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Chapters 8 & 9 Review

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Most ocean waves form as a result of _______.

a)

seismic events

b)

winds blowing across the ocean surface

c)

landslides

d)

density differences between water layers

e)

Earth's rotation

2.

An internal wave might form _______.

a)

at a density boundary within the ocean

b)

at the boundary between the atmosphere and the ocean

c)

at the boundary between the ocean and the seafloor

d)

close to shore as it moves into shallow water

e)

only as a result of tidal activity

3.

_______ occur only in the upper part of the ocean.

a)

Sea waves

b)

Internal waves

c)

Surface waves

d)

Body waves

e)

Splash waves

4.

Which of the following causes ocean tides to occur?

a)

Moon and sun

b)

Earthquakes

c)

Volcanoes

d)

Landslides

e)

Wind

5.

Tidal movement, turbidity currents, wind stress, and even passing ships at the surface create _______ waves.

a)

internal

b)

ocean

c)

splash

d)

tidal

e)

turbidity

6.

The uplift or downdropping of large areas of the sea floor creates _______ waves.

a)

internal

b)

ocean

c)

tsunami

d)

splash

e)

tidal

7.

Waves at the ocean surface are ________ waves.

a)

longitudinal

b)

orbital

c)

reflective

d)

refractive

e)

transverse

8.

________ waves also known as interface waves.

a)

Longitudinal

b)

Orbital

c)

Reflective

d)

Refractive

e)

Transverse

9.

The ratio of wave height to wavelength is called the ________.

a)

frequency

b)

period

c)

wave height

d)

wavelength

e)

wave steepness

10.

The time between two successive waves is called the ________.

a)

crest

b)

frequency

c)

height

d)

period

e)

trough

11.

Wave celerity is equal to ________.

a)

wave height divided by frequency

b)

wave height divided by period

c)

wavelength divided by fetch

d)

wavelength divided by frequency

e)

wavelength divided by period

12.

The circular motion of water molecules extends to a depth that is equal to ________.

a)

wave height/wavelength

b)

wave height/wave period

c)

wavelength/wave height

d)

wavelength/2

e)

wavelength/20

13.

The diameter of a wave orbital at the surface is equal to _______.

a)

wave height

b)

wave height/wavelength

c)

wavelength

d)

wavelength/wave period

e)

wave period

14.

A deep-water wave occurs when the water depth is equal to at least _______.

a)

the fetch

b)

wave height

c)

wavelength

d)

1/2 of the wavelength

e)

1/20 of the wavelength

15.

The speed of a deep-water wave is proportional to _______.

a)

water depth

b)

wave frequency

c)

wave height

d)

wave speed or celerity

e)

wavelength

16.

The speed of a shallow-water wave is proportional to _______.

a)

water depth

b)

wave frequency

c)

wave height

d)

wave period

e)

wavelength

17.

The _______ is the vertical distance between a crest and a trough.

a)

wavelength

b)

wave base

c)

wave steepness

d)

still water level

e)

wave height

18.

Halfway between the crests and the troughs is the _______.

a)

still water level

b)

wave base

c)

wavelength

d)

wave height

e)

wave steepness

19.

The high parts of the waves are called _______.

a)

breakers

b)

bumps

c)

crests

d)

hills

e)

tops

20.

The low parts of the waves are called _______.

a)

bottoms

b)

breakers

c)

holes

d)

hollows

e)

troughs

21.

The horizontal distance between wave crest to crest is called the _______.

a)

wave frequency

b)

wave height

c)

wave period

d)

wave steepness

e)

wavelength

22.

The number of wave crests passing a fixed location per unit of time is called the _______.

a)

wave base

b)

wave frequency

c)

wave period

d)

waveform

e)

wavelength

23.

Wave speed of deep-water waves depends only on _______.

a)

wave period

b)

wavelength

c)

wave drift

d)

waveform

e)

wave frequency

24.

