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23 Competition IG Biology

Total questions: 205

Worksheet time: 5hrs 34mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

How many valves are within the heart?

a)

3

b)

4

c)

5

d)

6

2.

There are 2 systems that are apart of the Circulatory System. They are the ____________ and ____________.

a)

Pulmonary and Systemic

b)

Pulmonary and Digestive

c)

Systemic and Excretory

d)

Respiratory and Digestive

3.

The Pulmonary system circulates blood where?

a)

From the heart to the lungs and back

b)

From the rest of the body and back to the heart

c)

From the toes back up to the heart

d)

From the brain down to the toes

4.

The ____________ is the main artery of the heart carrying oxygenated blood to all the parts of the body except the lungs.

a)

aorta

b)

vena cava

c)

heart

d)

right atrium

5.

Your circulatory system uses blood vessels to deliver _________ and nutrients to all the cells in the body and carry ___________ and waste to the lungs.

a)

oxygen, carbon dioxide

b)

carbon dioxide, oxygen

c)

iron, ore

d)

iron, carbon

6.

The _____________ is a large vein carrying deoxygenated blood back to the heart.

a)

aorta

b)

vena cava

c)

capillary

d)

valve

7.

________________ carry blood away from the heart to the body.

a)

arteries

b)

veins

c)

heart

d)

lungs

8.

_________________ carry carbon dioxide and waste from the body towards the heart.

a)

Arteries

b)

Veins

c)

Aorta

d)

Lungs

9.

_____________ are very tiny blood vessels connecting the arteries and veins.

a)

Capillaries

b)

Veins

c)

Arteries

d)

Vena Cava

10.

Which part of the blood is responsible for carrying nutrients and heat around the body?

a)

Plasma

b)

Red blood cells

c)

White blood cells

d)

Platelets

11.

Which of the following does not have valves

a)

Heart

b)

Arteries

c)

nerves

d)

veins

12.

3) Where does the maximum exchange of materials between blood and surrounding cells occurs?

a)

Heart

b)

Veins

c)

Arteries

d)

Capillaries

13.

what does an atrium do

a)

let blood in

b)

let blood out

c)

exchange gases

d)

remove waste

14.

what does a ventricle do

a)

force blood out

b)

let blood in

c)

exchange gases

d)

remove waste

15.

what is the purpose of circulation

a)

supply O2 and nutrients and remove waste

b)

break down the food

c)

get oxygen into the lungs

d)

remove solid waste

16.

left side of the heart is high in

a)

O2

b)

CO2

c)

N

d)

H

17.

what is the function of arteries/arterioles

a)

take blood to heart

b)

take blood away from heart

c)

take blood to colon

d)

take blood to brain

18.

what is the function of the veins/venuoles

a)

take blood toward heart

b)

take blood away from heart

c)

remove waste

d)

take blood to stomach

19.

what happens in systemic circulation

a)

circulation for the entire body

b)

circulation in the heart only

c)

circulation heart and lungs

d)

circulation to digestion system only

20.

what happens in pulmonary circulation

a)

circulation to the lungs

b)

circulation to the body

c)

circulation in the heart

d)

circulation to the brain

21.

what happens in coronary circulation

a)

circulation to the heart

b)

circulation to the body

c)

circulation to the lungs

d)

circulation to small intestine

22.

how is blood pressure created

a)

force of blood against artery wall

b)

force of blood in the heart

c)

force of blood in the lungs

d)

force of blood in the goodwin

23.

what is the function of the capillaries

a)

take blood toward heart

b)

take blood away from heart

c)

exchange gases

d)

exchange fluids

24.

Pathogens that enter the tissue and cause an immune response are recognized as _____ and need to be destroyed by white blood cells.

a)

lymph cells

b)

antigens

c)

cilia

d)

nodes

25.

What do scientists call the microorganisms that can make people sick?  

a)

diseases

b)

vaccines

c)

antibodies

d)

pathogens

26.

Cells that can swallow/ingest pathogens are ____.

a)

plasma cells

b)

phagocytes

c)

helper T cells

d)

memory cells

27.

What do B cells produce?

a)

antigens

b)

macrophages

c)

T cells

d)

antibodies

28.

