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Total questions: 170

Worksheet time: 3hrs 59mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the correct order of the cell cycle?

a)
Mitosis, Interphase, Cytokinesis
b)
Cytokinesis, Mitosis, Interphase
c)
Interphase, Mitosis, Cytokinesis
d)
Interphase, Cytokineses, Mitosis
2.

What is the correct order of the cell cycle?

a)
Mitosis, Interphase, Cytokinesis
b)
Cytokinesis, Mitosis, Interphase
c)
Interphase, Mitosis, Cytokinesis
d)
Interphase, Cytokineses, Mitosis
3.

What is the correct order for the phases of Mitosis

a)
Prophase, Metaphase, Telophase Anaphase,
b)
Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase
c)
Metaphase, Telophase, Anaphase, Prophase
d)
Telophase, Metaphase, Prophase, Anaphase
4.

A cell that has 23 chromosomes would have _______ daughter cells that each have _____ chromosomes after mitosis.

a)
1, 23
b)
2, 12
c)
1, 12
d)
2, 23
5.

A cell that has 23 chromosomes would have _______ daughter cells that each have _____ chromosomes after mitosis.

a)
1, 23
b)
2, 12
c)
1, 12
d)
2, 23
6.

What happens to the amount of DNA in the nucleus just before the beginning of mitosis and why?

a)

The amount of DNA is doubled so that the two new cells each have the same original amount

b)

The cell grows to twice its original size

c)

Cytoplasm divides

d)

The amount of chromosomes triples

7.

What happens to the amount of DNA in the nucleus just before the beginning of mitosis and why?

a)

The amount of DNA is doubled so that the two new cells each have the same original amount

b)

The cell grows to twice its original size

c)

Cytoplasm divides

d)

The amount of chromosomes triples

8.

What happens to the amount of DNA in the nucleus just before the beginning of mitosis and why?

a)

The amount of DNA is doubled so that the two new cells each have the same original amount

b)

The cell grows to twice its original size

c)

Cytoplasm divides

d)

The amount of chromosomes triples

9.

What is the end result of mitosis and cytokinesis?

a)

Two new daughters cells

b)

Cells that have the same genetic material as the original cell

c)

Four new daughter cells

d)

Cells that have small differences from the original cell

10.

What is the end result of mitosis and cytokinesis?

a)

Two new daughters cells

b)

Cells that have the same genetic material as the original cell

c)

Four new daughter cells

d)

Cells that have small differences from the original cell

11.
What process does a multi-cellular organism use to replace its damaged body cells?
a)
mitosis
b)
meiosis
c)
replication
d)
transcription
12.
What process does a multi-cellular organism use to replace its damaged body cells?
a)
mitosis
b)
meiosis
c)
replication
d)
transcription
13.
What process does a multi-cellular organism use to replace its damaged body cells?
a)
mitosis
b)
meiosis
c)
replication
d)
transcription
14.

What is the image above:

a)

Chromosome

b)

Chromotid

c)

Centromere

d)

Centriole

15.

What is the image above:

a)

Chromosome

b)

Chromotid

c)

Centromere

d)

Centriole

16.

What do we call the science of using the genetic makeup living things to create products?

a)

Biotechnology

b)

Genealogy

c)

Pharmacology

d)

Neurology

17.

What do we call the science of using the genetic makeup living things to create products?

a)

Biotechnology

b)

Genealogy

c)

Pharmacology

d)

Neurology

18.

DNA made from two (2) or more sources is called...

a)

Recombinant DNA

b)

Bacterial DNA

c)

Messenger DNA

d)

Artificial DNA

19.

DNA made from two (2) or more sources is called...

a)

Recombinant DNA

b)

Bacterial DNA

c)

Messenger DNA

d)

Artificial DNA

20.

DNA made from two (2) or more sources is called...

a)

Recombinant DNA

b)

Bacterial DNA

c)

Messenger DNA

d)

Artificial DNA

21.