Based on the graph, what is the approximate speed, in meters per second, of a deep-water wave with a wavelength of 300 meters?

a)

8 meters per second

b)

12 meters per second

c)

18 meters per second

d)

22 meters per second

e)

27 meters per second

25.

Based on the graph, what is the approximate period of a deep-water wave with a speed of 25 meters per second?

a)

3.5 seconds

b)

6.7 seconds

c)

10 seconds

d)

13 seconds

e)

16 seconds

26.

Based on the graph, a deep-water wave with a period of 16 seconds should have a speed of _______ meters per second and a wavelength of _______ meters.

a)

12.5; 100

b)

18.0; 200

c)

22.0; 300

d)

25.0; 400

e)

27.0; 500

27.

The first wave that forms when the wind begins to blow across the ocean surface is a _______.

a)

tide

b)

tsunami

c)

wind waves

d)

seiche

e)

capillary wave

28.

In general, the restoring force for most wind-generated waves is _______.

a)

cohesion of water molecules

b)

gravity

c)

seismic activity

d)

surface tension of water molecules

e)

wind

29.

The height of a wave depends upon _______.

a)

fetch

b)

fetch and wind speed

c)

fetch, wind duration, and wind speed

d)

wind duration

e)

wind duration and wind speed

30.

The fetch refers to _______.

a)

a method of shoreline erosion control

b)

a type of wave-cut platform

c)

the circular pattern made by water particles when a wave passes

d)

the distance between the trough of a wave and the still water level

e)

the distance over which the wind blows without interruption

31.

Rogue waves tend to occur _______.

a)

in areas where wind belts converge

b)

in coastal areas with weak sea breezes

c)

in upwelling zones

d)

only in the southern ocean below 60°S latitude

e)

where storm waves move against strong surface currents

32.

Rogue waves are created along the "Wild Coast" off the southeast coast of _______, where the Agulhas Current flows directly against large Antarctic storm waves.

a)

South America

b)

Antarctica

c)

China

d)

Africa

e)

Australia

33.

Waves from separate sea areas move away as swell and produce an interference pattern when they come together. If Sea A has wave heights of 1.5 meters and Sea B has wave heights of 3.5 meters, what would be the height of waves resulting from constructive interference?

a)

1.5 meters

b)

3.5 meters

c)

5 meters

d)

5.25 meters

e)

6 meters

34.

Waves from separate sea areas move away as swell and produce an interference pattern when they come together. If Sea A has wave heights of 1.5 meters and Sea B has wave heights of 3.5 meters, what would be the height of waves resulting from destructive interference?

a)

1.5 meters

b)

2 meters

c)

3.5 meters

d)

5 meters

e)

6 meters

35.

As a wave begins to feel bottom near a shoreline, its wave height _______.

a)

decreases and its steepness decreases

b)

decreases and its wavelength increases

c)

increases and its frequency decreases

d)

increases and its wavelength decreases

e)

increases and its wavelength remains the same

36.

Waves in the surf zone begin to behave like shallow-water waves when _______.

a)

distance from shore < wavelength

b)

steepness = 1:7

c)

water depth = wave height

d)

water depth = wavelength/20

e)

wavelength < wave height

37.

Waves that are breaking along the shore and are forming a curling crest over an air pocket are called _______.

a)

gravity waves

b)

plunging breakers

c)

spilling breakers

d)

surf

e)

swells

38.

Waves converge on headlands due to _______.

a)

constructive interference

b)

destructive interference

c)

wave diffraction

d)

wave reflection

e)

wave refraction

39.

Which of the following, from earliest to latest, represents the typical wave formation?

a)

Sea, surf, swell

b)

Sea, swell, surf

c)

Surf, swell, sea

d)

Surf, sea, swell

e)

Swell, sea, surf

40.

_______ is a turbulent mass of air and water that runs down the front slope of the wave as it breaks.

a)

Spilling breaker

b)

Plunging breaker

c)

Surging breaker

d)

Shoaling breaker

41.