Which is an example of passive immunity?

a)

You have been infected

b)

You have been vaccinated

c)

You made antibodies

d)

You got your mother's antibodies

29.

What do memory cells do?

a)

Kills infected cells.

b)

Eats pathogens.

c)

Make the immune system work faster next time.

d)

Produce more white blood cells.

30.

Which line of immunity is involved with lymphocytes targeting specific pathogens?

a)

physical and chemical barriers,

b)

non-specific responses

c)

specific adaptive responses

31.

Although vaccines cannot be used to treat a person who is sick, they can help to prevent infections. When a person is vaccinated, what are they injected with? 

a)

antibodies to a disease bacterium

b)

live, active viruses

c)

weakened or dead antigens

d)

blood from a person who has had the disease

32.

Physical and chemical barriers are considered the first line of defense. What do they include?

a)

B memory cells, Antibodies, T cells

b)

Antibodies only

c)

Skin, hair, mucus, cilia, stomach acid.

d)

Bone marrow and stem cells.

33.

Which organ is part of the immune system?

a)

heart

b)

spleen

c)

stomach

d)

pancreas

34.

What is the site of gas exchange?

a)

alveoli

b)

bronchus

c)

nose

d)

trachea

35.

The division of the trachea forms

a)

main bronchi

b)

alveoli

c)

lungs

d)

nose

36.

what is found around alveoli?

a)

capillaries

b)

pleura

c)

lymphatic nodes

d)

saliva

37.

Given the following structures:
1. larynx
2. nasal cavity
3. pharynx
4. trachea
Which of the following is the correct order that air would flow during inhalation. 

a)

1,2,3,4

b)

2,3,1,4

c)

2,1,3,4

d)

4,2,3,1 

38.

Spot 8 is labeling the...

a)

trachea

b)

nasal cavity

c)

bronchi

d)

larynx

39.

What is the main function of the respiratory system?

a)

to provide oxygen and remove carbon dioxide from the body

b)

o break down food and absorb nutrients

c)

to remove oxygen from the body and deliver carbon dioxide

40.

Mechanical movement to inhale and exhale air

a)

Gas Exchange

b)

Respiration

c)

Breathing

d)

Transport

41.

State which of these is the waste gas that is expelled from the body during exhalation.

a)

Sulfur Dioxide

b)

Oxygen

c)

Carbon Monoxide

d)

Carbon Dioxide

42.

When air is pushed OUT of the lungs, what is the correct order for the tubes it passes through?

a)

bronchiole -> bronchi -> trachea -> nose

b)

bronchi -> bronchiole -> trachea -> nose

c)

trachea-> bronchi -> bronchiole-> nose

43.

When air pressure inside the lungs is less than air pressure in the atmosphere...

a)

Air moves into the lungs

b)

Air moves out of the lungs

44.

What muscles are used in breathing in

a)

diaphragm and intercostals

b)

diaphragm and lungs

c)

Abdominals

45.

During exhalation (breathing out) the intercostal muscles and diaphragm __________ and the chest becomes smaller.

a)

contract

b)

relax

46.

What is the product of animal anaerobic respiration (without oxygen)?

a)

lactic acid

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

ethanol

d)

water

47.

Which of the following does not have valves

a)

Heart

b)

Arteries

c)

nerves

d)

veins

48.

3) Where does the maximum exchange of materials between blood and surrounding cells occurs?

a)

Heart

b)

Veins

c)

Arteries

d)

Capillaries

49.

what does an atrium do

a)

let blood in

b)

let blood out

c)

exchange gases

d)

remove waste

50.

what does a ventricle do

a)

force blood out

b)

let blood in

c)

exchange gases

d)

remove waste

51.

what is the purpose of circulation

a)

supply O2 and nutrients and remove waste

b)

break down the food

c)

get oxygen into the lungs

d)

remove solid waste

52.

left side of the heart is high in

a)

O2

b)

CO2

c)

N

d)

H

53.

what is the function of arteries/arterioles

a)

take blood to heart

b)

take blood away from heart

c)

take blood to colon

d)

take blood to brain

54.

what is the function of the veins/venuoles

a)

take blood toward heart

b)

take blood away from heart

c)

remove waste

d)

take blood to stomach

55.

what happens in systemic circulation

a)

circulation for the entire body

b)

circulation in the heart only

c)

circulation heart and lungs

d)

circulation to digestion system only

56.

what happens in pulmonary circulation

a)

circulation to the lungs

b)

circulation to the body

c)

circulation in the heart

d)

circulation to the brain

57.

what happens in coronary circulation

a)

circulation to the heart

b)

circulation to the body

c)

circulation to the lungs

d)

circulation to small intestine

58.