An organism's complete set of genes is called its...

a)

Genome

b)

DNA

c)

Chromosome

d)

Chromatin

22.

An organism's complete set of genes is called its...

a)

Genome

b)

DNA

c)

Chromosome

d)

Chromatin

23.

Which of the following is used to create recombinant DNA?

a)

Restriction Enzymes

b)

Amino Acids

c)

Genetic Proteins

d)

Messenger RNA

24.

Which of the following is used to create recombinant DNA?

a)

Restriction Enzymes

b)

Amino Acids

c)

Genetic Proteins

d)

Messenger RNA

25.

Which of the following is used to create recombinant DNA?

a)

Restriction Enzymes

b)

Amino Acids

c)

Genetic Proteins

d)

Messenger RNA

26.

Which of the following is used to create recombinant DNA?

a)

Restriction Enzymes

b)

Amino Acids

c)

Genetic Proteins

d)

Messenger RNA

27.

Which genetic engineering technique separates DNA fragments based on their size?

a)

PCR

b)

Gel Electrophoresis

c)

Gene Cloning

d)

CRISPR

28.

Which genetic engineering technique separates DNA fragments based on their size?

a)

PCR

b)

Gel Electrophoresis

c)

Gene Cloning

d)

CRISPR

29.

Which genetic engineering technique allows us to produce multiple, identical copies of a single gene?

a)

Cloning

b)

PCR

c)

Gene Therapy

d)

CRISPR

30.

Which genetic engineering technique allows us to produce multiple, identical copies of a single gene?

a)

Cloning

b)

PCR

c)

Gene Therapy

d)

CRISPR

31.

Which of the following examples of genetic engineering repairs existing abnormal genes?

a)

CRISPR

b)

PCR

c)

Gel Electrophoresis

d)

Cloning

32.

Which of the following examples of genetic engineering repairs existing abnormal genes?

a)

CRISPR

b)

PCR

c)

Gel Electrophoresis

d)

Cloning

33.

Inserting a normal gene or editing an existing gene is called...

a)

Genetic Engineering

b)

Gene Therapy

c)

Gene Cloning

d)

Gene Sequencing

34.

Inserting a normal gene or editing an existing gene is called...

a)

Genetic Engineering

b)

Gene Therapy

c)

Gene Cloning

d)

Gene Sequencing

35.

Inserting a normal gene or editing an existing gene is called...

a)

Genetic Engineering

b)

Gene Therapy

c)

Gene Cloning

d)

Gene Sequencing

36.

Which of the following is NOT a form of selective breeding?

a)

GMOs

b)

Hybridization

c)

Inbreeding

d)

Natural Selection

37.

Which of the following is NOT a form of selective breeding?

a)

GMOs

b)

Hybridization

c)

Inbreeding

d)

Natural Selection

38.

Which of the following is NOT a form of selective breeding?

a)

GMOs

b)

Hybridization

c)

Inbreeding

d)

Natural Selection

39.

Hybridization is...

a)

Selective Breeding between two unrelated organisms

b)

Selective Breeding between two inbred organisms

c)

Selective Breeding within a species

d)

Selective Breeding within a population

40.

Hybridization is...

a)

Selective Breeding between two unrelated organisms

b)

Selective Breeding between two inbred organisms

c)

Selective Breeding within a species

d)

Selective Breeding within a population

41.

Hybridization is...

a)

Selective Breeding between two unrelated organisms

b)

Selective Breeding between two inbred organisms

c)

Selective Breeding within a species

d)

Selective Breeding within a population

42.

