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HBS Mid Year Review (1.1.1-2.1.5)

Total questions: 132

Worksheet time: 2hrs 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which type of bone cells are responsible for bone formation?

a)

Osteocytes

b)

Osteoblasts

c)

Chondrocytes

d)

Osteoclasts

2.

What is the process called when a broken bone heals and reforms?

a)

bone remodeling

b)

bone regeneration

c)

bone restructuring

d)

bone reconstruction

3.

What is the outer layer of a bone called?

a)

periosteum

b)

epiphysis

c)

medullary cavity

d)

endosteum

4.

What is the scientific term for the collarbone?

a)

humerus

b)

scapula

c)

femur

d)

clavicle

5.

What is the purpose of bone marrow?

a)

To produce and store blood cells

b)

To produce and store fat cells.

c)

To regulate body temperature.

d)

To aid in digestion.

6.

What are the two main types of bone tissue?

a)

dense bone and porous bone

b)

hard bone and soft bone

c)

compact bone and spongy bone

d)

solid bone and hollow bone

7.

What is the function of osteoclasts in bone remodeling?

a)

Bone formation

b)

Bone growth

c)

Bone resorption

d)

Bone repair

8.

A _____ wound might require medical attention whereas a _____ cut or scratch would just need basic bandages.

a)

superficial, deep

b)

deep, superficial

9.

Your lungs are LATERAL to your heart.

a)

True

b)

False

10.

The eyes and nose are on the ______ surface of the body.

a)

posterior

b)

anterior

11.

The stomach is ______ to the heart.

a)

superior

b)

inferior

12.

The hand is PROXIMAL to the shoulder.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

What does it mean when the doctor says he/she is about to dissect the distal end of the popliteal artery?

a)

The doctor is going to dissect an artery at the front of the knee at the end closest to the hip.

b)

The doctor is going to dissect an artery at the front of the knee at the end that is further away from the hip.

c)

The doctor is going to dissect an artery at the back of the knee at the end closer to the hip.

d)

The doctor is going to dissect an artery at the back of the knee at the end that is further away from the hip.

14.

The sternum is ______ to the humerus.

a)

medial

b)

lateral

c)

superior

d)

inferior

15.

Blood, bone, and fat are all examples of _____ tissue.

a)

transport

b)

support

c)

connective

d)

epithelial

16.

If you fracture your ulna, you have broken a bone in your

a)

arm

b)

leg

c)

foot

d)

hand

17.

This pelvis most likely belongs to a

a)

male

b)

female

18.
Which type of muscle tissue would line the intestines?
a)
Smooth
b)
Cardiac
c)
Skeletal
d)
Transitional
19.
What type of Connective tissue is found at the ends of bones to reduce friction?
a)
Cartilage
b)
Dense connective tissue
c)
Adipose Tissue
d)
Loose connective tissue
20.
What type of muscle tissue is VOLUNTARILY controlled
a)
Skeletal Only
b)
Skeletal and Cardiac
c)
Smooth and Cardiac
d)
Cardiac Only
21.

The bones highlighted in red are called the

a)

tibia

b)

fibula

c)

ulna

d)

femur

22.
Spongy bone would primarily be found where in a bone?
a)
diaphysis
b)
epiphysis
c)
periosteum
d)
endosteum
23.
What type of bone makes up the diaphysis?
a)
spongy bone
b)
compact bone
c)
rigid bone
d)
soft bone
24.
Bone forming cells are called...
a)
osteoblasts
b)
osteocytes
c)
osteoclasts
d)
osteons
25.
Special bone cells, called ___, are responsible for destroying and remodeling old bone.
a)
osteoclasts
b)
osteoblasts
c)
osteocytes
d)
Haversian canals
26.
What is the biggest bone in your body?
a)
fibula
b)
humerus
c)
pelvis
d)
femur
27.