Where is evaporation takes place at a plant?

a)

trunk

b)

root

c)

fruit

d)

surface of leaves

59.

Transpiration is a process of

a)

water gain in the form of liquid

b)

water loss in the form of water vapour

c)

water gain in the form of water vapour

60.

Water loss during transpiration through...

a)

root

b)

flower

c)

stomata in the epidermis

d)

fruit

61.

What are the factors affecting the rate of transpiration in plant?

a)

temperature

b)

light intensity

c)

air humidity

d)

movement of air

e)

all

62.
what is the function of root hair?
a)
it is place to store the food
b)
it has large surface area to absorb more water
63.
Plant transports food made in the leaves to __________. 
a)
roots 
b)
stem
c)
flowers 
d)
all of the above
64.
What is the name of the part of the root that allows water and minerals enter?
a)
root hairs
b)
phloem
c)

cortex

d)

xylem

65.

Water and minerals move in which direction within the plant

a)

Upward

b)

Down

66.

____ of the water taken up by a plant is lost to the atmosphere by transpiration.

a)

2%

b)

98%

c)

20%

d)

12%

67.

What is the name of the tissue in the picture?

a)

Xylem

b)

Cortex

c)

Phloem

d)

Epidermis

68.

A 3 month old baby contracts a virus called whooping cough (pertussis) after receiving the first of a sequence of 3 necessary DPT vaccines designed to prevent 3 diseases (diphtheria, pertussis, and tetanus). The vaccines are given at 2, 4, and 6 months of age to allow the body to develop specific immunity against these diseases. After the infant recovered from the disease, the doctor informed the parents that from now on the infant would only need the DT (diphtheria, tetanus) part of the vaccine. Why does the infant only need the DT vaccine?

a)

The infant had the first of a series of vaccines which caused the disease

b)

The infant had the pertussis disease and has already produced antibodies against the disease.

c)

The infant had the first of a series of vaccines which protected him from getting the disease.

d)

The infant had the pertussis disease and will get diphtheria in the future.

69.

What is the term for a strong response to a harmless antigen in the environment?

a)

An allergy

b)

Cell-mediated immunity

c)

An autoimmune disease

d)

Inflammatory response

70.

Many times people visit the doctor requesting antibiotics to treat colds and viral infections. How is the doctor justified in offering the patient treatment options that do not include antibiotics for these cases?

a)

Colds and viruses should be first treated with viral therapies and then when the body begins to recover, antibiotics can be used. Otherwise, the use of antibiotics is not effective at all.

b)

Side effects from antibiotics are severe when used for colds and viruses. Any use of antibiotics for colds and viruses will only make the patient more ill and ultimately make the patient's recovery time longer.

c)

Antibiotics can weaken the immune system when used for colds and viruses, whereas other medications are not so hard on the immune system during these types of illnesses.

d)

If a doctor provides an antibiotic to treat colds and viruses, any bacteria in the patient's body will be killed, but a few will survive. Those few survivors may become resistant to antibiotics needed for real bacterial illnesses.

71.

What is the body's first line (non-specific) of defense against infection by foreign organisms?

a)

antibodies

b)

lymph nodes

c)

white blood cells

d)

the skin

72.

What are the two parts of the immune system

a)

Innate and Adaptive

b)

Passive and Aggressive

c)

Innate and Non-Specific

d)

Adaptive and Acquired

73.

What is the scientific name of the causes of infectious diseases?

a)

Germ

b)

Pathogen

c)

Intruder

d)

Disease

74.

A protein that attacks antigens is called:

a)

Antibody

b)

Immune response

c)

Inflammatory Response

d)

Vector

75.

