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Biology Final Review Semester 1

Total questions: 156

Worksheet time: 2hrs 57mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Modern scientists continue the tradition of the Greek philosophers in their efforts to understand the world around them. They know that the universe consists of objects, organisms, and processes that interact in many different ways, and proper scientific methods can help this understanding. Which two statements state goals of science?

a)

A goal of science is to use observation, evidence, and experimental testing to understand phenomena in the natural and supernatural world.

b)

A goal of science is to generate testable explanations for events in the natural world.

c)

A goal of science is to use the best available tools and methods to gather evidence and conduct experiments that can define and support a permanent database of scientific facts.

d)

A goal of science is to make useful predictions about natural events, and to understand patterns in nature by using explanations supported by data.

2.

Scientific methodology is a general style of investigation in which scientists make ______ about the world around them.

a)

observations

b)

hypotheses

c)

controlled experiments

d)

ask questions

3.

Scientists ________ to make inferences and form hypotheses.

a)

observations

b)

hypotheses

c)

controlled experiments

d)

ask questions

4.

Scientists ask questions to make inferences and form ________.

a)

observations

b)

hypotheses

c)

controlled experiments

d)

ask questions

5.

Scientists conduct _________ which include a control group to serve as a basis for comparison.

a)

hypotheses

b)

observations

c)

data

d)

controlled experiments

6.

Scientists conduct controlled experiments which include a ________ to serve as a basis for comparison.

a)

independent variable

b)

control group

c)

dependent variable

d)

controlled experiments

7.

Scientists conduct controlled experiments which include a control group to serve as a basis for comparison and include _______ that can be changed.

a)

an independent variable

b)

control group

c)

a dependent variable

d)

controlled experiments

8.

___________ responds to change.

a)

An independent variable

b)

A control group

c)

A dependent variable

d)

Controlled experiments

9.

Scientists collect and analyze __________ and draw conclusions

a)

observations

b)

data

c)

hypotheses

d)

controlled experiments

10.

Kari is testing the hypothesis that plants rely on photosynthesis to grow. She conducts an experiment in which she observes the sprouting and growth of bean seeds. The beans are raised either in sunlight or darkness. She records her observations in a data table.

Which statements from Kari’s records convey qualitative data, and not quantitative data? Choose all that apply.

a)

The beans in the control group have a white spot on day 2.

b)

The beans in the control group have 1.0 centimeter sprouts on day 3.

c)

The beans in the control group feel soft on day 2.

d)

The beans of both groups appear equally green and healthy on day 1.

11.

In actual physical experiments, scientists must ________ carefully and avoid errors in data collection and analysis.

a)

revise

b)

hypothesis

c)

avoid errors

d)

select equipment

e)

sample size

12.

In actual physical experiments, scientists must select equipment carefully and _____________ in data collection and analysis.

a)

revise

b)

hypothesis

c)

avoid errors

d)

select equipment

e)

sample size

13.

There is variation in nature, so the larger the __________, the more accurately researchers can determine dissimilarities within each group, and analyze variances between experimentals and controls.

a)

revise

b)

hypothesis

c)

avoid errors

d)

statistical analysis

e)

sample size

14.

When interpreting data, researchers use ____________ to decide if an experimental treatment is significantly different from the control group.

a)

revise

b)

hypothesis

c)

avoid errors

d)

statistical analysis

e)

sample size

15.

When drawing conclusions, the ___________ being tested may either be supported, or refuted and revised to be tested again.

a)

revised

b)

hypothesis

c)

avoid errors

d)

statistical analysis

e)

sample size

16.

When drawing conclusions, the hypothesis being tested may either be supported, or refuted and ___________ to be tested again.

a)

revised

b)

hypothesis

c)

avoid errors

d)

statistical analysis

e)

sample size

17.

You are asked to explain the difference between a hypothesis, theory, and scientific law, which are terms used when discussing experiments, research, and scientific methodology. You know that each term has a distinct meaning, and the terms are not interchangeable. Match the descriptive phrase to the correct term.


Do not become laws.

a)

theory

b)

hypothesis

c)

scientific law

18.

You are asked to explain the difference between a hypothesis, theory, and scientific law, which are terms used when discussing experiments, research, and scientific methodology. You know that each term has a distinct meaning, and the terms are not interchangeable. Match the descriptive phrase to the correct term.


Tentative scientific explanation that can be tested by further observation or by experimentation.

a)

theory

b)

hypothesis

c)

scientific law

19.

You are asked to explain the difference between a hypothesis, theory, and scientific law, which are terms used when discussing experiments, research, and scientific methodology. You know that each term has a distinct meaning, and the terms are not interchangeable. Match the descriptive phrase to the correct term.


Well-tested explanation for a range of phenomena.

a)

theory

b)

hypothesis

c)

scientific law

20.

You are asked to explain the difference between a hypothesis, theory, and scientific law, which are terms used when discussing experiments, research, and scientific methodology. You know that each term has a distinct meaning, and the terms are not interchangeable. Match the descriptive phrase to the correct term.


