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AP Bio Unit 7: Natural Selection Review

Total questions: 163

Worksheet time: 1hrs 27mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Large-brained female guppies will chose the more attractive male guppy. This process is

a)

sexual selection

b)

artificial selection

c)

allele drift

d)

frequency-dependent selection

2.

Which of the following are adaptations?

a)

an opposable thumb

b)

stomata on the underside of leaves instead of top of leaf

c)

refraining from handfeeding bears

d)

all of these

3.

Which of the following are abiotic factors?

a)

sunlight, water and plants

b)

plants and animals

c)

sunlight, water and rocks

d)

water, rocks and trees

4.

A population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium

a)

has a large population size, selection, large population size, and absence of migration

b)

has no net mutations, but selection, large population size and random mating

c)

has migration, no selection, random mating, large population size, and no net mutations

d)

has no net mutations, no selection, random mating, large population size and absence of migration

5.

When a population exhibits Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium

a)

the genotype frequencies of a population do not change

b)

the genotype frequencies of a population do change

c)

the allele frequencies of a population do change

d)

the frequency of migration and selection change

6.

A population bottleneck is a type of

a)

genetic drift and includes founder effect

b)

allele drift and includes founder effect

c)

genetic drift and allele drift

d)

genetic drift and allele drift and can include founder effect

7.

The sugar glider is native to Australia, while the Flying squirrel is native to North America. The best explanation for their similar appearance is

a)

convergent evolution

b)

common ancestor

c)

divergent evolution

d)

genetic drift

8.

Fitness is an organism's capacity to

a)

survive and mate

b)

reproduce and mate

c)

survive and reproduce

d)

live a long time

9.

Which of the following is a commensalistic relationship?

a)

Birds eating insects stirred up by cattle

b)

A flea living on a fox

c)

A clownfish living in a sea anemone

d)

A woolly bat sleeping in a pitcher plant

10.

DNA's half-life is 521 years. After 2 half-lives (1042 years)

a)

All the DNA will be gone

b)

All of the genes will be gone

c)

1/4 of the DNA will be gone

d)

1/4 of the DNA will be intact

11.

A gene pool includes

a)

all copies of every allele at every locus in a member of the population

b)

all copies of every allele at every locus in the whole population

c)

all copies of every allele at every locus in every member of a species

d)

all copies of every allele at one focus in every member of a population

12.

Which structures include whale hindlegs and human tails?

a)

vestigial structures

b)

homologous structures

c)

analogous structures

d)

convergent structures

13.

The diagram at right shows

a)

a cladogram

b)

3 Domains

c)

Eukaryotes and Prokaryotes

d)

All of these are true

14.

The diagram at right shows

a)

sister taxa but not polytomy

b)

sister taxa and polytomy

c)

neither sister taxa nor polytomy

d)

only polytomy

15.

The picture is showing an example of

a)

allopatric

speciation

b)

sympatric

speciation

c)

postzygotic barriers

d)

convergent evolution

16.

What is a zygote?

a)

A mutated egg cell

b)

A fertilized egg that has just split into 2 new cells

c)

A fertilized egg cell

d)

A tissue

17.

The pictures in the diagram are examples of

a)

postzygotic barriers

b)

prezygotic barriers

c)

allopatric speciation

d)

sympatric speciation

18.

The picture shows an example of

a)

adaptive radiation

b)

convergent evolution

c)

radiometric dating

d)

vestigial structures

19.

The Miller-Urey experiment contributed data to the idea of

a)

biogenesis

b)

abiogenesis

c)

panspermia

d)

Hardy-Weinberg equation

20.

Which level does natural selection act on?

a)

Individual Genotype

b)

Individual Phenotype

c)

Population Genotype

d)

Population Phenotype

21.

What level does natural selection select?

a)

Individual Genotype

b)

Individual Phenotype

c)

Population Genotype

d)

Population Phenotype

22.

What level does natural selection cause change?

a)

Individual Genotype

b)

Individual Phenotype

c)

Population Genotype

d)

Population Phenotype

23.

An individual evolves to better match its environment.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

What is a phenotype?

a)

Genes

b)

Physical Characteristics

25.