Yellow marrow in the bone is mostly

a)

blood plasma

b)

protein

c)

fat

d)

spongy bone

28.
Which type of muscle tissue would line the intestines?
a)
Smooth
b)
Cardiac
c)
Skeletal
d)
Transitional
29.

What is angle is being measured by this goniometer?

a)

25

b)

180

c)

155

d)

0

30.

Select the correct range of motion shown in the video clip.

a)

Knee extension

b)

Hip flexion

c)

Knee flexion

31.

Select the correct range of motion shown in the video clip.

a)

Shoulder abduction

b)

Shoulder adduction

c)

Shoulder medial rotation

32.

Select the correct range of motion shown in the video clip.

a)

Shoulder abduction

b)

Shoulder inversion

c)

Shoulder medial rotation

33.

Select the correct range of motion shown in the video clip.

a)

Ankle dorsiflexion

b)

Ankle plantar flexion

c)

Ankle extension

34.

A sarcomere is

a)

a nonfunctional unit of skeletal muscle

b)

a repeating structural unit of skeletal muscle

c)

the area between two intercalated discs

d)

the wavy lines on the muscle seen in the microscope.

35.

Which of the following are composed of myosin?

a)

thick filaments

b)

thin filaments

c)

Z discs

d)

all myofilaments

36.

Which of the following muscle type is not striated?

a)

smooth muscle

b)

skeletal muscle

c)

cardiac muscle

d)

none of above

37.

The bundle of collagen fibers at the end of a skeletal muscle that attaches the muscle to bone is called a(n)

a)

fascicle

b)

tendon

c)

ligament

d)

myofibril

38.

Rigor mortis occurs because

a)

the cells are dead

b)

sodium ions leak out of the muscle

c)

ATP is required to release the attached

actin and myosin molecules

d)

proteins are beginning to break down, thus preventing the flow of calcium ions.

39.

Where is cardiac muscle found?

a)

In the walls of hollow organs

b)

In the walls of the heart

c)

Around the skeleton

d)

In between ribs

40.

What is the function of skeletal muscle?

a)

Movement of the body

b)

Moving food toward the stomach

c)

Pumping blood through the heart

d)

Moving the lungs during breathing

41.
The part of the sarcomere that C (Blue) refers to is the?
a)
Actin
b)
Myosin
c)
Troponin
d)
Tropomyosin
42.
The part of the sarcomere that D (Red) refers to is the?
a)
Actin
b)
Myosin
c)
Troponin
d)
Tropomyosin
43.
What state is the sarcomere in #1
a)
Relaxed
b)
Contracting
c)
Fully Contracted
d)
None of the above
44.
What state is the sarcomere in #2
a)
Relaxed
b)
Contracting
c)
Fully Contracted
d)
None of the above
45.

above another part of the body

a)

superior

b)

inferior

c)

distal

d)

proximal

46.

below another part of the body

a)

superior

b)

inferior

c)

distal

d)

proximal

47.

away from point of attachment

a)

superior

b)

inferior

c)

distal

d)

proximal

48.

close to point of attachment

a)

superior

b)

inferior

c)

distal

d)

proximal

49.

back of the body

a)

ventral

b)

dorsal

c)

medial

d)

lateral

50.

toward the surface

a)

superficial

b)

deep

c)

medial

d)

lateral

51.

What is the motion indicated by letter A

a)

Abduction

b)

Extension

c)

Flexion

d)

Hyperextension

52.

What motion is indicated by letter B

a)

Abduction

b)

Extension

c)

Flexion

d)

Hyperextension

53.

What motion is indicated by letter A

a)

PlanterFlexion

b)

Adduction

c)

Abduction

d)

Dorsiflexion

54.

What motion is indicated by letter B

a)

Plantarflextion

b)

Rotation

c)

Inversion

d)

Dorsiflexion

55.

What movement is indicated by Letter A

a)

Rotation

b)

Circumduction

c)

Abduction

d)

Adduction

56.

Select the correct range of motion shown in the video clip.

a)

Ankle dorsiflexion

b)

Ankle plantar flexion

c)

Ankle extension

57.

