Free Printable BIOL 1406 Study Guide

1.

The proteins _________ work together to free the transcription factor that is bound by the retinoblastoma protein.

a)

p53 and p21

b)

cyclin dependent kinase and p53

c)

cyclin and E2F

d)

cyclin and cyclin dependent kinase

2.

Mutated forms of the Rb protein

a)

do not bind to E2F thereby inhibiting cell division.

b)

bind to E2F but have no effect on cell division.

c)

do not bind to E2F thereby promoting uncontrolled cell division.

d)

bind to E2F thereby inhibiting cell division.

3.

The protein ________ checks for damaged DNA, thereby acting as a "quality control" for the cell.

a)

E2F

b)

Cyclin Dependent Kinase

c)

p53

d)

p21

4.

Which mutation would allow the cell to divide when it should not, and could possibly lead to cancer?

a)

A mutation causing p53 to activate p21, even when it is not necessary.

b)

A mutation causing p21 to remain active, even in the absence of a signal from p53.

c)

None of these will lead to cell proliferation.

d)

A mutation preventing cyclin from interacting with CDK.

5.

Which mutation would allow the cell to pass the G1 checkpoint when it should not?

a)

A mutation in Rb, preventing it from dissociating with E2F

b)

A mutation in Rb, preventing it from associating with E2F

c)

A mutation in cyclin, preventing it from associating with CDK

d)

A mutation in CDK, preventing in from phosphorylating Rb

6.

Which of the following represents the correct order of the phases of the cell cycle?

a)

G1 -> G2 -> S -> M

b)

G1 -> G2 -> M -> S

c)

G1 -> S -> G2 -> M

d)

G1 -> S -> M -> G2

7.

The division of the cytoplasm is called:

a)

Cytoplasmic division

b)

Cellular division

c)

Nuclear division

d)

Cytokinesis

8.

Which statement about mitosis and cytokinesis is TRUE?

a)

At the end of mitosis there are two daughter cells with a normal complement of diploid genetic material.

b)

At the end of mitosis there are two daughter cells with half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell.

c)

At the end of cytokinesis there are two daughter cells with half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell.

d)

At the end of cytokinesis there are two daughter cells with a normal complement of diploid genetic material.

9.

What stage of the cell cycle do most cells spend the majority of their time?

a)

G2 phase of interphase

b)

M phase of mitosis

c)

S phase of interphase

d)

G1 phase of interphase

10.

Which molecule is produced in the highest quantity during the G2 phase?

a)

rRNA

b)

Tubulin, the microtubule protein

c)

Ca2+ pump proteins

d)

DNA Polymerase

11.

Which of the following events do NOT occur in prophase of mitosis?

a)

the nuclear membrane breaks down

b)

DNA condenses to form chromosomes

c)

chromosomes are replicated

d)

mitotic spindle begins to form

12.

Which of the following statements about microtubules during anaphase is TRUE?

a)

those attached to chromosomes elongate, while those that are unattached shorten

b)

both attached and unattached microtubules elongate

c)

both attached and unattached microtubules elongate at first and then shorten

d)

those attached to chromosomes shorten, while those that are unattached elongate

13.

The structure that divides the bacterial cell in two is termed the

a)

Cleavage Furrow

b)

Fission Line

c)

Cell Plate

d)

Cross Septum

14.

How many generations does it take for a single bacterial cell to become 256?

a)

5

b)

6

c)

7

d)

8

e)

9

15.

In bacterial cell division, the cell divides into two nearly equal halves. This process is referred to as:

a)

Binary Fission

b)

Mitosis

c)

Meiosis

d)

Bacterial Fission

16.

Fitting the very long DNA strands from a chromosome into the limited space of the nucleus is achieved by coiling the DNA around beads of histones with repeating subunits. These DNA-wrapped histones are called:

a)

Solenoids

b)

Nucleosomes

c)

Chromatin Loops

d)

Rosettes

17.

The number of chromosomes in diploid eukaryotic cells:

a)

is 46!

b)

Can be predicted by the size of the organism

c)

is 23!

d)

Varies from 2 to over 1000 in different species

18.

A person whose cells all contain chromosomes with a number '2n+1' are most likely to have what type of condition?

a)

Monosomy

b)

Trisomy

c)

Cancer

d)

None, this is normal

19.

Histones are:

a)

proteins that double-stranded DNA molecules wrap around in eukaryotes.

b)

proteins that double-stranded DNA molecules wrap around in prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

c)

proteins that proteins that serve as the spindle fiber to pull sister chromatids apart during anaphase. checkpoints in the mitotic cell cycle.

d)

Proteins that required for the activity of CDK enzymes

20.

