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DP biology revision

Total questions: 153

Worksheet time: 2hrs 32mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The movement of which ion initiates an action potential?

a)

Calcium

b)

Magnesium

c)

Sodium

d)

Potassium

2.

What is the role of active transport in the transmission of nerve impulses by neurones?

a)

Propagates an action potential by pumping sodium ions across the membrane out of the neurone.

b)

Propagates an action potential by pumping sodium ions across the membrane into the neurone.

c)

Initiates the action potential needed for the transmission of an impulse by pumping calcium ions out of the endoplasmic reticulum.

d)

Establishes the resting potential needed for the transmission of an impulse by pumping sodium and potassium ions across the membrane.

3.

In a nerve impulse, what happens at the site following the highest point of the action potential?

a)

Voltage-gated sodium ion channels open and Na+ is pumped in.

b)

Voltage-gated sodium ion channels open and Na+ diffuses out.

c)

Voltage-gated potassium ion channels open and K+ is pumped out.

d)

Voltage-gated potassium ion channels open and K+ diffuses out.

4.

......................... and ................... are parts of central nervous system.

(a)  

5.

Which structural feature enables saltatory conduction?

a)

Na+ channels under Schwann cells

b)

K+ channels under Schwann cells

c)

Nodes of Ranvier between Schwann cells

d)

Sodium–potassium pumps under Schwann cells

6.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

7.

What happens when an action potential reaches motor end plates?

a)

Calcium ions are absorbed by the muscle fibres.

b)

Muscle relaxes.

c)

Neurotransmitter is released.

d)

Action potential is passed to the neuron.

8.
a)

-80 mV

b)

-70 mV

c)

-55 mV

d)

40 mV

9.

What is the function of myelin sheath?

(a)  

10.

Neurotransmitters are released into the synaptic cleft from the presynaptic neuron and travel to a receptor on the postsynaptic neuron membrane. Which processes are required for this to happen?

a)

Release into synaptic cleft: exocytosis Travel to postsynaptic neuron membrane: diffusion

b)

Release into synaptic cleft: active transport Travel to postsynaptic neurone membrane: diffusion

c)

Release into synaptic cleft: exocytosis Travel to postsynaptic neuron membrane: active transport

d)

Release into synaptic cleft: active transport Travel to postsynaptic neuron membrane: active transport

11.

Active transport is moving particles from an area of

a)

Low concentration to high concentration

b)

High concentration to low concentration

12.

Simple diffusion is moving particles from an area of

a)

Low concentration to high concentration

b)

High concentration to low concentration

13.

What is this an example of?

a)

Endocytosis

b)

Exocytosis

14.

What is this an example of?

a)

Endocytosis

b)

Exocytosis

15.

Osmosis is the movement of

a)

Minerals

b)

Oxygen

c)

Water

d)

Waste

16.

Which stage of mitosis is this image?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

17.

Which stage of mitosis is this image?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

18.

Which stage of mitosis is this image?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

19.

Which stage of mitosis is this image?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

20.

Which stage does DNA replication take place?

a)

Interphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Anaphase

21.

________________ explains living processes in terms of the chemical substances involved.

a)

Cellular Biology

b)

Molecular Biology

c)

Genetics

d)

Ecology

22.

Which of the following are insoluble in water?

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Lipids

c)

Proteins

d)

Nucleic Acids

23.

Which of the following is made up of chains of amino acids?

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Lipids

c)

Proteins

d)

Nucleic Acids

24.

Which of the following is composed of C, H, and O?

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Lipids

c)

Proteins

d)

Nucleic Acids

25.

Which of the following contains C, H, O, N, P?

a)

Carbohydrate

b)

Lipid

c)

Protein

d)

Nucleic Acid

26.

Chains that contain fewer than 20 amino acids are typically called _________________?

a)

Polypeptides

b)

Oligopeptides

c)

Monopeptides

d)

Dipeptides

27.

What organelle links the amino acids together?

a)

nucleus

b)

golgi apparatus

c)

ribosomes

d)

endoplasmic reticulum

28.

What kind of bond is formed between two amino acids?

a)

hydrogen bonds

b)

covalent bonds

c)

ionic bonds

d)

peptide bonds

29.