Select the correct range of motion shown in the video clip.

a)

Shoulder flexion

b)

Shoulder extension

c)

Elbow flexion

58.

Select the correct range of motion shown in the video clip.

a)

Shoulder abduction

b)

Shoulder inversion

c)

Shoulder medial rotation

59.

Select the correct range of motion shown in the video clip.

a)

Hip extension

b)

Hip flexion

c)

Knee flexion

60.

Select the correct range of motion shown in the video clip.

a)

Hip extension

b)

Hip flexion

c)

Knee flexion

61.

Select the correct range of motion shown in the video clip.

a)

Knee extension

b)

Hip flexion

c)

Knee flexion

62.

Select the correct range of motion shown in the video clip.

a)

shoulder extension

b)

shoulder flexion

c)

elbow flexion

63.
Which part of the brain controls balance?
a)
cerebrum
b)
cerebellum
c)
brainstem
64.
a)
frontal
b)
temporal
c)
occipital
d)
parietal
65.
a)
Cerebrum
b)
Cerebellum
c)
Brain Stem
d)
Diencephalon
66.
What functions does this lobe carry out?
a)
Hearing and auditory processing
b)
Vision and visual processing
c)
Processing fear
d)
Judgment, impulse control, planning, problem solving, and other executive functions
67.
What letter represents the Temporal Lobe?
a)
B
b)
C
c)
D
d)
F
68.

What is the surface of the cerebrum called?

a)

cerebral cortex

b)

medulla

c)

axon

69.

What are axons covered in?

a)

myelin sheath

b)

capillaries

70.

What do Axons do?

a)

carry information to the cell body

b)

carry information away from the cell body

71.

What are the components of the central nervous system?

4 lines
72.

On the cerebral cortex, the grooves or valleys that result from an embryological increase in surface area and folding of the cortex:

a)

sulci

b)

gyri

c)

csf

d)

cord

73.

On the cerebral cortex, the ridges that result from an embryological increase in surface area and folding of the cortex:

a)

hemispheres

b)

sulci

c)

gyri

d)

lobes

74.

These are sections of the brain located behind the frontal lobes; integrate sensory information from the skin, internal organs, muscles, and joints.

a)

Parietal lobes

b)

Frontal lobes

c)

Temporal lobes

d)

Occipital lobes

75.

What are the main parts of the neurons to send and receive information (2 parts)?

a)

nucleus

b)

axon

c)

dendrite

d)

myelin sheath

e)

Node of Ranvier

76.
What are the two divisions of the nervous system?
a)
The brain and spinal cord. 
b)
The central nervous system and the skeletal system. 
c)
The central and peripheral nervous systems. 
77.
Label the Neuron-What does the letter "A" represent?
a)
Axon
b)
Dendrite
c)
Axon Terminal
d)
Cell Body
78.
Label the Neuron-What does the letter "E" represent?
a)
Schwann Cell
b)
Node of Ranvier
c)
Axon Terminal
d)
Myelin Sheath
79.
The part of the neuron that receives messages from other neurons
a)
axon
b)
dendrite
c)
cell body
d)
Schwann cell
80.
What is structure labeled D in the picture?
a)
Dendrite
b)
Axon
c)
Cell Body
d)
Axon Terminal
81.

The Autonomic Nervous System is part of the___________.

a)

Somatic Nervous System

b)

Peripheral Nervous System

c)

Central Nervous System

d)

Sensory Nervous System

82.

The autonomic nervous system is divided into

a)

Motor and Sensory

b)

Peripheral and Central

c)

The Brain and Spinal cord

d)

Sympathetic and Parasympathetic

83.

controls the "fight or flight" response

a)

Sympathetic

b)

Parasympathetic

84.

controls the "rest and digest" response

a)

Sympathetic

b)

Parasympathetic

85.