The two copies of each type of chromosome found in normal somatic (body) cells in an organism, throughout the cell cycle, are called:

a)

Sister Chromatids

b)

Homologous Chromosomes

c)

Daughter Chromosomes

d)

Kinetochores

21.

A cell biologist produces a karyotype of mouse somatic cells arrested in mitosis. She sees 40 chromosomes, which is completely normal for mice. Based on this information, what is the haploid number of chromosomes for mice?

a)

10

b)

20

c)

40

d)

80

22.

If there are 32 sister chromatids in a normal somatic cell, what is the haploid number for that cell?

a)

8

b)

16

c)

32

d)

64

23.

If a cell has 32 chromosomes prior to S and undergoes mitosis followed by cytokinesis, each new daughter cell will have how many chromosomes?

a)

64

b)

32

c)

16

d)

8

24.

This is the stage of mitosis characterized by the alignment of the chromosomes in a ring along the inner circumference of the cell:

a)

Prophase

b)

Prometaphase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Anaphase

25.

The stage of mitosis characterized by the physical separation of sister chromatids is called:

a)

Prophase

b)

Prometaphase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Anaphase

e)

Telophase

26.

This stage of mitosis is characterized by the disassembly of spindle apparatus, the reestablishment of the nuclear membrane, and the decondensation of the chromosomes:

a)

Prophase

b)

Prometaphase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Anaphase

e)

Telophase

27.

Synapsis of homologous chromosomes and crossing-over take place during _____.

a)

Anaphase I of meiosis

b)

Prophase I of meiosis

c)

Metaphase I of mitosis

d)

Telophase I of meiosis

28.

Chromosomes line up in pairs along the _____ plate during _____.

a)

metaphase

b)

metaphase; metaphase I

c)

metaphase;

anaphase I

d)

anaphase;

metaphase I

29.

The two members of each homologous pair are pulled to opposite poles of the cell while sister chromatids remain attached during _____.

a)

Telophase I

b)

Metaphase I

c)

Anaphase I

d)

Prophase I

30.

Nuclear envelopes reform around two separate haploid nuclei during _____.

a)

Telophase II

b)

Cytokinesis

c)

Telophase I

d)

DNA replication

31.

A new spindle apparatus begins to form in two separate haploid cells during _____.

a)

Prophase I

b)

Prophase II

c)

Metaphase I

d)

Metaphase II

32.

Unpaired chromosomes line up along the metaphase plate during _____.

a)

Prophase II

b)

Metaphase II

c)

Anaphase II

d)

Telophase II

e)

Cytokenisis

33.

Sister chromatids separate and are pulled to opposite poles of the cell during _____.

a)

Prophase II

b)

Metaphase II

c)

Anaphase II

d)

Telophase II

34.

Nuclear envelopes reform around four separate haploid nuclei during _____.

a)

Prophase II

b)

Metaphase II

c)

Anaphase II

d)

Telophase II

35.

Which of the following is not haploid?

a)

A daughter cell after meiosis II

b)

A cell in metaphase II

c)

A cell in prophase I

d)

A cell in prophase II

36.

Centromeres divide in:

a)

Mitosis and Meiosis I

b)

Mitosis and Meiosis II

c)

Meiosis II only

d)

Meiosis I and Meiosis II

37.

Which of the following describes meiosis II in humans?

a)

4N -> 2N

b)

2N -> 2N

c)

2N -> 1N

d)

1N -> 1N

e)

1N -> 2N

38.

Arrange the following events in the proper order in which they occur during meiosis I.
1 = Separation of homologous chromosomes
2 = Synapsis
3 = Crossing over
4 = Independent assortment

a)

2, 3, 4, 1

b)

1, 2, 3, 4

c)

4, 3, 2, 1

d)

3, 2, 1, 4

39.

In germline cells, when does DNA replicate?

a)

M phase

b)

S phase

c)

G1 phase

d)

G2 phase

40.

If crossing over occurs between two chromatids on a single pair of homologous chromosomes, how many gametes will have a recombinant phenotype?

a)

1 of 4

b)

3 of 4

c)

none of them

d)

2 of 4

41.

A crossover in meiosis is an exchange of genetic material between:

a)

sister chromatids of the same chromosome.

b)

sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes.

c)

sister chromatids of non-homologous chromosomes.

d)

non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes.