May still be useful even when evidence doesn't support it.

a)

theory

b)

hypothesis

c)

scientific law

21.

You are asked to explain the difference between a hypothesis, theory, and scientific law, which are terms used when discussing experiments, research, and scientific methodology. You know that each term has a distinct meaning, and the terms are not interchangeable. Match the descriptive phrase to the correct term.


Ideally should be tested by an experiment in which only one variable is changed.

a)

theory

b)

hypothesis

c)

scientific law

22.

You are asked to explain the difference between a hypothesis, theory, and scientific law, which are terms used when discussing experiments, research, and scientific methodology. You know that each term has a distinct meaning, and the terms are not interchangeable. Match the descriptive phrase to the correct term.


Concise, specific descriptions of how some aspects of the natural world are expected to behave in a certain situation.

a)

theory

b)

hypothesis

c)

scientific law

23.

You are asked to explain the difference between a hypothesis, theory, and scientific law, which are terms used when discussing experiments, research, and scientific methodology. You know that each term has a distinct meaning, and the terms are not interchangeable. Match the descriptive phrase to the correct term.


Highly reliable scientific explanation of events in the natural world that unifies many repeated observations.

a)

theory

b)

hypothesis

c)

scientific law

24.

Which two types of particles are present in equal numbers in an atom, but not in an ion?

a)

protons and electrons

b)

protons and neutrons

c)

inner-shell electrons and outer-shell electrons

d)

protons and inner-shell electrons

25.

The elements sodium and chlorine react to form the chemical compound sodium chloride. How would you predict the properties of sodium chloride compare with those of its constituent elements?

a)

very different

b)

similar in most ways, but not identical

c)

identical in all ways

d)

an average or mixture of the two sets of properties

26.

The diagram shows water at the molecular level. What property of a water molecule allows hydrogen bonds to form among adjacent molecules?

a)

the strong covalent bonds that hold the oxygen atom to each hydrogen atom

b)

the ionic bonds that form after the molecule separates into a hydroxide ion (OH) and hydrogen ion (H+)

c)

the small size of the two hydrogen atoms compared to the oxygen atom

d)

the polarity of the molecule, which involves a slightly negative oxygen atom and slightly positive hydrogen atoms

27.

Household bleach has a pH between 12 and 13. From this information, which of the following BEST describes the bleach solution?

a)

The solution is acidic, meaning it has more hydrogen (H+) ions than hydroxide (OH) ions.

b)

The solution is a buffer that reacts with solutions containing high concentrations of hydrogen (H+) ions.

c)

The solution is neutral, meaning it has an equal number of hydrogen (H+) ions and hydroxide (OH) ions.

d)

The solution is basic, meaning it has fewer hydrogen (H+) ions than hydroxide (OH) ions.

28.

The diagram shows the structure of starch, a complex carbohydrate. What best describes the relationship between starch and glucose?

a)

Starch and glucose are reactants that combine to form proteins.

b)

Starch is a polymer made of glucose monomers.

c)

Starch and glucose are reactants that combine to form nucleic acids.

d)

Starch is a monomer that is used to make glucose.

29.

The diagram shows the general structure of an amino acid. Several different amino acids join together to form a protein. How do any two types of amino acids differ from one another?

a)

the number of amino groups in the molecule

b)

the number of chemical bonds formed by the central carbon atom

c)

the chemical structure of the R group in the molecule

d)

the number of carboxyl groups in the molecule

30.

In a chemical reaction, which event ALWAYS occurs as the reaction proceeds?

a)

the rearrangement of electrons to break or form chemical bonds

b)

a change in total mass

c)

the absorption of energy from the environment

d)

the release of energy to the environment

31.

What is the effect of an enzyme on the energy of a chemical reaction?

a)

Enzymes increase the free energy of the products.

b)

Enzymes decrease the activation energy of the reaction.

c)

Enzymes decrease the difference in energy between products and reactants.

d)

Enzymes decrease the free energy of the reactants.

32.

Which of these molecular structures could be found in a lipid, but not a carbohydrate, protein, or nucleic acid?

a)

a long chain of carbon, oxygen, and nitrogen atoms

b)

a long chain made only of carbon and hydrogen atoms

c)

a phosphate group joined to a chain of carbon atoms

d)

an amino group and a carboxylic group bonded together

33.

Which type of macromolecule has the function of storing and transmitting hereditary or genetic information?

a)

lipid

b)

carbohydrate

c)

nucleic acid

d)

protein

34.

Human blood has a pH of 7.4. How do buffers in the blood affect the pH?

a)

Buffers are catalysts that prevent changes to the pH of blood.

b)

Buffers prevent small amounts of acid or base from changing the pH of blood.

c)

Buffers are bases that cause the pH of blood to increase.

d)

Buffers are acids that cause the pH of blood to decrease.

35.