What does natural selection MODIFY?

a)

Genotype

b)

Phenotype

26.

What does natural selection act on?

Act on means that is selected for or against.

a)

Genotype

b)

Phenotype

27.

Which of these structures demonstrate common ancestry?

a)

Analogous structure

b)

Convergent structure

c)

Homologous structure

d)

Nucleotide structure

28.

Extant organisms are…

a)

Ancestors

b)

Current Living

c)

Future Species

29.

Which fossil is the oldest?

a)

V

b)

W

c)

Y

d)

Z

30.

If looking for a recent ancestor of the fish, look at

a)

V

b)

X

c)

Y

d)

Z

31.

If the half life of carbon-14 is 5,000 years, how long does it take for 25% of the carbon to be remaining? Note: I am rounding the half-life for easy math

a)

2500

b)

5000

c)

7500

d)

10000

32.

How many half-lives to get to 1/32 of the original amount?

a)

4

b)

5

c)

6

d)

7

33.

Vestigial structures show common ancestry…

a)

True

b)

False

34.

Which is more accurate molecular data?

a)

Amino acid sequence

b)

Nucleotide sequence

35.

Which two bears are most closely related?

a)

Brown & Black

b)

Brown & Polar

c)

Black & Polar

d)

Black & Panda

36.

Which bear is the outgroup?

a)

Black

b)

Brown

c)

Panda

d)

Polar

37.

What is more accurate to determine relatedness?

a)

DNA

b)

Protein

38.

Why is DNA more accurate than proteins?

a)

4 nucleotides make up DNA

b)

20 amino acids make up protein

c)

Introns are removed from mRNA before making protein

d)

Silent mutations change DNA without change in protein

39.

What type of rock are fossils found in?

a)

Flintstone

b)

Granite

c)

Igneous

d)

Sedimentary

40.

How much of a 200 g sample is remaining after 5 half-lives?

a)

3.125

b)

6.25

c)

25

d)

40

41.

How much time passed if 12.5 g of 100 g sample has decayed if the half-life is 3 years?

a)

3

b)

6

c)

9

d)

12

42.

What fossil layer is the oldest?

a)

Deepest

b)

Middle Rock

c)

Surface Layer

d)

Unable to determine due to natural turn over each season

43.

When comparing protein sequences…

a)

Two organisms with the greatest differences are more closely related

b)

Two organisms with the least differences are more closely related

44.

Homologous structures

a)

Show common descent

b)

Show a convergent event

c)

Are structures that are similar due to similar environments

d)

Are structures that are different due to similar environments

45.

Analogous structures

a)

Show common descent

b)

Show convergent evolution

c)

Shares an ancestral trait

d)

Shares the same body structure

46.

Sugar Glider vs Flying Squirrel

a)

Analogous structure

b)

Embryological structure

c)

Homologous structure

d)

Vestigial structure

47.

Convergent evolution shows common ancestry

a)

True

b)

False

48.

Eukaryotic DNA is…

Note: single means that it’s one DOUBLE stranded DNA molecule

a)

Circular & multiple DNA strands

b)

Linear & multiple DNA strands

c)

Circular & a single DNA strand

d)

Linear & a single DNA strand

49.

All eukaryotic cells have…

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Chloroplast

50.

Eukaryotic cells have…

a)

Nucleoid

b)

Nucleus

51.

Why are eukaryotic cells able to be bigger than prokaryotic cells?

a)

Compartmentalization due to membrane bound organelles

b)

Eukaryotes are more robust to scare the prokaryote away

c)

Endosymbiotic theory required a larger cell

d)

My teacher said so

52.

Why can eukaryotic DNA store more information in same DNA amount?

a)

Eukaryotes have introns and no mRNA processing

b)

Eukaryotes have introns and mRNA processing

c)

Prokaryotes have introns and no mRNA processing

d)

Prokaryotes have introns and mRNA processing

53.

All eukaryotes came from a common ancestor.

a)

True

b)

False

54.

Which organelle is not membrane bound?

a)

Golgi Bodies

b)

Lysosome

c)

Ribosome

d)

Rough ER

55.