How many amino acids are there?

a)

10

b)

20

c)

30

d)

40

30.

Which of the following is not a function of proteins?

a)

membrane transport

b)

blood clotting

c)

hydrolysis

d)

tensile strengthening

31.

Which of the following can increase enzyme activity as well as decrease it?

a)

Temperature

b)

pH

c)

Substrate concentration

32.

All enzymes have an optimum pH level.

a)

True

b)

False

33.

Which of the following is the enzyme that breaks down lactose?

a)

Sucrase

b)

Lactase

c)

Maltase

d)

Galactase

34.

Does an increase in substrate concentration increase or decrease enzyme activity?

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

35.

Which of the following in not an advantage of immobilizing enzymes in industry settings?

a)

enzyme can easily be separated from products which stops the reaction at the ideal time

b)

enzyme gets used up

c)

increases the stability of enzymes to change in temp and pH

d)

substrates can be exposed to higher enzyme concentration

36.

A polymer of alpha-D-glucose found in plants has mostly 1,4 linkages and some 1,6 linkages. Which molecule fits this description?

a)

glycogen

b)

cellulose

c)

amylose

d)

amylopectin

37.

What type of molecule is shown in this diagram?

a)

trans saturated fatty acid

b)

cis unsaturated fatty acid

c)

cis saturated fatty acid

d)

trans unsaturated fatty acid

38.

Glucose is absorbed through protein channels in the plasma membrane of epithelium cells in the small intestine. Which characteristics of glucose prevent its diffusion through the phospholipid bilayer?

a)

it is non-polar and therefore hydrophobic

b)

its hydrogen bonds link with amino acids in the protein channel

c)

it is polar and therefore hydrophilic

d)

its covalent bonds interact with the phospholipids

39.

What characteristic shows that this steroid molecule is a lipid?

a)

it is made of carbon rings

b)

it has a very low proportion of oxygen to carbon

c)

it contains OH groups as do fatty acids

d)

it is made only of nitrogen, oxygen, and hydrogen

40.

The diagram shows the structure of palmitic acid. What type of fatty acid is palmitic acid?

a)

it is monosaturated

b)

it is polyunsaturated

c)

it is saturated

d)

it is a trans-fatty acid

41.

What is a role of cholesterol in animal cells?

a)

it increases body fat

b)

it controls membrane fluidity

c)

it lines the inner wall of capillaries

d)

it is a constituent of bile

42.

Which molecule diagram corresponds to the name?

a)
b)
c)
d)
43.

Which molecule is a sugar?

a)
b)
c)
d)
44.

What molecule is a polysaccharide?

a)

glucagon

b)

glycose

c)

glycerol

d)

glycogen

45.

Which substance is used for structure in plants?

a)

amylopectin

b)

cellulose

c)

collagen

d)

starch

46.

In which compounds would a double bond link carbon to oxygen (C=O)?


I. amino acid

II. fatty acid

III. glycerol

a)

I and II only

b)

II and III only

c)

I and III only

d)

I, II, and III

47.

That is the maximum number of fatty acids that can be condensed with glycerol?

a)

one

b)

two

c)

three

d)

four

48.

Which described these molecules correctly?

a)

I: ribose II: amino acid

b)

I: glucose II: amino acid

c)

I: ribose II: fatty acid

d)

I: glucose II: fatty acid

49.

Which of the following molecules is ribose?

a)
b)
c)
d)
50.

Which type of chemical reaction is an example of anabolism?

a)

photolysis

b)

combustion

c)

hydrolysis

d)

condensation

51.

What feature of carbon makes it most suitable as a basis for life?

a)

its abundance in nature

b)

its bonding properties

c)

its reactivity to light

d)

its presence in the earthly atmosphere of the earth

52.

Which reaction is an example of catabolism?

a)

photolysis of water

b)

denaturation of a protein by a change in pH

c)

production of maltose from amylose by amylase

d)

condensation of glucose to form starch

53.

Which molecule diagram correctly corresponds to the name?

a)
b)
c)
d)
54.

The diagram shows the structure of palmitic acid.

What type of fatty acid is palmitic acid?

a)

monounsaturated

b)

polyunsaturated

c)

saturated

d)

trans-fatty acid

55.