The diagram shows the structure of a water molecule. What allows the three atoms in a water molecule to stay together?

a)

covalent bonds formed by shared electrons between atoms

b)

ionic bonds formed by electrons that transfer between atoms

c)

covalent bonds formed by electrons that transfer between atoms

d)

hydrogen bonds formed only by the electrons of the hydrogen atoms

36.

What event changes an atom into an ion?

a)

a chemical reaction that forms a molecule

b)

the gain or loss of one or more neutrons

c)

the gain or loss of one or more electrons

d)

the sharing of electrons with another atom

37.

A scientist is studying two isotopes of sodium, labeled A and B. In Isotope A, each of the atoms has 11 protons, 12 neutrons, and 11 electrons. What could be the atomic structure of Isotope B?

a)

11 protons, 12 neutrons, and 10 electrons

b)

11 protons, 13 neutrons, and 11 electrons

c)

11 protons, 12 neutrons, and 12 electrons

d)

12 protons, 12 neutrons, and 11 electrons

38.

Which change to the model of the carbon atom would improve its accuracy?

a)

Move all of the particles so that they are evenly spaced.

b)

Move the protons and electrons to a small space in the center.

c)

Move each neutron so it is next to a proton.

d)

Move the protons and neutrons to a small space in the center.

39.

Amino acids are named after two of their functional groups: the amino group (NH2), which acts like a base, and the carboxyl group (COOH), which acts like an acid. A third functional group, often called the R group, varies among the different types of amino acids. In alanine, the R group is a methyl group (CH3). In serine, the R group is a methyl alcohol (-CH2OH). What functional groups will be joined together if alanine and serine molecules combine to form a single molecule?

a)

an amino group and a carboxyl group

b)

an amino group and a methyl group

c)

a hydrogen atom and a methyl group

d)

two amino groups

40.

Two amino acids unite by forming a(n) ___________bond between them and releasing a molecule of water.

a)

oxygen

b)

hydrogen

c)

peptide

d)

ionic

41.

Two amino acids unite by forming a(n) peptide bond between them and releasing a molecule of ____________.

a)

water

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

hydrogen

d)

oxygen

42.

The union of many amino acids forms a macromolecule called a __________.

a)

lipid

b)

nucleic acid

c)

carbohydrate

d)

protein

43.

A teacher assigns the following experiment to a class. Draw an outline of a bird’s feather, and color one half of the outline with a thick coat from a wax crayon. Leave the other half uncolored. Next, sprinkle a few drops of water on both halves of the feather. You will observe that the water soaks into the plain paper. The waxy coat, however, allows the paper to remain dry. Water forms tiny beads on top of the wax instead of soaking through it. The results of the experiment are MOST USEFUL for explaining which of these functions of lipids in organisms?

a)

forming a waterproof covering on feathers, leaves, and fruits.

b)

providing energy for the cell

c)

allowing water to pass through the cell membrane

d)

replacing water in dry environments

44.

A teacher assigns the following experiment to a class. Draw an outline of a bird’s feather, and color one half of the outline with a thick coat from a wax crayon. Leave the other half uncolored. Next, sprinkle a few drops of water on both halves of the feather. You will observe that the water soaks into the plain paper. The waxy coat, however, allows the paper to remain dry. Water forms tiny beads on top of the wax instead of soaking through it. The results of the experiment MOST STRONGLY support which conclusion about the polarity of lipid molecules?

a)

Lipid molecules are polar because they mix poorly with liquids, such as water.

b)

Lipid molecules are nonpolar because they repel water molecules, which are polar.

c)

Lipid molecules are polar because they adhere tightly to smooth surfaces, such as paper.

d)

Lipid molecules are nonpolar because they repel water molecules, which also are nonpolar.

45.

A team of scientists and engineers is working together to develop a new cleaning product. The team has identified a species of bacteria that gets energy by breaking apart lipids and oils. The team wants to isolate the key substance that the bacteria use for this process, and then adapt the substance for the new cleaning product. Which macromolecule should the team try to isolate from the bacteria?

a)

a lipid or oil that is unique to the bacteria

b)

a carbohydrate that is about the same size as a typical lipid or oil molecule

c)

a protein that specifically binds lipids or oils

d)

a nucleic acid that codes for the production of a lipid or oil

46.

The enzyme carbonic anhydrase is a protein that binds to two small molecules: water and carbon dioxide. By holding the two molecules in the proper position, the enzyme allows the two molecules to react to form a product, carbonic acid. The enzyme then releases the product and becomes available to catalyze the same reaction once again. How does carbonic anhydrase change the reaction between carbon dioxide and water?

a)

It alters the structure of the product.

b)

It decreases the total mass of the system.

c)

It decreases the activation energy.

d)

It increases the total energy released.

47.

Which statement describes all primary producers?

a)

All take in energy to assemble energy-rich compounds.

b)

All are small, single-celled organisms, such as bacteria and algae.

c)

All take in food and break it apart to release energy.

d)

All harness the energy of sunlight through the process of photosynthesis.

48.