What is a vaccine?

a)

A weakened pathogen injected in the body to produce immunity

b)

Temporary immunity that develops as natural exposure

c)

An overreaction of the immune system

d)

Medicine that helps after you're infected

76.

The purpose of the immune system is to:

a)

Help germs invade your body

b)

Fight off sickness

c)

Make your nose run

d)

Give you diarrhea

77.

Which is an example of passive immunity?

a)

You have been infected

b)

You have been vaccinated

c)

You made antibodies

d)

You got your mother's antibodies

78.

Which of the following is an example of active immunity?

a)

You get a vaccination

b)

You create antibodies

c)

You get infected

d)

All of these are correct

79.

True/False: Your body cannot make antibodies for pathogens that you have never been in contact with.

a)

True, because your body needs to encounter the pathogen at least once in order to create the antibodies.

b)

False, because you can make antibodies via immunizations given by a doctor.

80.

Which of the following statements is TRUE about someone's immune system that has allergies?

a)

Body cells are dividing at an uncontrolled rate.

b)

The body is reacting to foreign materials that are not actually dangerous.

c)

T cells and B cells in the body cannot be activated.

d)

The body is mistaking its own cells for foreign antigens.

81.

A white blood cell that destroys pathogens by engulfing them and breaking them down is called:

a)

B-cell

b)

Phagocyte

c)

Antibody

d)

Antigen

82.

A molecule that the immune system recognizes either as part of the body or as coming from outside the body:

a)

Antigen

b)

Antibodies

c)

Antibiotics

d)

Antipaths

83.

True or false: Sneezes and coughs help your body to get rid of pathogens

a)

true

b)

false

84.

A disease that is harmful to the body and is contagious is called....

a)

Non-Infectious

b)

Infectious

85.

What are the 4 types of pathogens that could cause illness?

a)

animals, bacteria, fungi and plants

b)

bacteria, fungi, nucleus, parasites

c)

bacteria, fungi, viruses, parasites

d)

bacteria, plants, fungi, parasites

86.

This type of immunity can be called nonspecific and refers to the bodies defenses that are present since birth.

a)

resistance

b)

adaptive immunity

c)

acquired immunity

d)

innate immunity

87.

Disease transferred from one person to another is what mode of transmission?

a)

direct contact

b)

indirect contact

c)

sharing utensils

d)

airborn

88.

Anything that triggers an immune response is a/n

a)

lymph cell

b)

antigen

c)

antibody

d)

neutrop

89.

What is the body's first line of defense against disease?

a)

skin

b)

blood

c)

antibodies

d)

enzymes

90.

How are vaccinations able to help us develop immunity?

a)

Exposure to disease creates antibodies which make us immune

b)

Exposure to antibodies which makes us the disease immune to us

c)

Exposure to immunity's which make us antibodies to the disease

91.

Which pathogen can be cured by antivirals?

a)

Virus

b)

Bacteria

c)

Protist

d)

Fungi

92.

Which pathogen can be cured by antibiotics?

a)

Virus

b)

Bacteria

c)

Protist

d)

Fungi

93.

What type of immunity develops when you receive antibodies to a disease?

a)

Innate

b)

Developed

c)

Adaptive

d)

Passive

94.

The complex system of cells and proteins that defend the body against infection is called...

a)

The endocrine system

b)

The respiratory system

c)

the immune system

d)

the circulatory system

95.

If you have immunity to a disease:

a)

It can not enter your body

b)

Your body can fight the disease off before it makes you sick.

c)

The germs change as soon as they enter your body.

d)

You will be able to recover very quickly.

96.

What do antibodies do?

a)

Attach themselves to germs to flag them for destruction.

b)

Engulf and digest germs.

c)

Make your cells impenetrable to germs.

d)

Carry genes from your bloodstream to the outside of your body.

97.

What might happen if your immune system lacked memory cells?

a)

Your body wouldn't be able to fight off diseases.

b)

Diseases would make you sicker than normal.

c)

You might get the same disease over and over.

d)

Your body wouldn't be able to produce antibodies.

98.

A person develops natural immunity.

a)

Before getting sick.

b)

After one dose of a vaccine.

c)

After several doses of a vaccine.

d)

After recovering from an illness.