What characteristic shows that this steroid molecule is a lipid?

a)

It is made of carbon rings.

b)

It has a very low proportion of oxygen to carbon.

c)

It contains OH groups as do fatty acids.

d)

It is made only of nitrogen, oxygen, and hydrogen.

56.

Which molecule can be hydrolyzed? (aka Which is NOT a monomer?)

a)

glycerol

b)

maltose

c)

fructose

d)

galactose

57.

The image shows the structural formula of a molecule.

What is this molecule?

a)

amino acid

b)

ribose

c)

deoxyribose

d)

lactose

58.

Which types of molecules are shown in the diagrams?

a)

Molecule I: amino acid

Molecule II: fatty acid

Molecule III: ribose

b)

Molecule I: glucose

Molecule II: amino acid

Molecule III: fatty acid

c)

Molecule I: ribose

Molecule II: amino acid

Molecule III: fatty acid

d)

Molecule I: fatty acid

Molecule II: glucose

Molecule III: amino acid

59.

What type of molecule is formed by the chemical reaction shown in the diagram?

a)

dipeptide

b)

disaccharide

c)

diglyceride

d)

cellulose

60.

The diagram shows a type of fatty acid. What type of fatty acid is shown?

a)

trans unsaturated

b)

cis unsaturated

c)

trans saturated

d)

cis saturated

61.

The diagram shows two polysaccharides, formed from condensation of many glucose molecules. What are the names of X and Y?

a)

X: glycogen

Y: amylose

b)

X: amylopectin

Y: amylase

c)

X: amylase

Y: glycogen

d)

X: amylose

Y: amylopectin

62.

Which molecule represents a lipid?

a)
b)
c)
d)
63.

Which sugars are examples of a monosaccharide and disaccharide?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

64.

Which are functions of lipids

a)

hydrophilic solvent and energy storage

b)

hydrophobic solvent and membrane potential

c)

thermal insulation and energy storage

d)

thermal insulation and hydrophilic solvent

65.

Which graph represents the change in cell surface area to volume ratio with increasing cell diameter?

a)
b)
c)
d)
66.

Which process(es) occur(s) by osmosis?

a)

I only

b)

I and II only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II and III

67.

Which substance must be transported in the blood by lipoprotein complexes?

a)

Cholesterol

b)

Oxygen

c)

Sodium chloride

d)

Amino acids

68.

What is found in insulin molecules?

a)

Phosphates

b)

Nucleotides

c)

Peptide bonds

d)

Glycerol

69.

The graph shows the results of an investigation into the activity of turnip peroxidase. The accumulation of the product of the reaction catalyzed by the enzyme is shown at different pH values.


Based on the data in the graph, what is most probably the optimum pH for turnip peroxidase?

a)

Between 3 and 5

b)

Between 10 and 11

c)

Between 7 and 8

d)

Between 9 and 10

70.

The table shows concentrations of potassium ions and sodium ions inside and outside human cells.


What explains these concentrations?

a)

Potassium ions diffuse in and sodium ions diffuse out.

b)

Sodium ions diffuse in and potassium ions diffuse out.

c)

Active transport pumps sodium ions in and potassium ions out.

d)

Active transport pumps sodium ions out and potassium ions in.

71.

Where do hydrogen bonds form?

a)

Between the slight negative charge of hydrogen and slight positive charge of oxygen within a water molecule

b)

Between the slight positive charge of hydrogen and slight negative charge of oxygen within a water molecule

c)

Between the slight positive charge of hydrogen and slight negative charge of oxygen in different water molecules

d)

Between the slight negative charge of hydrogen and slight positive charge of oxygen in different water molecules

72.

Which is an essential feature of the Davson–Danielli model of membrane structure?

a)

A phospholipid monolayer with intrinsic and extrinsic proteins

b)

A layer of protein sandwiched between two layers of lipid

c)

A phospholipid bilayer with intrinsic and extrinsic proteins

d)

A layer of lipid sandwiched between two layers of protein

73.

Water has a specific heat capacity of 4.2 J g–1 K–1 at room temperature, a latent heat of vaporization equal to 2257 J g–1, and a boiling point of 100 °C. What are the specific heat capacity, latent heat of vaporization and boiling point of methane?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

74.