Membrane bound organelles are found in…

a)

Eukaryotes

b)

Prokaryotes

56.

Which organelle would you find in a prokaryote?

a)

Golgi bodies

b)

Lysosome

c)

Ribosome

d)

Rough ER

57.

What is an intron?

a)

Coding segment of DNA

b)

Coding segment of mRNA

c)

Noncoding segment of DNA

d)

Noncoding segment of mRNA

58.

Which are removed during mRNA splicing?

a)

Exons

b)

Introns

59.

Where in the cell are the introns removed?

a)

Cytosol

b)

Lysosome

c)

Nucleus

d)

Peroxisome

60.

Which cells have introns?

a)

Eukaryotes

b)

Prokaryotes

c)

Both Eukaryotes and Prokaryotes

61.

Phylogenetic trees & cladograms both show lineage.

a)

True

b)

False

62.

What does a node represent?

a)

A divergent event leading to two related lineages

b)

A convergent event leading to two unrelated lineages

c)

A divergent event leading to two unrelated lineages

d)

A convergent event leading to two related lineages

63.

Which two are most closely related?

a)

Human & Gorilla

b)

Human & Orangutan

c)

Human & Gibbon

d)

Human & Chimpanzee

64.

Which organism would be at position D on the cladogram?

a)

Human

b)

Gorilla

c)

Orangutan

d)

Chimpanzee

65.

How many hundreds of thousands of years ago was the common ancestor of Brown Bears?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

66.

Which position would you find the outgroup?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

67.

Which organism would be the outgroup?

a)

Black

b)

Brown

c)

Panda

d)

Polar

68.

What position was the lactose and protein A traits gained?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

69.

What position might the protein B trait been gained?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

70.

If casein was gained at position A, when was it lost?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

71.

What type of data is most effective to develop a tree?

a)

Biogeography evidence

b)

Ecological evidence

c)

Fossil evidence

d)

Molecular evidence

72.

Which molecular data is more accurate for relatedness?

a)

DNA

b)

Proteins

73.

Which is the outgroup?

a)

Asian Brown Bear

b)

Black Bear

c)

European Brown Bear

d)

Polar Bear

74.

What is closely related to the

polar bear?

a)

Asian Brown Bear

b)

Black Bear

c)

European Brown Bear

d)

Western North American Brown Bear

75.

The Western North American and Asian Brown Bears can rotate positions.

a)

True

b)

False

76.

Note:

This was found on Google Images when I searched “phylogeny practice”

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

77.

Which two are closely related?

a)

Panda & Black

b)

Black & Brown

c)

Brown & Polar

d)

Polar & Panda

78.

Which two organisms would be grouped together on the branch with two placements?

a)

Cat & Cow

b)

Cow & Horse

c)

Horse & Human

d)

Human & Cat

79.

Which three organisms would be grouped together on the branch with three placements?

a)

Cat

b)

Cow

c)

Horse

d)

Human

e)

Pig

80.

Which traits would be at the circled part of the

phylogenetic tree?

a)

Lactose & Protein A

b)

Protein A & Protein B

c)

Protein B & Casein

d)

Casein & Lactose

81.

To withstand selective pressures, populations need

a)

To have low genetic diversity

b)

To have high genetic diversity

82.

Cavendish bananas are triploids and undergo asexual reproduction. Why are the Cavendish bananas at risk?

4 lines
83.

Which could cause harmful alleles to be fixed?

a)

Bottleneck effect

b)

Founder effect

c)

Gene flow

d)

Natural selection

84.

An advantageous trait will always be advantageous.

a)

True

b)

False

85.

What is genetic diversity?

4 lines
86.

A population with little genetic diversity

a)

At risk of decline or extinction

b)

Favorable in a changing environment

87.

Why would a population with little genetic diversity be at risk to decline?

4 lines
88.

A favorable trait is always favorable (in any environment)

a)

True

b)

False

89.

What increases genetic variation?

a)

Crossing over

b)

Independent Assortment

c)

Mutations

d)

Random Fertilization

90.

A variable environment causes mutations

a)

True

b)

False

91.

Who is the “father of evolution”

a)

Aristotle

b)

Darwin

c)

Lamarck

d)

Mendel

92.