99.

Unlike germs in nature, the germs used in vaccines:

a)

Don't have antigens

b)

Are weakened or altered

c)

Aren't real germs

d)

Change share frequently

100.

Who benefits from herd immunity?

a)

Young children

b)

Elderly people

c)

Cancer patients

d)

All of the above

101.

What do measles, smallpox and polio have in common?

a)

They are caused by bacteria.

b)

Vaccines have dramatically reduced the number of people who catch them.

c)

They are constantly changing

d)

They have been wiped out forever.

102.

mRNA vaccines work by

a)

introducing inactivated virus into the body to start an immune response.

b)

having your own cells make a protein from the virus so your immune cells will recognize the virus.

c)

changing the DNA of your cells to protect you from infection from the virus.

d)

using a carrier virus to start an immune response.

103.

Sometimes vaccines need boosters to remain effective.

a)

True

b)

False

104.

Edward Jenner succeeded in creating a vaccine against smallpox by injecting patients with material of which disease?

a)

Small pox

b)

Cow pox

c)

Cattle Virus

d)

Measles Virus

105.

Since we have our immune system to protect us from disease, why do we still need a vaccine?

a)

Because some diseases are too severe for our immune system.

b)

Because adaptive immunity takes days to weeks to initiate a response and sometimes it is too late.

c)

Because some people are immune deficient or have weak immune systems.

d)

All of the above

106.

In which way are photosynthesis and cellular respiration different?

a)

Cellular respiration stores ATP, while photosynthesis releases ATP.

b)

Cellular respiration produces oxygen, while photosynthesis uses oxygen.

c)

Photosynthesis releases energy, while cellular respiration stores energy.

d)

Photosynthesis uses carbon dioxide, while cellular respiration produces carbon dioxide.

107.

What is the correct equation for cellular respiration?

a)

6O2 + C6H12O6 -> 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy

b)

6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy -> 6CO2 + 6H2O

c)

6CO2 + 6H2O -> 6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy

d)

6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy -> 6O2 + C6H12O6

108.

What does metabolism mean?

a)

Converting energy into food

b)

Making light reactions happen

c)

Converting food into energy

109.

Fermentation enables glycolysis to continue under 

a)

anaerobic conditions

b)

aerobic conditions

c)

photosynthetic conditions

d)

hydrophobic conditions

110.

Which organism go through cellular respiration?

a)

animals

b)

plants

c)

both animals and plants

d)

none

111.

Cellular Respiration occurs in what cell organelle?

a)

chloroplast

b)

cytoplasm

c)

mitochondria

d)

animal

112.

Which molecule is the reactant of Glycolysis?

a)

water

b)

glucose

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

ATP

113.

Which type of respiration is most efficient?

a)

Aerobic

b)

Anaerobic

114.

If ADP is phosphorylated then what is this indicating in the reaction? 

a)

ADP is forming into ATP

b)

ADP is becoming AMP

c)

ADP is being used to power other reactions

d)

ADP is being created by the reaction

115.

What is the main job of the electron carriers in cellular respiration? 

a)

Transport electrons and hydrogen atoms to the electron transport chain 

b)

Capture energy throughout the process of cellular respiration

c)

Provide the reactants for the process of cellular respiration

d)

Pump positive hydrogen ions and shuttle electrons across the electron transport chain and contribute to chemiosmosis

116.

What is cellular respiration?

a)

the breakdown of glucose  to release ATP

b)

the breakdown of glucose to release NADH

c)

the breakdown of glucose to release FADH

d)

the breakdown of glucose to release carbon

117.

NADH is a ______ form of NAD+.

a)

Reduced

b)

Oxidized

c)

Catabolized

d)

Hydrolized

118.

How many ATP are gained through glycolysis?

a)

0

b)

2

c)

4

d)

30-38

119.

During chemiosmosis

a)

H+ ions serve as the final electron acceptor

b)

a concentration gradient is generated when H+ ions are passively transported from the matrix to the intermembrane space of the mitochondrion

c)

energy is released as H+ ions move freely across the mitochondrial membrane

d)

ATP is synthesized when H+ ions move through a channel in ATP synthase

120.