What part of the plasma membrane is fluid, allowing the movement of proteins in accordance with the fluid mosaic model?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

75.

What feature of carbon makes it most suitable as a basis for life?

a)

Its abundance in nature

b)

Its bonding properties

c)

Its reactivity to light

d)

Its presence in the early atmosphere of the Earth

76.

Researchers have developed a skin patch which can detect and measure very small concentrations of ions, sugars, amino acids, proteins and hormones which remain when sweat evaporates. What allows the presence of these substances in sweat?

a)

Cohesion

b)

Hydrophobic interactions

c)

Solvent properties

d)

Thermal properties

77.

Which molecule regulates the fluidity of cell membranes?

a)

Phospholipid

b)

Cholesterol

c)

Glycoprotein

d)

Peripheral protein

78.

At room temperature, water is a liquid and methane is a gas. Which molecular property explains this difference?

a)

Higher molecular mass of water

b)

Dipolarity of water

c)

Presence of more hydrogen in methane

d)

Higher boiling point of methane

79.

Which type of transportation happens in the sodium–potassium pump?

a)

Facilitated diffusion

b)

Osmosis

c)

Simple diffusion

d)

Active transport

80.

The salt concentration inside an animal cell is 1.8%. The salt concentration in the surrounding medium becomes 5%. What will be the likely response?

a)

The cell will gain water from the medium.

b)

The cell will lose salt to the medium.

c)

The cell will remain unchanged.

d)

The cell will shrink from loss of water.

81.

In the diagram, which structure is an intrinsic or integral protein?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

82.

In the diagram, which part of the membrane structure does the molecule below form?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

83.

Which molecule could be hydrolyzed into amino acids?

a)
b)
c)
d)
84.

Which property of water accounts for its moderating effects on the Earth’s atmosphere?

a)

Cohesive

b)

Thermal

c)

Transparency

d)

Adhesive

85.

Which evidence falsifies the Davson-Danielli model?

a)

I only

b)

I and II only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II, and III

86.

Glucose is absorbed through protein channels in the plasma membrane of epithelium cells in the small intestine. Which characteristics of glucose prevent its diffusion through the phospholipid bilayer?

a)

It is non-polar and therefore hydrophobic.

b)

Its hydrogen bonds link with amino acids in the protein channel.

c)

It is polar and therefore hydrophilic.

d)

Its covalent bonds interact with the phospholipids.

87.

Which can be explained by the solvent properties of water?

a)

Sodium chloride is transported as Na+ and Cl– in blood.

b)

Movement of water occurs under tension in the xylem.

c)

Water is the coolant in sweat.

d)

Ice floats on liquid water.

88.

The cell membrane model proposed by Davson–Danielli was a phospholipid bilayer sandwiched between two layers of globular protein. Which evidence led to the acceptance of the Singer–Nicolson model?

a)

The orientation of the hydrophilic phospholipid heads towards the proteins

b)

The formation of a hydrophobic region on the surface of the membrane

c)

The placement of integral and peripheral proteins in the membrane

d)

The interactions due to amphipathic properties of phospholipids

89.

The giant marine alga Halicystis ovalis is able to move sodium ions from vacuoles to the surrounding seawater through active transport. Which condition or feature is required for this mode of transport?

a)

Movement from a region of higher sodium concentration to a region of lower sodium concentration

b)

A partially permeable surface

c)

Membrane fluidity

d)

Transmembrane proteins

90.

Which is an effect of protein denaturation?

a)

The order of amino acids is changed when the protein overheats.

b)

The bonds between amino acids are broken by condensation.

c)

Parts of the protein become linked together by hydrolysis.

d)

The three-dimensional structure of the protein is altered.

91.

The diagram is a model of one type of movement across a membrane.


What is this type of movement?

a)

Simple diffusion

b)

Facilitated diffusion

c)

Osmosis

d)

Active transport

92.

The image represents a model of the protein transthyretin.


Which level of structure is indicated by X on the image?

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Tertiary

d)

Quaternary

93.

The diagram shows a plasma membrane. Which molecule is labelled X?

a)

Cholesterol

b)

Glycoprotein

c)

Phospholipid

d)

Amylase

94.