Autotrophs can be classified into two groups according to which of two properties?

a)

energy source, either sunlight or chemicals

b)

food type, either plant matter or animal matter

c)

food quality, either living matter or dead matter

d)

water quality, either fresh water or salt water

49.

Rabbits are members of a community in a meadow. The rabbits eat grasses, clover, as well as roots, seeds, and tree bark. What describes the organisms that share the same trophic level as the rabbits?

a)

snakes, hawks, and other animals that eat rabbits

b)

community members that interact with rabbits

c)

meadow animals that are about the same size as a rabbit

d)

meadow animals that eat plants and plant products

50.

John is studying the food web of the open ocean. Which step would be most useful for him to follow to identify the primary producers of the food web?

a)

Look for floating plants, such as water lilies.

b)

Look for tiny phytoplankton that float on the ocean surface.

c)

Look for small animal plankton near the ocean surface.

d)

Look for plants or animals that live along the ocean floor.

51.

The diagram shows a model feeding relationship in an ecosystem. What is shown by the arrows that lead to and from the raccoon?

a)

The raccoon is part of several food chains, but not a food web.

b)

The raccoon is part of one food web and several overlapping food chains.

c)

The raccoon is part of one food web, but no food chains.

d)

The raccoon is part of several food chains and several food webs.

52.

Thalia constructs a model by completing the following steps.

1. Draw a diagram that shows where oxygen is found on Earth, including the atmosphere, bodies of water, land, and living things.

2. Draw arrows to show how oxygen moves and changes form from one location to another.

3. Label each arrow.

What type of ecological model has Thalia constructed?

a)

biogeochemical cycle

b)

energy pyramid

c)

geological system

d)

food web

53.

Lucas is asked to research an organism that performs denitrification. Which strategy is the most likely to be successful?

a)

Look for phytoplankton that perform photosynthesis.

b)

Look for ocean-dwelling organisms that perform chemosynthesis.

c)

Look for soil bacteria that convert atmospheric nitrogen to nitrates.

d)

Look for soil bacteria that convert nitrates to nitrogen gas.

54.

Year after year, Edith raises a vegetable garden in the same plot of soil. She observes that the plants grow less abundantly from one year to the next, and they produce fewer vegetables. Which of these measurements could help explain her observations?

a)

the rate at which soil bacteria perform photosynthesis

b)

the rate at which soil bacteria perform chemosynthesis

c)

the rate at which soil bacteria perform nitrogen fixation

d)

the rate at which soil bacteria perform denitrification

55.

A scientist is classifying a group of organisms that are either primary producers or consumers. What is the direct source of energy for all of the consumers?

a)

either producers or other consumers

b)

producers only

c)

nonliving sources, such as sunlight

d)

other consumers only

56.

Which of the following BEST describes the flow of energy through a food chain?

a)

Energy flows between primary producers and consumers, in either direction.

b)

Energy flows from primary producers to consumers, in one direction only.

c)

Energy flows between primary producers and consumers, in an endless cycle.

d)

Energy flows from consumers to primary producers, in one direction only.

57.

The diagram shows a model of an ecosystem. What does the model represent?

a)

the total amount of energy in the ecosystem

b)

the conservation of energy as energy transfers between organisms

c)

the total biomass in each trophic level

d)

the relative amount of energy available at each trophic level

58.

A pyramid of biomass is one way to model an ecosystem. How does the amount of biomass generally change from the bottom of the pyramid to the top?

a)

The amount of biomass varies widely, and both increases and decreases.

b)

The amount of biomass varies only slightly, and may increase or decrease.

c)

The amount of biomass increases.

d)

The amount of biomass decreases.

59.

Which statement BEST describes how matter moves within and between ecosystems?

a)

Matter flows in a one-way direction through food chains and food webs.

b)

Matter cycles between trophic levels in food chains and food webs.

c)

Matter is made and destroyed as it is used by living things.

d)

Matter cycles through food webs and biogeochemical cycles.

60.

How does water transfer when it evaporates from the ocean?

a)

completely within the hydrosphere

b)

from the biosphere to the hydrosphere

c)

from the hydrosphere to the atmosphere

d)

from the hydrosphere to the geosphere

61.

Which vital element for life participates in the carbon, nitrogen, and phosphorus cycles?

a)

oxygen

b)

calcium

c)

chlorine

d)

sodium

62.

A scientist is studying feeding relationships in a neighborhood pond. He observes several organisms that feed on one another, and he organizes them into a food chain model shown below. The scientists observations and the food chain model provide the strongest evidence for which statement about pond organisms?

a)

Matter cycles and energy flows through pond organisms from primary producers to a series of consumers.

b)

Energy and matter flow in opposite directions through pond organisms between primary producers and consumers.

c)

Energy cycles through pond organisms, and returns to primary consumers through the actions of decomposers and detritivores.

d)

Matter, but not energy, flows through pond organisms from primary consumers to a series of consumers.

63.