What are the stages of cellular respiration in order?

a)

glycolysis, oxidative phosphorylation, the citric acid cycle

b)

oxidative phosphorylation, glycolysis, the citric acid cycle

c)

glycolysis, the citric acid cycle, oxidative phosphorylation

d)

the citric acid cycle, oxidative phosphorylation, glycolysis

121.

Use the diagram to answer the question. Between which parts of the molecule must the bonds be broken to form an ADP molecule?

a)

A and B

b)

A and C

c)

B and C

d)

C and D

122.

What process is found in both aerobic and anaerobic metabolism?

a)

the Kreb's cycle

b)

oxidative phosphorylation

c)

the citric acid cycle

d)

glycolysis

123.

It is possible for both prokaryotes and eukaryotes to perform glycolysis because it occurs in the _____________

a)

mitochondrial matrix

b)

inner membrane

c)

cytoplasm

d)

cell membrane

124.

In the absence of oxygen, ____ follows glycolysis.

a)

the link reaction

b)

the citric acid cycle

c)

fermentation

d)

the calvin cycle

125.

Anaerobic respiration yields about ______ ATP per glucose whereas aerobic respiration yields about _______ ATP per glucose.

a)

38, 2

b)

2, 38

c)

2, 18

d)

18, 2

126.

When you breathe, your lungs take in ___ and remove ___.

a)

air/oxygen

b)

oxygen/carbon dioxide

c)

carbon dioxide/waste

d)

waste/air

127.

The air sacs that are covered with capillaries where gas exchange takes place

a)

bronchi

b)

lungs

c)

oxygen

d)

alveoli

128.

Which of the following are features of the alveoli that adapt them to gas exchange?

I. High surface area

II. Thin walls

III. Dry surfaces

a)

I and II only

b)

I only

c)

II and III

d)

I, II, and III

129.

What adaptations does the alveoli have for efficient gas exchange?

a)

thick walls

b)

thin walls

c)

small surface area

130.

The movement by diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide across a membrane

a)

Ventilation

b)

Breathing

c)

Gas exchange

d)

Respiration

131.

Diaphragm is

a)

part of lungs

b)

muscle that helps in breathing

c)

throat muscle

d)

structure in bones

132.

Which type of food is not digested before being absorbed by the body?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

133.

In which structure is most glucose absorbed into the blood?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

134.

Which dietary component is unlikely to be deficient in a meat-free diet?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

135.

In which organs does the digestion of proteins take place?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

136.

Which organ produces amylase?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

137.

What is process X?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

138.

Which structures secrete enzymes that digest proteins?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

139.

Why is it a good ideas to brush teeth after eating?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

140.

Which substance catalyses the breakdown of fats into fatty acids and glycerol?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

141.

Which food would be best for a child who has rickets?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

142.

Why does chewing food speed up digestion?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

143.

What was in food X?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

144.

Which tooth is an incisor?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

145.

Which statement is correct?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

146.

In which organs does the digestion of carbohydrates take place?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

147.

What is the result of a diet lacking iron?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

148.

Which nutrient would be in low levels in the diet?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

149.

This could be caused by a lack of which nutrient?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

150.

In which order does the dietary fibre pass through these structures?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

151.

Which product, or products, will now be present in the test-tube?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

152.

Digestion starts when you place the food in your mouth and start chewing. Once the food is chewed into a paste and you swallow it will enter the_____________.

a)

Small intestines

b)

Lungs

c)

Esophagus

d)

Trachea

153.

The acid in our stomach is powerful enough to break down metals like aluminum, how does our stomach protect itself from the acid within it?

a)

our stomachs are coated with a layer of mucus that protects its from the acid

b)

our stomachs are made of a special tissue that is resistant to acid

c)

our stomachs regenerate faster than the acids ability to break down tissue

d)

because it the stomach is basic

154.

Define the term digestion

a)

The movement of nutrients from the digestive system into the blood

b)

The removal of undigested food from the body

c)

The breaking down of large insoluble molecules into small soluble molecules

d)

The taking in of nutrients.

155.