The PARASYMPATHETIC division of the autonomic nervous system

a)

arouses the body, mobilizing its energy in stressful situations.

b)

calms the body, conserving its energy.

86.

The basic structural and functional unit of brain is

a)

Spinal Cord

b)

Nephron

c)

Neuron

d)

Nerve

87.

Hemisphere that is associated with logical abilities

a)
Left Hemisphere
b)
Right Hemisphere
88.

Hemisphere of the brain that is most associated with artistic abilities

a)

Left

b)

Right

89.

Which of the following structures or systems is correctly paired with its function?

a)

Central nervous system--

processes information and controls responses

b)

Frontal Lobe--portion of the brain that controls body movement

c)

Neurons--

brain cells that control thoughts, calculations, and memory

d)

Peripheral nervous system--releases hormones and controls emotions

90.

Which of the following structures or systems is correctly paired with its function?

a)

Central nervous system--

carries information from the nerves to the muscles and glands

b)

Cerebral cortex--portion of the brain that controls involuntary body movement

c)

Neurons--

brain cells that control thoughts, calculations, and memory

d)

Peripheral nervous system--carries impulses to and from the central nervous system

91.

This portion of the brain is responsible for speech production.

a)

Motor Cortex

b)

Sensory Cortex

c)

Broca's Area

d)

Wernicke's Area

92.

What is the importance of gyri and sulci of the brain?

a)

Decreased surface area

b)

Increase brain size

c)

Decrease neuron connections

d)

Increased surface area

93.

Area of Phineas Gage's brain that was damaged

a)

Frontal lobe

b)

Parietal lobe

c)

Temporal lobe

d)

Occipital lobe

94.

Controls behaviors (hunger, thirst, sleep, body temperature) through the release of hormones.

a)

Hypothalamus

b)

Adrenal Glands

c)

pineal gland

d)

Occipital lobe

95.
A tumor on the temporal lobe would most affect the career of 
a)
an architect
b)
a musician
c)
a professor
d)
a researcher
96.

Blood Pressure

a)

occipital

b)

Frontal

c)

Brain Stem

d)

Parietal

97.

Part of the brain responsible for vision

a)

Occipital Lobe

b)

Motor Cortex

c)

Temporal Lobe

d)

Pons

98.

The part of the nervous system that consists of the brain and spinal cord

a)

Peripheral Nervous System

b)

Brain Stem

c)

Central Nervous System

d)

Limbic System

99.
a junction at which a neuron meets another cell
a)
axon
b)
dendrites
c)
myelin sheath
d)
synapse
100.
A person has a stroke on her occipital lobe.  What might happen to her?
a)
reduced planning abilities
b)
deafness
c)
coma
d)
blindness
101.

Name a disease that involves "tearing" of myelin sheath.

4 lines
102.
What makes up all 4 lobes of the brain?
a)
Cerebrum
b)
Cerebellum
103.
These neuron processes transmit information from the central nervous system to the muscles and glands
a)
efferent
b)
afferent
104.
This part of the nervous system regulates involuntary actions such as heart function, blood pressure, breathing, digestion.
a)
Autonomic Nervous System
b)
Sensory Nervous System
c)
Motor Nervous System
d)
Peripheral Nervous System
105.
What is the main function of oligodendrocytes?
a)
Production of insulation and protection
b)
Maintain the health of the neuron
c)
Brace and support the neuron to it's nurtient supply
d)
Lining of the central cavities to circulate spinal fluid
106.

Small cells that engulf and destroy microbes and cellular debris in the CNS

a)

microglia

b)

horns

c)

neuroglia

d)

astrocytes

107.
The brain weighs in at only 5 pounds. 
a)
True 
b)
False 
108.

ATP is required to run

a)

Na/K pumps

b)

leak channels

c)

gated channels

d)

myelin sheaths

109.