What is osmosis?

a)

The movement of water through a membrane from a low to a high solute concentration

b)

The movement of solutes through a membrane from a high to a low water concentration

c)

The movement of water through a membrane from a high to a low solute concentration

d)

The movement of solutes through a membrane from a low to a high water concentration

95.

What are the most frequently occurring elements in living organisms?

a)

calcium, phosphorus, iron and sodium

b)

calcium, sodium, nitrogen and phosphorus

c)

carbon, phosphorus, oxygen and nitrogen

d)

nitrogen, carbon, oxygen and hydrogen

96.

Which describes the role of amino acids in the channels of membrane proteins used for facilitated diffusion?

a)

Polar amino acids create a channel through which hydrophilic molecules can pass.

b)

Polar amino acids create a channel through which hydrophobic molecules can pass.

c)

Non-polar amino acids create a channel through which hydrophilic molecules can pass.

d)

Non-polar amino acids create a channel through which hydrophobic molecules can pass.

97.

What property of water makes it suitable as a coolant?

a)

It takes a lot of energy to increase the temperature of water.

b)

It takes a lot of energy for water to evaporate.

c)

Water molecules are cohesive and stick to the skin.

d)

Water is a good solvent so it can transport heat from the body.

98.

What happens to the cell surface area to volume ratio as a cell grows?

a)

It decreases, so production of waste material is reduced.

b)

It increases, so mineral ion absorption is increased.

c)

It increases, so osmosis is reduced.

d)

It decreases, so rate of gas exchange is too low.

99.

Which type of RNA is a copy of a gene used to encode a polypeptide?

a)

mRNA

b)

tRNA

c)

rRNA

100.

The synthesis of mRNA copied from the DNA base sequence is known as

a)

transcription

b)

translation

c)

replication

101.

The enzyme that binds to a site on the DNA, separates the strands, and covalently bonds ribonucleside triphosphates opposite their complementary partner is

a)

RNA Polymerase

b)

DNA Polymerase

c)

DNA Helicase

d)

RNA Primase

102.

The nucleotides are aligned with their complementary partners on which strand of DNA?

a)

DNA antisense strand

b)

DNA sense strand

103.

Which region of DNA is edited out of mRNA and recycled into nucleotides?

a)

introns

b)

exons

104.

The sequence of DNA that serves as the attachment point for RNA polymerase is called what?

a)

promoter

b)

enhancer

c)

silencer

105.

What is the name of the key chemical group that can be added to DNA to inhibit transcription?

a)

methyl group

b)

acetyl group

c)

study group

d)

phosphate group

106.

State the direction of transcription

a)

5' --> 3'

b)

3' --> 5'

107.
Which of the following would be a nucleotide found in DNA
a)
Ribose + phosphate + uracil
b)
Deoxyribose + phosphate + uracil  
c)
Deoxyribose + phosphate + adenine
d)
Ribose + phosphate + adenine
108.
An RNA molecule is
a)
double helix
b)
always double stranded
c)
usually double stranded
d)
single stranded
109.
What is the correct sequence?
a)
RNA --> DNA --> Protein
b)
Protein --> RNA --> DNA
c)
DNA --> RNA --> Protein
d)
DNA --> Protein --> RNA
110.
Where does transcription take place?
a)
nucleus
b)
cytoplasm
c)
ribosome
111.
Which RNA bases would pair with TACGAA in transcription? 
a)
AUGCUU
b)
ATGCTT
c)
GCATCC
d)
GCAUCC
112.
What is the difference between DNA and RNA in terms of bases?
a)
RNA contains uracil in place of thymine
b)
RNA contains uracil in place of adenine
c)
RNA contains uracil in place of guanine
d)
RNA contains uracil in place of  cytosine
113.
What are the three components of a nucleotide?
a)
sugar, hydrogen, nitrogen base
b)
sugar, oxygen, nitrogen base
c)
sugar, phosphate, nitrogen base
d)
sugar, phosphate, protein
114.

Which is responsible for synthesizing bile?

a)

Gall bladder

b)

Large intestine

c)

Stomach

d)

Liver

115.

Which is/are the most potent greenhouse gases?

a)

Water vapour

b)

Carbon dioxide

c)

Methane

d)

Nitrous oxide

116.