A crayfish is observed nibbling on the remains of a dead sunfish. Construct a new food chain based on this observation by matching the organisms to the correct locations in the diagram.

a)

algae -> crayfish -> heron -> snail

b)

algae -> snail -> sunfish -> crayfish

c)

crayfish -> sunfish -> snail -> algae

d)

algae -> snail -> sunfish -> heron

64.

A student is developing a model of the carbon cycle, which involves the movement of carbon among various Earth systems. She begins by drawing the diagram shown below. What does arrow 1 represent?

a)

burning

b)

photosynthesis

c)

cellular respiration

65.

A student is developing a model of the carbon cycle, which involves the movement of carbon among various Earth systems. She begins by drawing the diagram shown below. How does her model show the effect of photosynthesis and cellular respiration on Earth systems?

a)

The model shows that their combined effects determine the amount of solid carbon compounds in the geosphere.

b)

The model shows that their combined effects determine the level of carbon dioxide that dissolves in the hydrosphere.

c)

The model shows that they have identical effects on carbon dioxide levels in the atmosphere.

d)

The model shows that they have opposite effects on carbon dioxide levels in the atmosphere.

66.

Rick is studying the water cycle and its critical role in ecosystem functions. He is developing a model of the water cycle, and his initial work is shown below. Which arrow represents transpiration?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

67.

Rick is studying the water cycle and its critical role in ecosystem functions. He is developing a model of the water cycle, and his initial work is shown below. Which arrow represents precipitation?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

68.

Rick is studying the water cycle and its critical role in ecosystem functions. He is developing a model of the water cycle, and his initial work is shown below. Which arrow represents evaporation?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

69.

Rick is studying the water cycle and its critical role in ecosystem functions. He is developing a model of the water cycle, and his initial work is shown below. Rick is thinking about revising the model to represent the role of photosynthesis in the water cycle. Would including photosynthesis in the model be reasonable, and for what reason?

a)

Yes, because water is a reactant, or input, of photosynthesis.

b)

Yes, because water is a product, or output, of photosynthesis.

c)

No, because water is necessary for photosynthesis but not changed by it.

d)

No, because water is not involved in photosynthesis.

70.

Rick is studying the water cycle and its critical role in ecosystem functions. He is developing a model of the water cycle, and his initial work is shown below. Which arrow represents runoff?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

71.

Atmospheric carbon dioxide levels have been increasing gradually for many years. Scientists cite this increase as one of the main causes of climate change, which is a serious environmental problem for people all over the world. One component of a possible engineering solution to this problem is to use plants, algae, or phytoplankton to increase the global rate of photosynthesis. What scientific reasoning provides evidence that this solution could be effective?

a)

Plants and other photosynthetic organisms provide food for consumers, who perform cellular respiration.

b)

Plants and other photosynthetic organisms change into fossil fuels over time.

c)

Photosynthesis acts to remove carbon dioxide directly from the atmosphere.

d)

Photosynthesis traps carbon dioxide in the soil.

72.

A student is developing a model of the carbon cycle, which involves the movement of carbon among various Earth systems. She begins by drawing the diagram shown below. What does arrow 2 represent?

a)

burning

b)

photosynthesis

c)

cellular respiration

73.

A student is developing a model of the carbon cycle, which involves the movement of carbon among various Earth systems. She begins by drawing the diagram shown below. What does arrow 3 represent?

a)

burning

b)

photosynthesis

c)

cellular respiration

74.

A student is developing a model of the carbon cycle, which involves the movement of carbon among various Earth systems. She begins by drawing the diagram shown below. What does arrow 4 represent?

a)

burning

b)

photosynthesis

c)

cellular respiration

75.

A student is developing a model of the carbon cycle, which involves the movement of carbon among various Earth systems. She begins by drawing the diagram shown below. What does arrow 5 represent?

a)

burning

b)

photosynthesis

c)

cellular respiration

76.

A student is developing a model of the carbon cycle, which involves the movement of carbon among various Earth systems. She begins by drawing the diagram shown below. What does arrow 6 represent?

a)

burning

b)

photosynthesis

c)

cellular respiration

77.

A student is developing a model of the carbon cycle, which involves the movement of carbon among various Earth systems. She begins by drawing the diagram shown below. What does arrow 7 represent?

a)

burning

b)

photosynthesis

c)

cellular respiration

78.

An area of forest that experiences very little change in species composition is a

a)

Climax community

b)

Primary succession

c)

secondary succession

d)

ecological succession

79.

The amount of oxygen in a fish tank is a _______ that affects the number of fish that can live in the tank

a)

Tolerance zone

b)

Limiting factor

80.

Which is a place you most likely would find pioneer species growing?

a)

Climax forest

b)

Coral reef

c)

Disturbed grassland

d)

Newly formed volcano

81.

Which statement describes the first changes in a forest that would follow a forest fire?

a)

A climax community is established

b)

New plants grow from seeds that the wind carries to the area

c)

New soil forms

d)

Pioneer species are established

82.

Ponds and lakes are

a)

flowing-water ecosystems.

b)

wetlands.

c)

standing-water ecosystems.

d)

estuaries.