Genetically Modified Organisms (GMOs) are...

a)

Always biologically modified in a lab

b)

Always bad for you

c)

Always free of pesticides

d)

Always selectively bred

43.
Any change or mistake in DNA replication can cause a ________  
a)
cancer cell 
b)
virus
c)
disease
d)
mutation
44.
Any change or mistake in DNA replication can cause a ________  
a)
cancer cell 
b)
virus
c)
disease
d)
mutation
45.
Any change or mistake in DNA replication can cause a ________  
a)
cancer cell 
b)
virus
c)
disease
d)
mutation
46.
Genes found on DNA contain the instructions for making  
a)
pyrimidines 
b)
pyrimidines
c)
proteins
d)
purines
47.
Genes found on DNA contain the instructions for making  
a)
pyrimidines 
b)
pyrimidines
c)
proteins
d)
purines
48.
Transgenic organisms contain
a)
genes from other species.
b)
cells of another organism.
c)
genes of only one parent.
d)
one or more human genes.
49.
Transgenic organisms contain
a)
genes from other species.
b)
cells of another organism.
c)
genes of only one parent.
d)
one or more human genes.
50.
During transformation, a cell
a)
is treated with radiation.
b)
has two genetically different parents.
c)
has foreign DNA inserted in its chromosome.
d)
has parents of different species.
51.
Transgenic organisms contain
a)
genes from other species.
b)
cells of another organism.
c)
genes of only one parent.
d)
one or more human genes.
52.
Which is used to cut DNA molecules at specific points?
a)
gel electrophoresis
b)
PCR analysis
c)
a restriction enzyme
d)
recombinant DNA
53.
Which is used to cut DNA molecules at specific points?
a)
gel electrophoresis
b)
PCR analysis
c)
a restriction enzyme
d)
recombinant DNA
54.
Polymerase chain reaction is used to
a)
determine the sequence of DNA.
b)
make copies of a DNA sequence.
c)
selectively breed plants and animals.
d)
produce mutations in bacteria.
55.
Polymerase chain reaction is used to
a)
determine the sequence of DNA.
b)
make copies of a DNA sequence.
c)
selectively breed plants and animals.
d)
produce mutations in bacteria.
56.
Gel electrophoresis enables scientists to
a)
separate DNA fragments.
b)
combine DNA fragments.
c)
count the genes in DNA.
d)
insert DNA in cells.
57.

Restriction enzymes are used to ___ DNA.

a)

glue together

b)

cut

c)

reconnect

d)

exchange

58.

Restriction enzymes are used to ___ DNA.

a)

glue together

b)

cut

c)

reconnect

d)

exchange

59.

What is recombinant DNA?

a)

Adding DNA from one organism into the DNA of another

b)

DNA which has been changed over generations by natural selection

c)

DNA that causes genetic disorders

d)

DNA that has been sequenced

60.

If a farmer asked the ethical question "What are the long-term effects of creating crops that are immune to pesticides and diseases?" what topic would they discussing?

a)

GMOs

b)

Cloning

c)

DNA fingerprinting

d)

Gene therapy

61.

If a farmer asked the ethical question "What are the long-term effects of creating crops that are immune to pesticides and diseases?" what topic would they discussing?

a)

GMOs

b)

Cloning

c)

DNA fingerprinting

d)

Gene therapy

62.

Which of the following is a protein that acts as DNA "scissors"?

a)

plasmid

b)

restriction enzyme

c)

ligase

d)

protein expression

63.

Inserting human DNA into a bacterial plasmid to create insulin-producing bacteria is an example of:

a)

Recombinant DNA

b)

DNA fingerprinting

c)

Cloning

d)

Selective breeding

64.

Inserting human DNA into a bacterial plasmid to create insulin-producing bacteria is an example of:

a)

Recombinant DNA

b)

DNA fingerprinting

c)

Cloning

d)

Selective breeding

65.

Genetically Modified Organisms (GMO's) are:

a)

Organisms whose genes / DNA have been edited

b)

Organisms who have received new stem cells to cure a disease

c)

Organisms whose DNA has been copied

d)

Organisms whose entire genome has been sequenced

66.

How many carriers are in this pedigree?

(a)  

67.

How many generations are in this pedigree chart?

(a)  

68.

What type of trait is represented in this pedigree chart?

a)
Autosomal dominant
b)
Autosomal recessive
c)

X-linked recessive

d)
X-linked dominant
69.