Which of the following evolves?

a)

Individuals

b)

Populations

93.

A mule is a hybrid between a horse and donkey. What is the reproductive fitness of a mule?

a)

0

b)

0.25

c)

0.5

d)

1.0

94.

Peppered moths became darker during the industrial revolution due to the trees becoming darker. What type of selection describes the peppered moth population?

a)

Directional

b)

Disruptive

c)

Sexual

d)

Stabilizing

95.

Birth weight averages between 6 to 8 pounds. Which type of selection describes birth weight of humans?

a)

Directional

b)

Disruptive

c)

Sexual

d)

Stabilizing

96.

Drought causes an absence of food for medium beaked birds. Which type of selection describes the bird population?

a)

Directional

b)

Disruptive

c)

Sexual

d)

Stabilizing

97.

What is natural selection?

a)

Organism with less favorable traits are more likely to live

b)

Organism with more favorable traits are more likely to live

c)

Nature selects for the less favorable traits

d)

Nature selects against the most favorable traits.

98.

Horse and donkey have unequal number of chromosomes, so the offspring has an odd number of chromosomes and is sterile. What is the fitness of the offspring?

a)

0

b)

1/2

c)

1

d)

Cannot be determined

99.

Evolution produces perfect organisms

a)

True

b)

False

100.

Based on evidence, earth formed…

a)

3.5 billion years ago

b)

3.9 billion years ago

c)

4.3 billion years ago

d)

4.6 billion years ago

101.

Based on evidence, the earliest fossil evidence…

a)

3.5 billion years ago

b)

3.9 billion years ago

c)

4.3 billion years ago

d)

4.6 billion years ago

102.

Based on evidence, the Earth was too hostile for life until…

a)

3.5 billion years ago

b)

3.9 billion years ago

c)

4.3 billion years ago

d)

4.6 billion years ago

103.

Which gas was not present in earth Earth’s atmosphere?

a)

Ammonia

b)

Hydrogen

c)

Methane

d)

Oxygen

104.

Organic compounds could have come to Earth on meteorites.

a)

True

b)

False

105.

The first genetic material was…

a)

Carbohydrate

b)

DNA

c)

Protein

d)

RNA

106.

The environment was too hostile for life until…

a)

4.6 billion years ago

b)

3.9 billion years ago

c)

3.5 billion years ago

107.

How old were the earliest fossils?

a)

4.6 billion years ago

b)

3.9 billion years ago

c)

3.5 billion years ago

108.

When was the earth first formed?

a)

4.6 billion years ago

b)

3.9 billion years ago

c)

3.5 billion years ago

109.

Oxygen was found on primitive earth.

a)

True

b)

False

110.

Which macromolecule is not made of monomers?

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Lipids

c)

Nucleic Acids

d)

Proteins

111.

What is the monomer for nucleic acids?

a)

Amino acids

b)

Fatty acids

c)

Monosaccharides

d)

Nucleotides

112.

What is the monomer for proteins?

a)

Amino acids

b)

Fatty acids

c)

Monosaccharides

d)

Nucleotides

113.

What was the first genetic material?

a)

DNA

b)

Proteins

c)

RNA

114.

What is a phenotype?

a)

Genes

b)

Physical Characteristics

115.

In Darwin's thinking, the more closely related two different organisms are, the

a)

more similar their habitats are.

b)

less similar their DNA sequences are.

c)

more recently they shared a common ancestor.

d)

less likely they are to have the same genes in common.

e)

more similar they are in size.

116.

Which of the following is NOT a method to date fossils?

a)

DNA sequencing

b)

age of rocks where a fossil is found

c)

rate of decay of isotopes including carbon-14

d)

geographical data

117.

The arm of a human, the flipper of a whale, and the wing of a bat all have similar bone structures. Therefore, these parts of the body would all be considered...

a)

homologous structures

b)

vestigial structures

c)

transitional fossils

d)

common ancestors

118.