83.

The chemistry of aquatic ecosystems is determined by the

a)

amount of salts, nutrients, and oxygen dissolved in the water.

b)

the number of other organisms present in the water.

c)

amount of rainfall the water receives.

d)

biotic and abiotic factors in the water.

84.

Which two biomes have the least amount of precipitation?

a)

tropical rain forest and temperate forest

b)

tropical savanna and tropical dry forest

c)

tundra and desert

d)

boreal forest and temperate woodland and shrubland

85.

What is one difference between primary and secondary succession?

a)

Primary succession is slow and secondary succession is rapid.

b)

Secondary succession begins on soil and primary succession begins on newly exposed

surfaces.

c)

Primary succession modifies the environment and secondary succession does not.

d)

Secondary succession begins with lichens and primary succession begins with trees.

86.

The series of predictable changes that occurs in a community over time is called

a)

population growth.

b)

ecological succession.

c)

climax community.

d)

climate change.

87.
A large region characterized by a specific type of climate and certain types of plant and animal communities---
a)
population
b)
community
c)
biome
d)
ecosystem
88.
What is an example of a community?
a)
Dogs
b)
A dog
c)
Dogs and cats
d)
A dog in a doghouse
89.
A collection of organisms that belong to different populations but all live in the same area and interact with one another.
a)
Population
b)
Ecosystem
c)
Community
d)
Ecosphere
90.
Primary succession is... 
a)
When a hurricane causes a river to flood its banks
b)
When a farmer ploughs his fields to remove all existing plant life.
c)
When fire burns through a forest and ills all vegetation less than 1m tall.
d)
When increasing temperature causes a glacier to recede from an area of rocky ground
91.
The secondary succession is 
a)
lichens and mosses arrive on bare rock and begin to trap soil
b)
a complex, stable ecosystem is formed
c)
plants grow in an area devastated by a flood
d)
plants grow in a newly formed pond
92.
Which biome is covered with ice most of the year?
a)
tundra
b)
grassland
c)
taiga
d)
rainforest
93.
Which biome has the largest annual precipitation?
a)
tundra
b)
desert
c)
rainforest
d)
taiga
94.
What are areas where freshwater meets saltwater called?
a)
wetlands
b)
estuaries
c)
coastal byways
d)
intertidal zones
95.
The aphotic zone is
a)
the ocean's dark lower layer where photosynthesis cannot occur
b)
the sunlit upper layer of the ocean where photosynthesis occurs
c)
on the bottom of lakes, streams, and oceans.
d)
where benthos are found
96.

Which land biome contains the greatest species diversity?

a)

tundra

b)

desert

c)

grassland

d)

tropical rain forest

97.

Where is the largest percentage of water located?

a)

groundwater

b)

rivers

c)

oceans

d)

glaciers

98.

The first stage of succession after a volcanic eruption is probably the development of

a)

mosses

b)

shrubs

c)

lichens

d)

trees

99.

Permafrost is a characteristic of which biome?

a)

Desert

b)

Tundra

c)

Temperate forest

d)

Tropical rain forest

100.

Which explains why secondary succession generally occurs more rapidly in an area than does primary succession?

a)

Average precipitation is higher.

b)

Moderate climatic conditions exist.

c)

Pioneer species are microscopic.

d)

Soil formation has already occurred.

101.

Analyze each of the sequences in the primary succession of species colonizing a newly formed volcanic island and select the option in the correct order.

a)

bare rock, small annual plants, lichens, shade-intolerant trees, shade-tolerant trees

b)

bare rock, lichens, small annual plants, perennial herbs and grasses, shade- intolerant trees

c)

bare rock, lichens, perennial herbs and grasses, small annual plants, shade- intolerant trees

d)

bare rock, lichens, small annual plants, perennial herbs and grasses, shade-tolerant trees

102.

Besides plants, what other factor distinguishes one biome from another biome?

a)

the number of plants in the biome

b)

the variety of animal species

c)

average temperature and precipitation

d)

geographic location

103.

The primary factors affecting population growth include birthrate, death rate, immigration, and

a)

density

b)

geographic range

c)

emigration

d)

demography

104.

Which factor might NOT contribute to an exponential growth rate in a given population?

a)

lower death rates

b)

higher birthrates

c)

less competition

d)

reduced resources

105.

The graph shows a model of growth of a bacterial population. Which of the following correctly describes the growth curve?

a)

demographic

b)

logistic

c)

limiting

d)

exponential

106.

The maximum number of individuals of a particular species that a particular environment can support is its

a)

logistic growth

b)

carrying capacity

c)

age structure

d)

population

107.

If a population grows larger than the carrying capacity of its environment, the

a)

death rate may increase

b)

birthrate may rise

c)

death rate must fall

d)

birthrate must fall

108.

Which would be least likely to be affected by a density-dependent limiting factor?

a)

a small, scattered population

b)

a population with a high birthrate

c)

a large, dense population

d)

a population with a high immigration rate

109.