Define the term egestion

a)

The movement of nutrients from the digestive system into the blood

b)

The removal of undigested food from the body

c)

The breaking down of large insoluble molecules into small soluble molecules

d)

The taking in of nutrients.

156.

Define the term chemical digestion

a)

The breaking down of large food molecules by the use of enzymes.

b)

The physical break down of food done by the teeth or the muscles in the stomach.

157.

What is absorbed into the blood from the large intestine?

a)

Digested nutrients

b)

Fibre

c)

Water

d)

Chyme

158.

What is the job of the pancreas in digestion?

a)

Produces acid

b)

Produces bile

c)

Produces digestive enzymes

d)

Produces chyme

159.

What 3 letters do enzymes typically end in?

a)

-ose

b)

-ase

c)

-ese

d)

-tic

160.

Identify the structures in the image that give the alimentary canal a very large surface area for the absorption of digested food

(a)  

161.

Identify the enzyme that has the lowest optimum pH

a)

Salivary amylase

b)

Lipase

c)

Pepsin

d)

Maltase

162.

Identify the location where the digestion of starch first occurs

a)

Duodenum

b)

Mouth

c)

Stomach

d)

Colon

163.

Identify the products of protein digestion

a)

Fatty acids

b)

Glucose

c)

Amino acids

d)

Maltose

164.

Which enzyme produced by the pancreas digests fats in the duodenum?

(a)  

165.

Which liquid produced by the liver helps to emulsifies fats in the small intestine?

(a)  

166.

Identify the molecule produced when starch is digested by amylase

a)

Maltose

b)

Glucose

c)

Fatty acids

d)

Glycerol

167.

Identify the organ that produces enzymes in the image

a)

Oesophagus

b)

Colon

c)

Liver

d)

Pancreas

168.

Where in the alimentary canal does protein digestion first occur?

a)

Oesophagus

b)

Duodenum

c)

Colon

d)

Stomach

169.

Where in the digestive system is maltase found

a)

In saliva

b)

Oesophagus

c)

Membrane of cells lining small intestine

d)

Colon

170.

Define the term ingestion

a)

The movement of nutrients from the digestive system into the blood

b)

The removal of undigested food from the body

c)

The breaking down of large insoluble molecules into small soluble molecules

d)

The taking in of nutrients.

171.

Which of the following are types of partially digested food? (select two)

a)

Chronus

b)

Bolus

c)

Rugae

d)

Chyme

172.

Recall what is dissolved in the water in the xylem.

a)

Glucose

b)

Amino acids

c)

Mineral ions

d)

Starch

173.

Select which of the following statements are true for phloem.

a)

Bi-directional movement (up and down stem).

b)

Elongated, tubular shape with thin walled sieve tubes.

c)

Transportation of feed and nutrients.

d)

Occupy the centre of the vascular bundle.

e)

Water and mineral transport from roots to aerial parts of the plant.

174.

Recall what substance is used to thicken and strengthen xylem walls in woody plants.

a)

Protein

b)

Mineral ions

c)

Lignin

d)

Glucose

175.

Phloem tubes are made of...

a)

Dead cells

b)

Living cells

176.

Xylem tubes are made of...

a)

Dead cells

b)

Living cells

177.

What is the role of companion cells in phloem tissue?

a)

They help in the transport of water

b)

They assist in the transport of sugars and organic compounds

c)

They provide structural support to the plant

d)

They produce oxygen for the plant

178.

Which of the following sentence shows correct relation between xylem structure and function?

a)

xylem transport water up and down so that every plant organ get enough water

b)

xylem consists of living cell so water transport can be faster

c)

xylem cell wall is lignified so that it will not easily collapse

d)

xylem located outside of the phloem so that water can enter it in shorter way

179.

What is the difference between the transport direction of xylem and phloem tissue?

a)

Xylem transports upward, phloem transports downward

b)

Xylem transports downward, phloem transports upward

c)

Both xylem and phloem transport in the same direction

d)

Both xylem and phloem transport in opposite directions

180.

What is the role of xylem fibers in xylem tissue?

a)

They help in the transport of sugars and organic compounds

b)

They assist in the transport of water and minerals

c)

They provide structural support to the plant

d)

They produce oxygen for the plant

181.