Which channels open FIRST at time #2?

a)

leak channels only

b)

gated Na channels

c)

gated K channels

d)

none

110.
Why is -55 mV a significant number?
a)
This is the largest charge achieved during an action potential
b)
This is the threshold required to complete an action potential
c)
This is the resting charge of a neuron
d)
This is the charge when all the sodium is inside the cell
111.
What number(s) on the graph represents the Resting Potential?
a)
1 and 2
b)
1 and 5
c)
2 and 3
d)
3 and 4
112.
When a neuron is depolarized, what are the first channels to open?
a)
Sodium
b)
Potassium
c)
Calcium
d)
ACTH
113.

Small cells that engulf and destroy microbes and cellular debris in the CNS

a)

microglia

b)

horns

c)

neuroglia

d)

astrocytes

114.

Neuroglial cells that form the fatty myelin sheath on neurons in the CNS are ___________ in the PNS are ________________?

a)

ganglia and oligodendroglia

b)

astrocytes and schwann cells

c)

schwann cells and oligodendroglia

d)

oligodendroglia and schwann cells

115.
What is the main function of oligodendrocytes?
a)
Production of insulation and protection
b)
Maintain the health of the neuron
c)
Brace and support the neuron to it's nurtient supply
d)
Lining of the central cavities to circulate spinal fluid
116.
The function of the ependymal cells is ___________.
a)
Protection of the delicate neuron axon
b)
Maintain the health of the neuron
c)
Circulates the cerebrospinal fluid
d)
Insulate the electrical impulse
117.
What type of neuroglial cell attaches neurons to capillaries?
a)
Astrocyte
b)
Oligodendrocytes
c)
Microglial
d)
Ependymal
118.
What is the name of cells that support the cells that send information?
a)
Neurons
b)
Axons
c)
Dendrites
d)
Neuroglia
119.

Reorder the following (starting at the action potential)

a)

Action potential reached (+30mV)

b)

Na+ inactivation gates close, K+ gates open

c)

K+ exits the cell, repolarization

d)

K+ still open, goes below -70 mV, hyperpolarization

e)

Na/K pump restores to resting potential

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
120.

Reorder the following (starting at beginning)

a)

Resting potential (-70mV), stimulus received

b)

Na+ gates open, threshold reached (-55 mV)

c)

Na+ gates open

d)

Na+ moves into the axon

e)

Action potential reached (+30mV)

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
121.

When is the potassium channel open?

a)

during rest only

b)

during repolarization only

c)

during depolarization only

d)

all the time

122.
When a neuron is not engaged in an impulse.
a)
Resting potential
b)
Action potential
c)
Neural potential
d)
Synaptic potential
123.

An electrical impulse within a single neuron is called a

a)

synapse

b)

membrane potential

c)

action potential

d)

cell body

124.

When the membrane potential reaches +30mV, ________ channels open, ________ occurs, and ________ channels close.

a)

sodium, depolarization, potassium

b)

potassium, depoloarization, sodium

c)

sodium, repolarization, potassium

d)

postassium, repolarization, sodium

125.

Which number on the graph represents the threshold potential?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

6

126.
A membrane potential becoming less negative is called
a)

hyperpolarization

b)

depolarization

c)

repolarization

d)

polarization

127.
At which point on the diagram does depolarisation of the axon occur? 
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
128.

At resting membrane potential, neurons have more​ (a)   on the inside of the cell membrane.

Choose from the below words
K+
NaCl
Na+
Cl-
129.

At resting membrane potential, neurons have more​ (a)   on the outside of the cell membrane.

Choose from the below words
Na+
K+
NaCl
Cl-
130.
What is the normal resting potential of a neuron cell membrane?
a)
+40mV
b)
-30mV
c)
+55mV
d)
-70mV
131.

Action potentials run along the ______ from ______ to ________.

a)

axon, dendrites, axon terminals

b)

axon, axon terminals, dendrites

c)

dendrites, axon, axon terminals

d)

axon terminals, axon, dendrites

132.
Which ions are involved in an action potential?
a)
Na; Cl
b)
Na; K
c)
K; Cl
d)
Na; Ca

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