonal

c)

Unidirectional

d)

Quasidirectional

33.

Radiated power unit area

a)

Air density

b)

Sound density

c)

Power density

d)

Signal density

34.

It refers to a device that merely boosts a signal and passes it on.

a)

amplifier

b)

booster

c)

op-amp

d)

repeater

35.

A collision avoidance radar is designed to detect the presence of vehicles up to a range of 0.50 km. What is the maximum pulse repetition frequency, PRF?

a)

600 kHz

b)

300 MHz

c)

300 kHz

d)

600 MHz

36.

The electron is a/an _________charged particle of electricity

a)

neutral

b)

negatively

c)

positively

d)

zero

37.

Which has the least number of valence electrons?

a)

conductor

b)

elemental semiconductor

c)

insulator

d)

compound semiconductor

38.

A semiconductor that is free from impurities.

a)

intrinsic semiconductor

b)

compensated semiconductor

c)

extrinsic semiconductor

d)

elemental semiconductor

39.

Which of the following defined the Fermi energy?

a)

The amount of energy which a valence electron can have at room temperature.

b)

The amount of energy which a hole can have at room temperature.

c)

The amount of energy which must be given to an electron to move it to conductor band.

d)

The amount of energy which must be given to hole it in valence band.

40.

P-type semiconductor has an excess of

a)

electron

b)

hole

c)

proton

d)

neutron

41.

The depletion region of a junction diode forms the

a)

Plates

b)

Dielectric

c)

Package

d)

none of these

42.

A semiconductor frequently used to rectify AC current to DC is called

a)

zinc oxide

b)

transistor

c)

tube

d)

diode

43.

he resistor is connected across an AC supply of 220 V. The power drawn is 1000 W. If a diode were connected in series with the resistor, what would be the power absorbed by the resistor?

a)

850 W

b)

250 W

c)

200 W

d)

500 W

44.

A circuit consists of a resistor which is connected in series with a perfect diode. When connected across a 20 V battery, then current measured 10 A. However, when connected across a 30 V battery but with a reverse polarity, what would be the new current?

a)

15 A

b)

zero current

c)

20 A

d)

None of these

45.

In order to measure the voltage signals from a filtered rectifier circuit, DC and AC voltmeters were used. The readings were 30 V DC and 2.5 V rms respectively. Determine the ripple of the output voltage.

a)

9%

b)

8.33%

c)

7%

d)

7.33%

46.

An ideal full wave rectifier with a non-inductive load has zero transformation losses. What is the efficiency?

a)

100

b)

90

c)

80

d)

70

47.

An unregulated power supply which consists of a transformer, a rectifier and a filter has some characteristics which are as follows EXCEPT one. Which one is this?

a)

It has good voltage regulation.

b)

It is relatively expensive.

c)

The output voltage varies with the load.

d)

The output voltage depends on the input voltage.

48.

The resistance of a semiconductor is known as

a)

bulk resistance

b)

intrinsic resistance

c)

extrinsic resistance

d)

dynamic resistance

49.

Half wave rectifiers has a maximum efficiency of

a)

40.6%

b)

78.5%

c)

81.2%

d)

50%

50.

Diode circuit that is used to cut a portion of the input signal.

a)

clipper

b)

clamper

c)

peak detector

d)

level shifter

51.

Ripple factor of a full wave rectifier.

a)

0.24

b)

2.42

c)

1.21

d)

0.48

52.

The output of a full wave rectifier with an input frequency of 60 Hz.

a)

60 Hz

b)

100 Hz

c)

120 Hz

d)

200 Hz

53.

Zener diode normally requires

a)

forward

b)

reverse

c)

maximum

d)

impedance

54.

What is one important thing that transistors do?

a)

amplify weak signals

b)

rectify line voltage

c)

emit sound

d)

emit light

55.

An advantage of a transistor is

a)

small size

b)

lack of heater

c)

It lasts indefinitely

d)

all of these

56.

A transistor has a collector current of 2 mA. If the current gain is gain 135, what is the base current?

a)

14.8 μA

b)

15.8 μA

c)

16.8 μA

d)

17.8 μA

57.

The reason, why a metal tab of a power transistor is fasten to the chassis of an electronic equipment is

a)

to hold the transistor firmly

b)

for aesthetic value purposes

c)

for heat to escape easily

d)

to contribute to the rigidity of the equipment

58.

It is a very powerful small component of a computer. Which one?

a)

diode

b)

triode

c)

chip

d)

internet

59.