What type of trait is represented in this pedigree chart?

a)
Autosomal dominant
b)
Autosomal recessive
c)

X-linked recessive

d)
X-linked dominant
70.

In this pedigree, which gender can be carriers of colorblindness and not express it as a phenotype?

a)

Just males

b)

Just females

c)

Both genders

71.

In this pedigree, which gender can be carriers of colorblindness and not express it as a phenotype?

a)

Just males

b)

Just females

c)

Both genders

72.
How many females are in this pedigree?
a)
3
b)
4
c)
6
d)
7
73.
How many females are in this pedigree?
a)
3
b)
4
c)
6
d)
7
74.

How many females show the trait?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

75.

How many females show the trait?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

76.
What does a filled in square represent?
a)
Not affected Female
b)
Not affected Male
c)
Affected Male
d)
Affected Female
77.
What is this?
a)
Pedigree
b)
Karyotype
c)
Venn diagram
d)
Punnett Square
78.
What is this?
a)
Pedigree
b)
Karyotype
c)
Venn diagram
d)
Punnett Square
79.
In the Punnett square shown, what must the genotype of the missing parent be?
a)
BB
b)
Bb
c)
bb
d)
Tt
80.
In the Punnett square shown, what must the genotype of the missing parent be?
a)
BB
b)
Bb
c)
bb
d)
Tt
81.
B = brown fur  b = white fur
In the Punnett square, what is the probability for white fur? 
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
82.
B = brown fur  b = white fur
In the Punnett square, what is the probability for white fur? 
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
83.
What are the possible genotypes for this cross?
(Click the picture to see it without the text)
a)
TT = 25% Tt= 50% tt=25%
b)
all tall
c)
TT= 75% tt = 25%
d)
Tt = 100%
84.
What are the possible genotypes for this cross?
(Click the picture to see it without the text)
a)
TT = 25% Tt= 50% tt=25%
b)
all tall
c)
TT= 75% tt = 25%
d)
Tt = 100%
85.
What is the dominant trait?
a)
yellow pea seeds
b)
green pea seeds
c)
there is no dominant seed
d)
Jolly green giant
86.
What is the dominant trait?
a)
yellow pea seeds
b)
green pea seeds
c)
there is no dominant seed
d)
Jolly green giant
87.
What genotype would go in box 3?
a)
BB
b)
Bb
c)
bb
88.
What genotype would go in box 3?
a)
BB
b)
Bb
c)
bb
89.
What genotype would go in box 1?
a)
BB
b)
Bb
c)
bb
90.

The blending of two traits is known as ---

a)

incomplete dominance

b)

codominance

91.

The blending of two traits is known as ---

a)

incomplete dominance

b)

codominance

92.

A condition in which both alleles for a gene are expressed so that both traits are visible is known as ---

a)

Codominance

b)

Incomplete dominance

93.

A condition in which both alleles for a gene are expressed so that both traits are visible is known as ---

a)

Codominance

b)

Incomplete dominance

94.

A calico cat shows both the traits for orange fur and black fur. What kind of allele expression is this?

a)

Incomplete dominance

b)

Codominance

95.

A calico cat shows both the traits for orange fur and black fur. What kind of allele expression is this?

a)

Incomplete dominance

b)

Codominance

96.

If you cross a black chicken with a white chicken, only black and white checkered chickens would be produced. What kind of inheritance pattern does this follow?

a)

Incomplete dominance

b)

Codominance

97.

If you cross a black chicken with a white chicken, only black and white checkered chickens would be produced. What kind of inheritance pattern does this follow?

a)

Incomplete dominance

b)

Codominance

98.

This is an example of ---

a)

Incomplete dominance

b)

Codominance

99.

This is an example of ---

a)

Incomplete dominance

b)

Codominance

100.

B = brown eyes

b = blue eyes

One brother has genotype BB and the other brother has genotype Bb.

Which statement is true about these two brothers?

a)

They have same phenotype and genotype

b)

They have different phenotypes and genotypes

c)

They have same phenotype, but different genotypes

d)

They have different phenotypes, but the same genotype

101.