Most waves generated in the sea area by storm winds move across the ocean as _______.

a)

surf

b)

swell

c)

wave break

d)

surf zone

e)

wedge

42.

Which type of breaker forms on moderately steep beach slopes?

a)

Plunging breaker

b)

Spilling breaker

c)

Standing breaker

d)

Surging breaker

e)

Swelling breaker

43.

Which type of breaker forms when the ocean bottom has an abrupt slope?

a)

Plunging breaker

b)

Spilling breaker

c)

Standing breaker

d)

Surging breaker

e)

Swelling breaker

44.

Which type of breaker forms when the waves build up and break right at the shoreline?

a)

Plunging breaker

b)

Spilling breaker

c)

Standing breaker

d)

Surging breaker

e)

Swelling breaker

45.

Refraction causes headlands to be areas of _______ surfing and sites of _______.

a)

good; deposition

b)

good; erosion

c)

poor; deposition

d)

poor; erosion

46.

An unintended consequence of the jetty that protects the harbor entrance at Newport Harbor, California is a wave pattern that has crippled and killed many body surfers due to

a)

destructive interference

b)

standing waves

c)

tsunami

d)

wave reflection

e)

wave refraction

47.

A tsunami may result from _______.

a)

a large deep-water wave

b)

a storm surge

c)

an intense storm

d)

constructive wave interference

e)

tectonic activity on the seafloor

48.

A tsunami is considered to be a _______.

a)

capillary wave

b)

deep-water wave

c)

reflected wave

d)

refracted wave

e)

shallow-water wave

49.

What is the PTWC?

a)

Pacific Tsunami Watch Center

b)

Pacific Tsunami Warning Center

c)

Pacific Tsunami Watch Capital

d)

Pacific Tsunami Warning Capital

50.

Where do most tsunami occur?

a)

Atlantic Ocean

b)

Pacific Ocean

c)

Indian Ocean

d)

Southern Ocean

e)

Arctic Ocean

51.

Which tsunami event had the greatest fatalities?

a)

Nicaragua

b)

Samoa

c)

Chile

d)

Sumatra, Indonesia

e)

Northern Chile

52.

Which of the following must endure more tsunami than any other place?

a)

Australia

b)

South America

c)

Africa

d)

North America

e)

Japan

53.

A vast majority of all large tsunami are generated in the _______ Ocean.

a)

Antarctic

b)

Atlantic

c)

Indian

d)

Pacific

e)

Southern

54.

The world currently produces about _______ from all sources.

a)

10 terawatts

b)

12 terawatts

c)

14 terawatts

d)

16 terawatts

55.

Conditions for the development of wave energy are most optimal along _______ shores in the _______ Hemisphere.

a)

eastern; Northern

b)

eastern; Southern

c)

western; Northern

d)

western; Southern

56.

Conditions for the development of wave energy are least optimal along _______ shores in the _______ Hemisphere.

a)

eastern; Northern

b)

eastern; Southern

c)

western; Northern

d)

western; Southern

57.

The center of mass of the Earth-Moon system is called the _______.

a)

perigee

b)

apogee

c)

perihelion

d)

aphelion

e)

barycenter

58.

How long is a lunar day?

a)

24 hours

b)

24 hours 20 minutes

c)

24 hours 30 minutes

d)

24 hours 50 minutes

e)

25 hours

59.

Which of the following best explains why there is a difference between a lunar day and a solar day?

a)

During one Earth rotation, the Moon has continued orbiting Earth.

b)

The Moon must rotate an additional 50 minutes to catch up to Earth.

c)

The solar day and lunar day are measured from different meridians.

d)

The Sun has a stronger pull on the larger Earth versus the smaller Moon.

e)

The tide-generating forces of the Sun and Moon are working at right angles.

60.

The force that creates two simultaneous ocean bulges on opposite sides of Earth, directed toward or away from the Moon, is called the _______ force.

a)

barycentric

b)

nadir

c)

oceanographic

d)

tide-generating

e)

zenith

61.