What is the equivalent of the collector terminal of transistor in FET?

a)

grid

b)

gate

c)

source

d)

drain

60.

A prototransistor can be used for

a)

high isolation

b)

lighting control

c)

relays

d)

all of these

61.

An inverting op-amp with a feedback resistance of R, and another resistance of magnitude R, has a voltage gain of

a)

- Rf/R1

b)

R1/Rf

c)

1+Rf/R1

d)

1

62.

A non-inverting op-amp with a feedback resistance of R, and another resistance R, has a

voltage gain of

a)

- Rf/R1

b)

R1/Rf

c)

1+Rf/R1

d)

1-Rf/R1

63.

A negative feedback amplifier has 0.5% of output voltage feedback and antiphase with it. The gain of the amplifier then is 150. Calculate the amplifier gain without feedback.

a)
800
b)
600
c)
450
d)
700
64.

A triode has an anode-slope resistance of 12 kQ and an amplification factor of 15. Determine the stage gain if it is used as an amplifier with an anode load consisting of a choke having a resistance of 20 k and an inductance of 7,500 μH when the input voltage has a frequency of 600 KHZ.

a)

-12.17

b)

-15.65

c)

14.66

d)

-29.21

65.

The primary function of a fuse is to

a)

open the circuit

b)

prevent excessive currents

c)

protect the line

d)

protect the appliance

66.

H.R.C. fuses provide best protection against

a)

overload

b)

reverse current

c)

open-circuits

d)

short-circuits

67.

The basic function of a circuit breaker is to

a)

produce arc

b)

ionize the surrounding air

c)

transmit voltage by arcing

d)

extinguish the arc

68.

In a circuit breaker, the time duration from the instant of the fault to the extinction of arc is known as

a)

operating time

b)

total clearing time

c)

lag time

d)

lead time

69.

In a circuit breaker the time duration from the instant of fault to the instant of closing of contact is known as

a)

recycle time

b)

total time

c)

gross time

d)

reclosing time

70.

The rating of the circuit breaker is usually determined on the basis of

a)

symmetrical

b)

line to line

c)

single line to ground

d)

double line to ground

71.

Which of the following circuit breaker has high reliability and minimum maintenance?

a)

oil circuit breaker

b)

air blast circuit breaker

c)

vacuum circuit breaker

d)

SF6 circuit breaker

72.

An isolator is installed

a)

as a substitute for circuit breaker

b)

always independent of the position of circuit breaker

c)

generally on both sides of a circuit breaker

73.

________ is used to prevent motorizing of the generator.

a)

Directional current relay

b)

Reverse power relay

c)

Overcurrent relay

d)

Overvoltage relay

74.

For a detection of the occurrence of the severe synchronizing power surges

a)

impedance relays are best suited

b)

reactance relays are best suited

c)

MHO relays are best suited

d)

split-phase relays are best suited

75.

21 is the device function number for this relay.

a)

Undervoltage relay

b)

Overvoltage relay

c)

Distance relay

d)

Directional power relay

76.

Directional relays are based on flow of

a)

power

b)

current

c)

voltage wave

d)

all of these

77.

The undervoltage relays are usually used for what protection of the electrical equipment?

a)

feeder protection

b)

motor protection

c)

transformer protection

d)

bus-bar protection

78.

What is the equivalent IEEE device number for an under-voltage relay?

a)

67

b)

52

c)

27

d)

51

79.

Thermal relays are often used in

a)

generator protection

b)

motor starters

c)

transformer protection

d)

none of these

80.

hat is the type of relay that is intended to respond to the difference between incoming and outgoing

electrical quantities?

a)

Directional

b)

Differential

c)

Subtractive

d)

Distance

81.

Which of the following protective device operates on the principle of Kirchhoff's Current Law?

a)

Instantaneous Overcurrent Relay

b)

Differential Protective Relay

c)

Undercurrent Relay

d)

AC Time Overcurrent Relay

82.

What is the equivalent IEEE device number for a differential protective relay?

a)

21

b)

67

c)

81

d)

87

83.

What is the IEEE device function number 50?

a)

AC time overcurrent relay

b)

Instantaneous overcurrent relay

c)

AC circuit breaker

d)

Differential protective relay

84.

Over voltage protection is recommended for

a)

hydro-electric generators

b)

steam turbine generators

c)

gas turbine generators

d)

all of these

85.