42.

A tetrad is made up

a)

four non-homologous chromatids.

b)

four homologous chromosomes.

c)

two homologous chromosomes.

d)

two homologous chromosomes, each consisting of two chromatids.

43.

Which of the following statements about crossing over is TRUE?

a)

It occurs only in males.

b)

It occurs only in some chromosomes.

c)

It occurs only between genes that are heterozygous.

d)

It results in reduced genetic variation among gametes.

e)

All of these are false statements.

44.

Which of the following features are unique to meiosis?

a)

Homologous recombination

b)

Reduction division

c)

Synapsis and homologous recombination

d)

Synapsis, homologous recombination, and reduction division

45.

A crossover in meiosis is an exchange of genetic material between:

a)

non-sister chromatids of non-homologous chromosomes.

b)

sister chromatids of non-homologous chromosomes.

c)

non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes.

d)

sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes.

46.

The four daughter cells produced in meiosis:

a)

are diploid just like the parent cell.

b)

have double the number of chromosomes as the parent cell.

c)

have one-fourth the number of chromosomes of the parent cell.

d)

have one of each pair of chromosomes found in the parent cell.

47.

Crossing over is possible due to which event that occurs in meiosis I but not mitosis?

a)

Synapsis

b)

Reduction Division

c)

Nondisjunction

d)

Independent assortment

48.

Daughter cells produced in meiosis have

a)

half the number of chromosomes as daughter cells produced in mitosis.Correct

b)

twice the number of chromosomes as daughter cells produced in mitosis.

c)

the same number of chromosomes as daughter cells produced in mitosis.

d)

one-fourth the number of chromosomes as daughter cells produced in mitosis.

49.

The number of cells produced in meiosis is:

a)

one-fourth the number of cells produced in mitosis.

b)

equal to the number of cells produced in mitosis.

c)

twice the number of cells produced in mitosis.

d)

half the number of cells produced in mitosis.

50.

Which of the following is unique to meiosis?

a)

Nuclear membrane breaks down

b)

DNA organizes into chromosomes

c)

Crossing-over

d)

Chromosomes align along the central plate of the cell

51.

True or False?

Chromosome duplication occurs prior to both mitosis and meiosis.

a)

False

b)

True

52.

According to Mendel’s Principle of Segregation:

a)

each individual has two separate alleles controlling each trait.

b)

heterozygous individuals have one dominant allele and one recessive allele.

c)

the two alleles at each gene locus separate during gamete formation.

d)

each allele pair separates independently of all other allele pairs.

53.

In humans, the allele for dimples (D) is dominant to the allele for no dimples (d). At another gene locus, the allele for broad eyebrows (B) is dominant to the allele for slender eyebrows (b). These two allele pairs assort independently. A male who is heterozygous for both traits and a female who has no dimples and who is heterozygous at the gene locus controlling eyebrow width have children.

The genotype of the man is ____.

a)

DdBb

b)

DDBB

c)

ddbb

d)

DdBB

54.

In humans, the allele for dimples (D) is dominant to the allele for no dimples (d). At another gene locus, the allele for broad eyebrows (B) is dominant to the allele for slender eyebrows (b). These two allele pairs assort independently. A male who is heterozygous for both traits and a female who has no dimples and who is heterozygous at the gene locus controlling eyebrow width have children.

The genotype of the woman is ____.

a)

DDBb

b)

ddbb

c)

DdBB

d)

ddBb

55.

In humans, the allele for dimples (D) is dominant to the allele for no dimples (d). At another gene locus, the allele for broad eyebrows (B) is dominant to the allele for slender eyebrows (b). These two allele pairs assort independently. A male who is heterozygous for both traits and a female who has no dimples and who is heterozygous at the gene locus controlling eyebrow width have children.

The probability that their first child will have dimples is ____.

a)

1/4

b)

1/2

c)

1/8

d)

1/16

56.

In humans, the allele for dimples (D) is dominant to the allele for no dimples (d). At another gene locus, the allele for broad eyebrows (B) is dominant to the allele for slender eyebrows (b). These two allele pairs assort independently. A male who is heterozygous for both traits and a female who has no dimples and who is heterozygous at the gene locus controlling eyebrow width have children.

The probability that their first child will have dimples and slender brows is ____.

a)

1/4

b)

1/2

c)

1/8

d)

1/16

57.

According to Mendel’s Principle of Independent Assortment:

a)

each individual has two alleles controlling a given trait.

b)

dominant alleles assort independently of recessive alleles.

c)

the two alleles at each gene locus segregate during gamete formation.

d)

each pair of alleles segregates independently of the other allele pairs.