What is the process called when sugars move from the leaves to other parts of the plant through phloem?

a)

respiration

b)

photosynthesis

c)

translocation

d)

transpiration

182.

What is the major difference between xylem and phloem?

a)

Xylem transports sugars and organic compounds, while phloem transports water and minerals.

b)

Xylem and phloem have the same function of transporting sugars and organic compounds.

c)

Xylem transports water and minerals, while phloem transports sugars and organic compounds.

d)

Xylem and phloem both transport water and minerals.

183.

What PART of the plant collects water?

a)

leaves

b)

flower

c)

roots

d)

stem

184.

What does the Phloem transport?

a)

Water and Minerals

b)

Sucrose and Amino Acids

c)

Blood

d)

Chlorophyll

185.

Select which of the following statements are true for xylem.

a)

Tubular shape with no cross walls.

b)

Transportation of food and nutrients.

c)

Elongated, tubular shape with thin walled sieve tubes.

d)

Occupy the center of the vascular bundle.

e)

Water and mineral transport from roots to aerial parts of the plant.

186.

What is it called when water sticks to water?

a)

Cohesion

b)

Adhesion

c)

Capillary Action

d)

Xylem

187.

An example of adhesion is

a)

Water molecules sticking to each other

b)

Water molecules sticking to cellulose in xylem walls

c)

Magnets sticking to a metal wall

d)

Gravity pulling water down

188.

When the forces of cohesion and adhesion work together, water can move up the plant against the force of gravity by....

a)

Phototropism

b)

Geotropism

c)

Photosynthesis

d)

Capillary Action

189.

How does water enter a plant?

a)

through the stomata

b)

through the roots

c)

by active transport in root hair cells

d)

by osmosis in root hair cells

190.

How do mineral ions enter a plant?

a)

by osmosis in root hair cells

b)

by active transport in root hair cells

c)

through the stomata

d)

through the roots

191.

Which process are the xylem tubes part of?

a)

Translocation

b)

Transpiration

192.

The picture below is an example of _________________.

a)

osmosis

b)

isotonic

c)

diffusion

d)

active transport

193.

During osmosis

a)

water moves from high to low concentration

b)

large or oddly shaped molecules move across a cell membrane

c)

water moves when energy is used

d)

proteins are built

194.

Passive transport requires no

a)

concentration gradients

b)

osmosis

c)

motion

d)

energy

195.

_______ regulates what enters and leaves a cell.  

a)

Cell Membrane

b)

Nucleus

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Cytoplasm

196.

What is the definition of Semi Permeability?

a)

The movement of materials across the cell membrane that requires NO ENERGY from the cell.

b)

The movement of materials through (or across) the cell membrane

c)

The ability of the cell membrane to allow some things to pass through while preventing other things from passing through.

d)

The movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to a area of low concentration 

197.

In passive transport, molecules move from an area of __________ concentration to an area of __________ concentraiton

a)

high, low

b)

low, high

c)

water, salt

d)

active, passive

198.

Osmosis is the movement of _____ across a membrane.

a)

food

b)

energy

c)

oxygen

d)

water

199.

Which type of transport requires an input of energy?

a)

Passive Transport

b)

Osmosis

c)

Simple Diffusion

d)

Active Transport

200.

ALL living cells have this in common

a)

Nucleus

b)

Cell Membrane

c)

Cell Wall

d)

Mitochondria

201.

Exocytosis is the movement of

a)

any type of substance from outside the cell to the inside of the cell. 

b)

very large substances from outside the cell to the inside of the cell. 

c)

any type of substance from inside the cell to the outside.

d)

very large substances from inside the cell to the outside.

202.

In this image, the cell is using which type of molecular transport?

a)

Osmosis

b)

Diffusion 

c)

Endocytosis

d)

Exocytosis 

203.

This picture represents what type of cell transport?

a)

endocytosis

b)

exocytosis

c)

osmosis

d)

passive transport

204.

This picture represents which type of cellular transport?

a)

passive transport

b)

endocytosis

c)

exocytosis

d)

osmosis

205.

Using a cell's energy to move particles is an example of

a)

osmosis

b)

simple diffusion

c)

facilitated diffusion

d)

active transport