What is the target of leptin?

a)

Medulla

b)

Pancreas

c)

Hypothalamus

d)

Adipose tissue

117.

Which statement is/are true regarding active transport?

a)

Uses a protein pump

b)

ATP required

c)

Down a concentration gradient

d)

Against a concentration gradient

e)

Specific protein channel

118.

When an animal cell is placed in a hypertonic solution, what happens?

a)

The cell becomes turgid

b)

The cell lyses

c)

Nothing happens

d)

The cell shrivels

119.

When does crossing over occur?

a)

Prophase I

b)

Metaphase I

c)

Prophase II

d)

Metaphase II

120.

Which organelle is responsible for synthesising proteins that function within the cell?

a)

Golgi apparatus

b)

SER

c)

RER

d)

Ribosomes

121.

Which is the BEST evidence for evolution?

a)

Gene comparison

b)

Protein comparison

c)

Homologous structure comparison

d)

Fossil record

122.

Which is NOT evidence for endosymbiotic theory? Mitochondria have:

a)

80S ribosomes

b)

Double membrane

c)

Circular DNA

d)

Divides by binary fission

123.

Who created the Sandwich Model for the plasma membrane?

a)

Davson and Danielli

b)

Singer and Nicholson

c)

Watson and Crick

d)

Urey and Miller

124.

What is the probabilty of a child inheriting the dominant trait if both parents are heterozygous?

a)

100%

b)

75%

c)

50%

d)

25%

125.

AB blood type means that:

a)

The cell has A and B antibodies

b)

The cell has A antigens and B antibodies

c)

The cell has A antibodies and B antigens

d)

The cell has A and B antigens

126.

In PCR, denaturation means:

a)

Polymerization using Taq polymerase

b)

The adding of the primer

c)

The breaking of hydrogen bonds between dsDNA

d)

The increase in temperature

127.

How does peat form?

a)

Partially fossilized organic matter

b)

Incompletely digested organic matter due to acidic and anaerobic conditions

c)

Saprotrophs breaking down organic matter in waterlogged conditions

d)

When fossil fuels are burned in incomplete combustion

128.

The creation of mRNA from an antisense strand is called:

a)

DNA replication

b)

Transcription

c)

Translation

d)

Transpiration

129.

Which statement(s) is/are true?

a)

Cellulose contains alpha and beta glucose

b)

Amylopectin contains alpha glucose

c)

Sucrose is made up of glucose and fructose

d)

Starch is digested by glucase

e)

Amylose contains alpha 1-6 glycosidic bonds

130.

A phospholipid:

a)

Contains three fatty acids

b)

is amphiphatic

c)

has a glycerol polar head

d)

is a type of saturated lipid

131.

After travelling the body, blood enters the heart via:

a)

Aorta

b)

Pulmonary vein

c)

Pulmonary artery

d)

Vena cava

132.

A clot that blocks the blood vessel is called:

a)

Emphysema

b)

Atheroschlerosis

c)

CHD

d)

Thrombosis

133.

Plasma cells will most have a lot of:

a)

Golgi apparatus

b)

RER

c)

Nuclei

d)

Lysosomes

134.

Which of the following is the correct sequence of the four phases of mitiosis?

a)

prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase

b)

anaphase prophase, metaphase, telophase

c)

prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

d)

prophase, metaphase, telophase, anaphase

135.

  1. How did Pasteur’s experiment with sterile broth in open flasks demonstrate the principle that cells only come from pre-existing cells?

a)

  1. By demonstrating that sterile broth would not ferment in contact with air alone.

b)

  1. By demonstrating that the air contained microbes.

c)

  1. By demonstrating that broth would not ferment if sterile.

d)

  1. By demonstrating that sterile broth fermented in contact with air

136.

  1. Emergent properties are found in some biological systems. Which of the following properties is necessary for emergent properties to occur?

a)

  1. The system Is evolving

b)

  1. The system is complex

c)

  1. Cells or tissues are differentiated

d)

  1. Cells or tissues interact to function as a unit

137.

  1. Which of the following are properties of cholesterol found in plasma membranes?


  2. I. Reduces permeability of the membrane to hydrophilic ions

  3. II. Acts as a channel for ion movement

    III. It is amphipathic

    IV. Reduces fluidity of the membrane

a)

  1. I and III only

b)

  1. II and IV only

c)

  1. I and IV only

d)

I, III and IV only  

138.