The tail bone, wisdom teeth, and appendix are all parts of the human anatomy that would be considered...

a)

homologous structures

b)

vestigial structures

c)

fossils

d)

extinct

119.
The diagram above shows an embryo of different vertebrates at different stages of development. Which field of study would support the similarities in development as evidence for evolution?
a)
comparative biochemistry
b)
paleontology
c)
comparative biogeography
d)
comparative embryology
120.

Which constitutes the smallest unit capable of evolution?

a)

an individual

b)

a family unit

c)

a population

d)

a community

121.
Choose which scientist corresponds best with the statement: 
variations within populations
a)
Darwin 
b)
Lamarck
122.
a bird that can easily outcompete other birds for food and that can produce many eggs has a high
a)
sexuality
b)
mutation rate
c)
fitness
d)
adaptability
123.
Which fossil is relatively the oldest?
a)

Trilobite

b)

Ammonite

c)

Crinoid

d)

Gastropod

124.

Which of these structures demonstrate common ancestry?

a)

Analogous structure

b)

Convergent structure

c)

Homologous structure

d)

Nucleotide structure

125.

Extant organisms are…

a)

Ancestors

b)

Current Living

c)

Future Species

126.

Vestigial structures show common ancestry…

a)

True

b)

False

127.

Which is more accurate molecular data?

a)

Amino acid sequence

b)

Nucleotide sequence

128.

What type of rock are fossils found in?

a)

Flintstone

b)

Granite

c)

Igneous

d)

Sedimentary

129.

Homologous structures

a)

Show common descent

b)

Show a convergent event

c)

Are structures that are similar due to similar environments

d)

Are structures that are different due to similar environments

130.

Analogous structures

a)

Show common descent

b)

Show convergent evolution

c)

Shares an ancestral trait

d)

Shares the same body structure

131.

Sugar Glider vs Flying Squirrel

a)

Analogous structure

b)

Embryological structure

c)

Homologous structure

d)

Vestigial structure

132.

Convergent evolution shows common ancestry

a)

True

b)

False

133.

Which level does natural selection act on?

a)

Individual Genotype

b)

Individual Phenotype

c)

Population Genotype

d)

Population Phenotype

134.

What level does natural selection select?

a)

Individual Genotype

b)

Individual Phenotype

c)

Population Genotype

d)

Population Phenotype

135.

What level does natural selection cause change?

a)

Individual Genotype

b)

Individual Phenotype

c)

Population Genotype

d)

Population Phenotype

136.

An individual evolves to better match its environment.

a)

True

b)

False

137.

What does natural selection MODIFY?

a)

Genotype

b)

Phenotype

138.

What does natural selection act on?

Act on means that is selected for or against.

a)

Genotype

b)

Phenotype

139.

What factors would increase the frequency of a genotype in a population over time?

a)

Increased reproduction rates in a population

b)

Selective pressures that make the trait favorable

c)

Genetic drift

d)

Mutations in the population

140.

What is artificial selection?

a)

When humans selectively breed organisms together to select for traits most desirable to us

b)

When a new species has formed

c)

When new organisms migrate into an area and introduce new genes

d)

When organisms are separated from other members of their population due to new geographic barriers

141.

How does genetic drift usually affect a population?

a)

Usually it increases the size of a population

b)

Usually it increases the selective pressures on a population

c)

Usually it decreases the genetic variation of the population

d)

Usually it introduces new genes into a population

142.

What are the two types of genetic drift commonly seen?

a)

Temporal isolation and hybrid sterility

b)

Disruptive selection and convergent evolution

c)

Founder effect and bottleneck effect

d)

Gene flow and artificial selection

143.

According to this cladogram, which animal has the closest common ancestor to a crocodile?

a)

Mammals

b)

Lizards and Snakes

c)

Turtles

d)

Birds

144.

Which species on this cladogram have four walking legs?

a)

Lancelet

b)

Leopards only

c)

All of the species have this trait

d)

Salamander, turtle, leopards

145.

Fossil evidence indicates that horses have gradually increased in size over geologic time.

Which of the following terms best describes this?

a)

artificial selection

b)

directional selection

c)

stabilizing selection

d)

disruptive selection

146.

A certain species of land snail exists as either a cream color or a solid brown color. Intermediate individuals are relatively rare. Which of the following terms best describes this?

a)

artificial selection

b)

directional selection

c)

stabilizing selection

d)

disruptive selection

147.