58.

A mouse is heterozygous at four different gene loci, with a genotype of AaBbCcDd. For each gene locus, the upper case letter represents the dominant allele and the lower case letter represents the recessive allele. These four allele pairs follow Mendel's principle of independent assortment.

The probability that a gamete produced by this mouse will have one "A" allele is __.

a)

1/8

b)

1/4

c)

3/4

d)

1/2

59.

A mouse is heterozygous at four different gene loci, with a genotype of AaBbCcDd. For each gene locus, the upper case letter represents the dominant allele and the lower case letter represents the recessive allele. These four allele pairs follow Mendel's principle of independent assortment.

The probability that a gamete produced by this mouse will have two "A" alleles is __.

a)

1/8

b)

1/4

c)

0

d)

1/2

e)

3/4

60.

A mouse is heterozygous at four different gene loci, with a genotype of AaBbCcDd. For each gene locus, the upper case letter represents the dominant allele and the lower case letter represents the recessive allele. These four allele pairs follow Mendel's principle of independent assortment.

The probability that a gamete produced by this mouse will have one "A" allele and one "B" allele is __.

a)

1/8

b)

1/4

c)

0

d)

1/2

e)

3/4

61.

A mouse is heterozygous at four different gene loci, with a genotype of AaBbCcDd. For each gene locus, the upper case letter represents the dominant allele and the lower case letter represents the recessive allele. These four allele pairs follow Mendel's principle of independent assortment.

The probability that a gamete produced by this mouse will have all four dominant alleles (ABCD) is __.

a)

1/8

b)

1/16

c)

3/16

d)

9/16

e)

3/4

62.

When a single trait is affected by more than one gene locus, this is called ____.

a)

Polygenic inheritance

b)

Pleiotropy

c)

Multiple Alleles

d)

Incomplete Dominance

e)

Co-dominance

63.

When a single gene locus affects more than one trait, this is called ____.

a)

Polygenic inheritance

b)

Pleiotropy

c)

Multiple Alleles

d)

Incomplete Dominance

e)

Co-dominance

64.

When a single gene locus has more than two possible alleles, this is called ____.

a)

Polygenic inheritance

b)

Pleiotropy

c)

Multiple Alleles

d)

Incomplete Dominance

e)

Co-dominance

65.

A and B are independent events. The probability that A will happen is 1/41/4 and the probability that B will happen is also 1/41/4 . What is the probability they will both happen?

a)

1/8

b)

1/2

c)

1/32

d)

1/16

66.

In mice, the allele for black fur is dominant to the allele for brown fur. A male homozygous black mouse is crossed with a female brown mouse, and the F1F1 offspring are allowed to breed. What proportion of the black mice in the F2F2 offspring do you predict will be homozygous?

a)

1/3

b)

3/4

c)

1/4

d)

2/3

67.

In humans, brown eyes are dominant to blue eyes. If a blue-eyed man has children with a brown-eyed woman whose mother has blue eyes, what is the expected genotypic ratio among the offspring?

a)

1:1 for Bb (brown-eyed) and bb (blue-eyed)

b)

4:1 for Bb (brown-eyed) and bb (blue-eyed)

c)

3:1 for Bb (brown-eyed) and bb (blue-eyed)

d)

2:1 for Bb (brown-eyed) and bb (blue-eyed)

68.

At one gene locus in humans, there are 2 alleles: one for curly hair and another for straight hair. Neither allele is dominant, and heterozygous individuals have wavy hair. At a second gene locus, 3 alleles control ABO blood type. The alleles at these 2 gene loci assort independently. A male with straight hair and A blood has children with a female with wavy hair and B blood. Their first child has straight hair and O blood.

What is the probability that their next child will have wavy hair and blood type AB?

a)

1/24

b)

1/6

c)

1/8

d)

3/16

69.

Cystic fibrosis is an inherited disease that affects breathing and digestion. It is caused by a single recessive allele. Two parents without cystic fibrosis have a child who has cystic fibrosis. What is the probability that their third child will be a male with cystic fibrosis?

a)

1/4

b)

1/16

c)

1/2

d)

1/8

70.

The effect of genetic drift is much more significant in _________blank populations.

a)

small

b)

isolated

c)

large

d)

urban

BIOL 1406 Study Guide - Chapter 10, 11, 12

Total questions: 70

Worksheet time: 35mins

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