  1. Which of the following are properties of phospholipids

    1. I They have a hydrophilic phosphate head

    2. II they form a bilayer in water

    3. III They are amphipathic

    4. IV They have a hydrophobic fatty acid region

a)

  1. All of the above

b)

  1. II and IV only

c)

  1. I and II only

d)

  1. I, II and IV only

139.

Carbon is the basis of biological polymers because

I It can form chains by bonding to other carbon atoms

II It is found in carbohydrates

III It can form four covalent bonds

a)

I only

b)

I and II only

c)

I and III only

d)

I, II and III

140.

Hydrogen bonding between water molecules is important in living systems because

I It makes water cohesive

II It gives water a high specific heat capacity

III It makes water transparent

IV It helps water to be a good solvent for polar molecules

a)

I and III only

b)

II and IV only

c)

I and II only

d)

I, II and IV only

141.

Crick and Watson elucidated the structure of DNA using which of the following?

a)

Model making

b)

Gel Electrophoresis

c)

X-ray crystallography

d)

Condensation reactions

142.

Which of the following can cause new alleles to form and may lead to genetic diseases?

a)

  1. Mitosis

b)

  1. Meiosis

c)

  1. Radiation

d)

  1. Variation

143.

Which of the following best defines the term, “gene”?

a)

  1. a heritable factor that consists of a length of DNA and influences many characteristics.

b)

  1. a heritable factor that consists of a length of mRNA and influences many characteristics.

c)

  1. a heritable factor that consists of a length of DNA and influences a specific characteristic

d)

a heritable factor that consists of a length of mRNA and influences a specific characteristic.

144.

What is the main biological use of comparisons of the number of genes between species?

a)


It provides information about the size of the nucleus.

b)

It provides information about how closely related different species are

c)

It gives information about the amount of DNA a species has

d)

It gives information about the number of genetic diseases in different species

145.

What is the difference between prokaryote and eukaryote chromosomes?

a)

  1. Prokaryotes have a number of circular DNA molecules while eukaryotes have a single linear DNA molecule.

b)

The prokaryote chromosome is a single circular DNA molecule while eukaryotes have a number of linear DNA molecules

c)

  1. The prokaryote chromosome is made from plasmid molecules while eukaryotes have a number of linear DNA molecules.

d)

  1. Prokaryotes have a number of circular DNA molecules and eukaryotes have a single linear DNA molecule.

146.

The roundworm (Caenorhabditis elegans) has a diploid chromosome number of 12. How many chromosomes would be in a haploid roundworm cell?

a)

24

b)

12

c)

6

d)

None of the above

147.

An endemic species best described as a species that is found

a)

  1. On an island

b)

  1. In a certain geographical area

c)

  1. Breeding with other species

d)

  1. After speciation

148.

Analogous structures are similar because of

a)

  1. Common ancestry

b)

  1. Identical appearance

c)

  1. Convergent evolution

d)

  1. Artificial selection

149.

Speciation can occur when

  1. Two species interbreed

  2. Geographical isolation occurs

  3. Two populations cohabit the same area but do not interbreed

a)

I only

b)

1 and II only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II and III

150.

The characteristics that develop during the lifetime of an individual are

a)

  1. Heritable

b)

  1. Inherited

c)

  1. Acquired

d)

  1. Learnt

151.

The binomial system of nomenclatures used by scientist is

a)

  1. A means of classifying species

b)

  1. An international system of nomenclature

c)

  1. To avoid confusion in translation from different languages

d)

  1. In order to give names to new species

152.

In cladistics, reclassification is most likely to occur when

a)

  1. New organisms are discovered

b)

  1. Evidence of evolutionary relationships are discovered

c)

  1. Biologists decide that a binomial name is incorrect

d)

  1. Morphology changes

153.

The hierarchy of taxa used to classify eukaryotes, from the group containing the highest number of species is …

a)

  1. Kingdom, Family, Class, Order, Phylum, Genus, Species

b)

  1. Three domains of life containing many Phyla

c)

  1. Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species

d)

  1. Groups of Phyla with increasing numbers of species

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