Which of the following best explains the process of natural selection?

a)

individuals with less favorable phenotypes are more likely to survive and produce less offspring, thus modifying traits for subsequent generations

b)

individuals with more favorable phenotypes are more likely to survive and produce less offspring, thus modifying traits for subsequent generations

c)

individuals with more favorable phenotypes are more likely to survive and produce more offspring, thus passing traits to subsequent generations

d)

individuals with less favorable phenotypes are more likely to survive and produce more offspring, thus passing traits to subsequent generations

148.

Which of the following best explains convergent evolution?

a)

different selective pressures result in similar phenotypic adaptations in different populations or species

b)

similar selective pressures result in similar phenotypic adaptations in different populations or species

c)

similar selective pressures result in different phenotypic adaptations in a population or species

d)

different selective pressures result in similar phenotypic adaptations in a populations or species

149.

Which of the following contrasts punctuated equilibrium and gradualism?

a)

punctuated equilibrium occurs slowly over hundreds of thousands of years while gradualism results in rapid evolution after long period of stasis

b)

punctuated equilibrium results from allopatric speciation while gradualism results from sympatric speciation

c)

punctuated equilibrium results from sympatric speciation while gradualism results from allopatric speciation

d)

punctuated equilibrium results in rapid evolution after long period of stasis while gradualism occurs slowly over hundreds of thousands of years

150.

Peppered moths became darker during the industrial revolution due to the trees becoming darker. What type of selection describes the peppered moth population?

a)

Directional

b)

Disruptive

c)

Sexual

d)

Stabilizing

151.

Birth weight averages between 6 to 8 pounds. Which type of selection describes birth weight of humans?

a)

Directional

b)

Disruptive

c)

Sexual

d)

Stabilizing

152.

Drought causes an absence of food for medium beaked birds. Which type of selection describes the bird population?

a)

Directional

b)

Disruptive

c)

Sexual

d)

Stabilizing

153.

What is natural selection?

a)

Organism with less favorable traits are more likely to live

b)

Organism with more favorable traits are more likely to live

c)

Nature selects for the less favorable traits

d)

Nature selects against the most favorable traits.

154.

The large-scale events of speciation are called...

a)

macroevolution

b)

simplification

c)

adaptation

d)

microevolution

155.

Which of the following is required for a population to diverge into two separate species?

a)

The two populations must have evolved different physical appearances.

b)

The two populations must have mutated at least 10 times.

c)

The two populations must have become reproductively isolated.

d)

The two populations must have evolved analogous structures.

156.

A new river forms and splits two populations, causing ______________ speciation

a)

Sympatric

b)

Allopatric

c)

Extreme

d)

Convergent

157.

A speciation in which new species evolve from a single ancestral species while inhabiting the SAME geographic region.

a)

Sympatric speciation

b)

Allopatric speciation

c)

Complex speciation

d)

Divergent speciation

158.

The emergence of new rivers or streams is a type of ____________ isolation.

a)

Temporal

b)

Mechanical

c)

Behavioral

d)

Geographic

159.

Speciation that caused by breeding occurring at different time of the day is called

a)

behavioral isolation

b)

temporal isolation

c)

ecological isolation

d)

habitat isolation

160.
The evolution of a new species from an existing species is ____.
a)
natural selection
b)
isolation
c)
speciation
d)
genetic variation
161.

Two unrelated species evolve in a way that makes them more similar.

a)

adaptive radiation

b)

microevolution

c)

coevolution

d)

convergent evolution

e)

divergent evolution

162.

Finches on the Galapagos Islands share similar characteristics because they share a common ancestor but have evolved into many different types of species to eat different foods in order to survive. What type of macroevolution is being described?

a)

adaptive radiation

b)

microevolution

c)

coevolution

d)

convergent evolution

e)

divergent evolution

163.

The rapid evolution of a group following its introduction into a new habitat or occupation of newly available niches is called ________________?

a)

adaptive radiation

b)

microevolution

c)

coevolution

d)

convergent evolution

e)

divergent evolution

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