Which of the following is a density-independent limiting factor?

a)

a struggle for food, water, space or sunlight

b)

predator/prey relationships

c)

flood damage from a hurricane

d)

parasitism and disease

110.

The scientific study of human populations is called

a)

ecology

b)

demogrpahy

c)

natural selection

d)

transition

111.

Since the Industrial Revolution, human populations have

a)

decreased

b)

reached carrying capacity

c)

grown more rapidly

d)

leveled of

112.

Demographic transition refers to a shift from

a)

high birthrates and death rates to low birthrates and death rates

b)

immigration and emigration

c)

population decrease to population increase

d)

logistic growth to exponential growth

113.

Much of the world's human population is growing exponentially because

a)

human populations have not reached their exponential curve

b)

most countries have not yet completed the demographic transition

c)

human populations do not conform to the logistic model

d)

the food supply is limitless

114.

Green lacewings are used to control aphids, which are pests of many crops. A population of 1000 green lacewings is released into a farmer’s field. The graph shows the change in the population over time. What is the most likely explanation for the approximately constant population of the lacewings after the eighth year?

a)

The lacewings had eaten all of the aphids in the field.

b)

The lacewing population had reached the carrying capacity of the field.

c)

New predators of lacewings had arrived in the field.

d)

The birthrate of lacewings had increased, while the death rate remained constant.

e)

The death rate of lacewings had increased, while the birthrate remained constant.

115.

About 800 ash trees live in a tract of conservation land. Which of these events would have the LEAST effect on the land’s carrying capacity for ash trees?

a)

Maple trees are introduced to the land, where they grow well.

b)

Human activities drain about half of the water that the land generally receives.

c)

A beetle that infects ash trees is introduced to the land.

d)

About one third of the ash trees are cut down and hauled away.

e)

About one third of the land is cleared of all trees and used for new houses.

116.

A lake is home to many native fishes and aquatic plants. Which of these events is MOST LIKELY to threaten the biodiversity of the lake ecosystem?

a)

a 20 percent increase in the population of one of the native fish species

b)

the arrival of migrating birds that prey on the native fishes

c)

the introduction of a nonnative fish species that has no natural enemies in the lake

d)

a storm that temporarily swells the lake and floods the surrounding land

e)

the arrival of typical winter weather that causes the water to freeze

117.

For many years in the 1800s, human hunters on the U.S. Great Plains hunted bison almost to extinction. Which statement, if true, BEST explains why the hunters were such a threat to the bison population?

a)

The death rate from hunting was much greater than the maximum birthrate of the bison.

b)

The death rate from hunting was much greater than the natural death rate of the bison.

c)

The hunting removed individuals of all ages, including very young bison.

d)

Human hunters had replaced the natural predators of the bison.

e)

The hunting removed both male and female bison equally.

118.

The graph shows some changes in the number of individuals in a particular population in a stable ecosystem over a period of time. Which statement best describes the trend shown in this graph?

a)

The population will eventually become extinct

b)

The population will remain stable

c)

The environment factors that affect populations are always predictable

d)

The population will be reduced to half of its original size

119.

If no additional materials were added to the petri dish with the paramecium, after day 14, the paramecium population will most likely

a)

remain the same, since it has reached carrying capacity

b)

begin to increase, as they continue to reproduce

c)

begin to increase, since they have not reached carrying capacity

d)

begin to decrease, as the resources run out

120.

What can cause a population to grow?

a)

The birthrate become higher than the death rate

b)

The birthrate stays the same, and the death rate increases

c)

The birthrate becomes lower than the death rate

d)

The birthrate and death rate remain the same

121.

What does the distribution of a population tell you that density does not?

a)

the number that live in an area

b)

the areas inhabited by a population

c)

the births per unit area

d)

the deaths per unit area

122.

Which will reduce competition within a species' population?

a)

fewer individuals

b)

higher birthrate

c)

fewer resources

d)

higher population density

123.

Why are people concerned with the introduction of non-native species?

a)

They are preferable to native species

b)

they cannot survive as well as natives

c)

they can adapt quicker than natives

d)

they compete with native species

124.

Number of Deaths 10

Number of Births 15

Immigration 3

Emigration 4


Does the population increase or decrease?

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

125.

What type of growth chart is this?

a)

logistic

b)

exponential

126.

What type of growth chart is this?

a)

logistic

b)

exponential

127.

Population Density

a)

Under ideal conditions with unlimited resources, a population will grow exponentially

b)

Number of individuals per unit area

c)

limiting factor that depends on population size (competition, predation, parasitism, and disease)

d)

limiting factor that affects all populations in similar ways, regardless of population size (drought, climate extremes, human disturbances, and natural disasters)

128.

Density dependent limiting factors

a)

limiting factor that depends on population size (competition, predation, parasitism, and disease)

b)

limiting factor that affects all populations in similar ways, regardless of population size (drought, climate extremes, human disturbances, and natural disasters)

c)

Growth pattern in which a population's growth rate slows or stops following a period of exponential growth

d)

Under ideal conditions with unlimited resources, a population will grow exponentially

129.