B = brown eyes

b = blue eyes

One brother has genotype BB and the other brother has genotype Bb.

Which statement is true about these two brothers?

a)

They have same phenotype and genotype

b)

They have different phenotypes and genotypes

c)

They have same phenotype, but different genotypes

d)

They have different phenotypes, but the same genotype

102.

Which of the following would be a phenotype?

a)

Aa

b)

red hair

c)

heterozygous

d)

DNA

103.

Which of the following would be a phenotype?

a)

Aa

b)

red hair

c)

heterozygous

d)

DNA

104.
T - tall and t = short
In the punnett square below, what belongs in the missing square
a)
tt
b)
Tt
c)
Bb
d)
TT
105.
What you see, or the physical appearance.
a)
Genotype
b)
Phenotype
c)
Homozygous
d)
Heterozygous
106.
What is the probability of heterozygous offspring?
a)
25%
b)
50%
c)
0%
d)
100%
107.
What allele combination should go in the missing box?
a)
AA
b)
Aa
c)
aa
d)
none of these
108.
Each one of the boxes on the Punnett Square represents what probability of an offsprings' genotype?
a)
25%
b)
1%
c)
10%
d)
0%
109.
Which of the following genotypes is homozygous dominant?
a)
A
b)
Aa
c)
AA
d)
aa
110.
Which of the following genotypes is heterozygous?
a)
Bb
b)
BB
c)
bb
d)
B
111.
Which of the following genotypes is heterozygous?
a)
Bb
b)
BB
c)
bb
d)
B
112.
Which of the following is homozygous recessive?
a)
Tt
b)
tt
c)
TT
d)
T
113.
Which of the following is homozygous recessive?
a)
Tt
b)
tt
c)
TT
d)
T
114.
Which of the following is an example of phenotype?
a)
bb
b)
blue eyes
115.
What ratio of the offspring from the cross shown will be homozygous recessive for the  trait of tallness? 
a)
0 in 4
b)
1 in 4
c)
2 in 4
d)
4 in 4
116.
What ratio of the offspring from the cross shown will be homozygous recessive for the  trait of tallness? 
a)
0 in 4
b)
1 in 4
c)
2 in 4
d)
4 in 4
117.

Which trait does a puppy inherit from its parents?

a)

obediance to commands

b)

fur pattern and color

c)

affection for a specific home

d)

food brand preference

118.

Which characteristic would most likely be inherited by a baby?

a)

brown hair

b)

his ability to walk

c)

crying a lot

d)

ability to jump high

119.

Some traits are inherited, some traits are acquired. Injuries are...

a)

Aquired trait

b)

Inherited trait

120.

Some traits are inherited, some traits are acquired. Injuries are...

a)

Aquired trait

b)

Inherited trait

121.

Some traits are inherited, some traits are acquired. Language is an...

a)

Inherited trait

b)

Acquired trait

122.

Which characteristic is inherited?

a)

loving to read

b)

sleeping late

c)

hair color

d)

enjoying hiking

123.

A dog rolls over and receives a treat. the dog rolls over again. this is an example of...

a)

learned behaivor

b)

inherited behavior

c)

instinctive behaivor

d)

adaptive behavior

124.

A dog rolls over and receives a treat. the dog rolls over again. this is an example of...

a)

learned behaivor

b)

inherited behavior

c)

instinctive behaivor

d)

adaptive behavior

125.

The following are inherited traits of humans EXCEPT...

a)

long eyelashes

b)

long hair

c)

blue eyes

d)

small dimples

126.

The following are inherited traits of humans EXCEPT...

a)

long eyelashes

b)

long hair

c)

blue eyes

d)

small dimples

127.

Hair color and eye color are examples of a person's....

a)

recessive traits

b)

dominant alleles

c)

genotype

d)

phenotype

128.

The passing of traits from parents to offspring is known as....

a)

hierarchy

b)

heredity

c)

traits

d)

genetics

129.