Which of the following relays is used in transformers?

a)

Buchholz relay

b)

Mho relay

c)

Merz-Price relay

d)

Translay relay

86.

A Merz-Price protection is suitable for

a)

transformers

b)

alternators

c)

gas turbine generators

d)

all of these

87.

A pilot exciter is provided on generators for which of the following reasons?

a)

To excite the poles of main exciter

b)

To provide requisite starting torque to main exciter

c)

To provide requisite starting torque to generator

d)

none of these

88.

The method most commonly used for synchronizing the alterators in a power house is

a)

dark lamp method

b)

dark lamp method only

c)

bright lamp method

d)

bright lamp method and a synchroscope

89.

Which of the following is not integral part of synchronous generator system?

a)

Excitation system

b)

Protection system

c)

Prime mover

d)

Distribution system

90.

Which of the following is a prime mover?

a)

Steam turbine

b)

Solar energy

c)

Electric heater

d)

None of these

91.

The transformer oil used in transformers provide

a)

cooling and lubrication

b)

insulation and lubrication

c)

insulation and cooling

d)

insulation, cooling and lubrication

92.

Conservator of a transformer consists of

a)

an air-tight metal drum fixed at the top of the tank

b)

drum placed at the bottom of the tank

c)

overload protection

d)

none of these

93.

An excellent indicator of the condition of the oil in the power transformer is obtained by dividing the IFT (interfacial tension) by the NN (neutralization number). This ratio is known as the

a)

eutralization Number

b)

Myers Index Number

c)

Polarization Index Number

d)

Transformer turn ratio

94.

A device used to detect the impurities in insulating oil.

a)

Oil tester

b)

Hi-pot

c)

Megger

d)

Surge tester

95.

Silica gel prevents moisture from entering the outdoor transformer tank. It is placed in

a)

Conservator

b)

Breather

c)

Core

d)

Windings

96.

________- are auxiliary transformers used for metering or operation of auxiliary equipment

a)

dry transformers

b)

oil immersed transformers

c)

current transformers

d)

station service transformers

97.

Varmeter when paired with other devices measures

a)

diversity

b)

power

c)

load

d)

demand

98.

Which of the following can be measured by "Bolometers"?

factor?

a)

Thermal radiations

b)

Electrical signals

c)

Optical inputs

d)

Temperature inputs

99.

Which of the following instruments is suited for high frequency measurements?

a)

Dynamometer

b)

Oscilloscope

c)

Moving iron vane

d)

Thermocouple

100.

Pole mounting substations are also known as

a)

outdoor type

b)

indoor type

c)

basement type

d)

open type

101.

Megger is an instrument to measure

a)

very low resistance

b)

insulation resistance

c)

Q of a coil

d)

inductance of a coil

102.

A __________ is used to measure the stator winding temperature of the generator.

a)

thermocouple

b)

pyrometer

c)

resistance thermometer

d)

thermometer

103.

In between the generating station and consumers a number of transformation and switching stations exist, these are called the

a)

Switchgears

b)

Substations

c)

Intermediate substations

d)

Transformation stations

104.

Series capacitors are used to

a)

improve the line voltage

b)

compensate for line inductive reactance

c)

compensate for line capacitive reactance

d)

none of these

105.

An ACSR conductor of size 48/7 means that

a)

it has 48 strands of steel and 7 strands of aluminum

b)

it has 7 strands of steel and 48 strands of aluminum

c)

the conductor has 55 strands

d)

the conductor has 41 strands

106.

Bus coupler is very essential in

a)

single bus

b)

double bus, double breaker

arrangement.

c)

main and transfer bus

d)

all of these

107.

Which of the following bus-bar schemes has the lowest cost?

a)

Ring bus-bar scheme

b)

Single bus-bar scheme

c)

Breaker and a half scheme

d)

Main and transfer scheme

108.

Which of the following devices will receive voltage surge first travelling on the transmission line?

a)

Lightning arresters

b)

Relays

c)

Step-down transformer

d)

Switchgear

109.

Where must the surge arrester be placed?

a)

away from transformer

b)

near circuit breaker

c)

near air break switch

d)

near transformer

110.

The lightning arrester is installed

a)

at the top of the building

b)

at the bottom of the building

c)

away from the building to be protected

d)

at the centre of the building

111.

Which of the following acts as a protection against high voltage surges due to lightning and

switching?

a)

Horn gaps

b)

Thermal overload relays

c)

Breather

d)

Conservator