Population size factors (4)

a)

Under ideal conditions with unlimited resources, a population will grow exponentially

b)

Immigration, Emigration, Birth rate, and Death rate that change a population's size

c)

An environmental factor that prevents a population from increasing

d)

mechanism of population control in which a population is regulated by predation

130.

Limiting factor

a)

An environmental factor that prevents a population from increasing

b)

largest number of individuals of a population that a given environment can hold

c)

Under ideal conditions with unlimited resources, a population will grow exponentially

d)

mechanism of population control in which a population is regulated by predation

131.

Density independent limiting factor

a)

limiting factor that affects all populations in similar ways, regardless of population size (drought, climate extremes, human disturbances, and natural disasters)

b)

limiting factor that depends on population size (competition, predation, parasitism, and disease)

c)

Under ideal conditions with unlimited resources, a population will grow exponentially

d)

Immigration, Emigration, Birth rate, and Death rate that change a population's size

132.

One reason the world is growing is because...

a)

The world has infinite resources for everyone

b)

Birth rate is higher than death rate

c)

Death rate is higher than birth rate

d)

There are more and more places for people to live

133.

Most of the world's population lives in...

a)

North America

b)

Europe

c)

Asia

d)

Africa

134.

Which is NOT a reason for the decreasing death rate?

a)

Better health care

b)

Cleaner water

c)

Greater food supply

d)

More pollution

135.

If the number of births is greater than the number of deaths in a population, what will happen to the growth of the population?

a)

It will increase.

b)

It will decrease.

c)

It will stay the same.

136.

What is the carrying capacity for this sheep population?

a)

1.8 million

b)

1.6 million

c)

1.25 million

d)

1.0 million

137.

Concentrations of harmful substances increase in organisms at higher trophic levels in a food chain. This process is known as

a)

Aquaculture

b)

Monoculture

c)

Pesticide use

d)

Biological magnification

138.

The conversion of a previously soil-rich area to a sandy desert is called

a)

Habitat fragmentation

b)

Deforestation

c)

Desertification

d)

Acid rain

139.

A resource that cannot be replenished by natural processes is called

a)

Common

b)

Renewable

c)

Nonrenewable

d)

Conserved

140.

Which is NOT a characteristic of the sustainable development of natural resources?

a)

Instability

b)

Flexibility

c)

Appropriate technology

d)

Efficiency

141.

Ozone is made up of

a)

Water

b)

Hydrogen

c)

Nitrogen

d)

Oxygen

142.

Civilizations could not develop without

a)

Monoculture

b)

Hunter-gatherers

c)

Agriculture

d)

Crop exchange

143.

Which of the following is NOT a renewable resource?

a)

Wind

b)

Sunlight

c)

Water

d)

Fossil fuels

144.

Ozone depletion has been caused by

a)

Monoculture

b)

Suburban sprawl

c)

Aquaculture

d)

Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)

145.

When land development divides a habitat into isolated "islands," the result is called

a)

Deforestation

b)

Reforestation

c)

Magnification

d)

Fragmentation

146.

A species that enters an environment where it has not lived before is called a(an)

a)

Endangered species

b)

Introduced species

c)

Threatened species

d)

Predator

147.

The sum total of the variety of organisms on Earth is referred to as

a)

Ecosystem

b)

Biodiversity

c)

Forest

d)

Agriculture

148.

A species whose population size is declining so rapidly that it could soon become extinct is

a)

Nonnative

b)

Fragmented

c)

Endangered

d)

Invasive

149.

The burning of fossil fuels may cause all of the following EXCEPT

a)

Acid rain

b)

Global warming

c)

Smog

d)

The ozone hole

150.

Use the food web on pg. 163 to determine which of the following organisms would accumulate the highest levels of a chlorinated pesticide (DDT)

a)

Hawk

b)

Rabbit

c)

Frog

d)

Grasses

151.

Which is NOT true of a renewable resource?

a)

It is unlimited

b)

It is replaceable by natural means

c)

It can regenerate quickly

d)

All of the above

152.

Which of the following is NOT an effect of deforestation?

a)

Chemical change in siol

b)

Decreased productivity of the ecosystem

c)

Soil erosion

d)

Biological magnification

153.

Which of the following human activities was NOT important to transforming the biosphere?

a)

Agriculture

b)

Industry

c)

Urban development

d)

Aquaculture

154.

Use pg. 185, #8: Which statement is true about fire ants in the United States?

a)

They reproduce slowly

b)

They are a native species of the United States

c)

They are an invasive species

d)

Their numbers are declining

155.

Use pg. 185, #9: By 2010, fire ants are likely to

a)

Occupy Florida only

b)

Have reached their carrying capacity

c)

Die out

d)

Have spread to a larger area

156.

The sum total of the variety of organisms in the biosphere is called

a)

Biodiversity

b)

Species diversity

c)

Ecosystem diversity

d)

Genetic diversity