The vertical difference between consecutive high and low tides is called the _______.

a)

ebb tide

b)

flood tide

c)

tidal bore

d)

tidal height

e)

tidal range

62.

When the Earth is at its greatest distance from the Sun, it is said to be at _______.

a)

perihelion

b)

aphelion

c)

proxigean

d)

apogee

e)

perigee

63.

The center of an open ocean tidal system is called a(n) _______.

a)

amphidromic point

b)

cotidal center

c)

rotary center

d)

seiche

e)

tidal flux

64.

An area that experiences semidiurnal tides will have _______.

a)

one high tide and one low tide daily

b)

one high tide and two low tides daily

c)

one low tide and two high tides daily

d)

two high tides and two low tides of nearly equal height daily

e)

two unequal low and high tides daily

65.

An area that experiences diurnal tides will have _______.

a)

one high tide and one low tide daily

b)

one high tide and two low tides daily

c)

one low tide and two high tides daily

d)

two high tides and two low tides of nearly equal height daily

66.

The most common tidal pattern around the world are _______.

a)

diurnal tides

b)

mixed tides

c)

proxigean tides

d)

semidiurnal tides

67.

In the United States, semidiurnal tides commonly occur along the _______.

a)

Atlantic coast

b)

Gulf of Alaska

c)

Gulf of Mexico coast

d)

Florida Keys

68.

In the United States, mixed tides commonly occur along _______.

a)

the Atlantic coast

b)

Cape Cod

c)

the Gulf of Mexico coast

d)

the Florida Keys

e)

Pacific Coast

69.

Diurnal tides have a tidal period of _______.

a)

24 hours

b)

24 hours 30 minutes

c)

24 hours 50 minutes

d)

25 hours 30 minutes

70.

Semidiurnal tides have a period of _______.

a)

12 hours

b)

12 hours 25 minutes

c)

12 hours 50 minutes

d)

13 hours

71.

Mixed tides have a period of _______.

a)

12 hours

b)

12 hours 25 minutes

c)

12 hours 50 minutes

d)

13 hours

72.

The Bay of Fundy is well known for which tidal characteristic?

a)

A diurnal tide

b)

Two amphidromic points

c)

Very large seiche

d)

Very low tidal range

e)

Very high tidal range

73.

Water flowing out of an enclosed basin due to the tides is called a(n) ________.

a)

ebb current

b)

flood current

c)

tidal bore

d)

spring tide

74.

Which of the following produces a tidal current?

a)

Both ebb tides and flood tides

b)

Both neap tides and spring tides

c)

Ebb tide

d)

Flood tide

e)

Spring tide

75.

Where are the largest tidal bores in the world located?

a)

Europe

b)

China

c)

Africa

d)

United States

e)

Australia

76.

The Maelstrom off the coast of ________ is one of the strongest whirlpools in the world.

a)

Canada

b)

Italy

c)

Japan

d)

Norway

e)

Scotland

77.

Whirlpools can be created in some restricted shallow passages due to ________.

a)

a vertically mixed estuary

b)

reversing tidal currents

c)

tidal bores up low-lying rivers

d)

tsunamis or tidal waves

e)

wave refraction

78.

In 2011, which country installed a tidal power plant capable of producing 254 megawatts of electricity?

a)

North Korea

b)

South Korea

c)

China

d)

Asia

e)

Italy

79.

Which of the following rivers is the second largest tidal range in the world?

a)

Severn River

b)

Thames River

c)

Ure River

d)

Trent River

e)

Fleet River

80.

Which of the following statements comparing a tidal power electricity-generating with a conventional thermal power plant is correct?

a)

The initial cost of building a tidal power electricity-generating plant may be lower.

b)

The operating costs of a tidal power electricity-generating plant are higher.

c)

The periodicity of the tides is an advantage of a tidal power electricity-generating plant.

d)

Tidal power initially requires fossil or nuclear fuels to get started.

e)

Tidal power is considered a cleaner and renewable resource.

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