What is the definition of Phenotype?

a)

The diagram that shows all the chromosomes of an individual

b)

The combination of alleles that control that an individual has for a particular trait

c)

How many genes on one chromosome

d)

How a trait is expressed (what it looks like or what it does)

130.

Segments of DNA are called _______________________

a)

Genes

b)

Alleles

c)

Traits

d)

Chromosomes

131.

DNA is a(n)

a)

atom

b)

molecule

c)

nucleus

d)

cell

132.

DNA is a(n)

a)

atom

b)

molecule

c)

nucleus

d)

cell

133.

A DNA molecule is shaped like a

a)

toilet

b)

cone

c)

ball

d)

spiraled ladder

134.

Which list is in the correct order from biggest to smallest?

a)

organism-cell-nucleus-chromosome-DNA-gene

b)

gene-DNA-chromosome-nucleus-cell-organism

c)

organism-DNA-cell-gene-chromosome-nucleus

d)

organism--cell-nucleus-gene-chromosome-DNA

135.

Which list is in the correct order from biggest to smallest?

a)

organism-cell-nucleus-chromosome-DNA-gene

b)

gene-DNA-chromosome-nucleus-cell-organism

c)

organism-DNA-cell-gene-chromosome-nucleus

d)

organism--cell-nucleus-gene-chromosome-DNA

136.

DNA acts like a(n )__________________ for our traits.

a)

instruction manual

b)

nucleus

c)

cell

d)

gene

137.

Which organelle is the location where protein is made?

a)

Ribosome

b)

Nucleus

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Nucleotide

138.

During transcription, this type of ribonucleic acid is responsible for copying the DNA and brining it out of the nucleus.

a)

tRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

dRNA

139.

Which organelle is the location where protein is made?

a)

Ribosome

b)

Nucleus

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Nucleotide

140.

During transcription, this type of ribonucleic acid is responsible for copying the DNA and brining it out of the nucleus.

a)

tRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

dRNA

141.

When these bond together, they form a protein

a)

Amino Acids

b)

Peptide Bonds

c)

Ribose

d)

Nucleotides

142.

When these bond together, they form a protein

a)

Amino Acids

b)

Peptide Bonds

c)

Ribose

d)

Nucleotides

143.

mRNA occurs during this process

a)

Translation

b)

Transcription

c)

Replication

d)

Delivery

144.

mRNA occurs during this process

a)

Translation

b)

Transcription

c)

Replication

d)

Delivery

145.

Which of the following is the complementary mRNA sequence to this DNA strand: AACTGAA

a)

UUGACUU

b)

TTGACTT

c)

AACTGAA

d)

AACUGAA

146.
What is the term for a three-nucleotide sequence that codes for an amino acid?
a)
base
b)
codon
c)
amine
d)
serine
147.
The process to go from DNA to mRNA is _______
a)
translation
b)
transcription
c)
replication
148.
The process to go from DNA to mRNA is _______
a)
translation
b)
transcription
c)
replication
149.
The process to go from mRNA to a protein is called ____
a)
transcription
b)
rRNA
c)
replication
d)
translation
150.
The process to go from mRNA to a protein is called ____
a)
transcription
b)
rRNA
c)
replication
d)
translation
151.
Genetic info flows in one direction. Which best represents this flow?
a)
DNA-protein-RNA
b)
Protein-RNA-DNA
c)
RNA-protein-DNA
d)
DNA-RNA-protein
152.
What is the location in the cell for transcription?
a)
nucleus
b)
cytoplasm
c)
ribosome
d)
mitochondria
153.
What is the location in the cell for transcription?
a)
nucleus
b)
cytoplasm
c)
ribosome
d)
mitochondria
154.

In what process is mRNA synthesized?

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

DNA Replication

d)

Mitosis

155.

Which organelle contains rRNA and reads the mRNA to synthesize a protein?

a)

Ribosome

b)

Nucleus

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Nucleotide

156.

What brings the amino acids to the ribosome to assemble a protein?

a)
mRNA
b)
tRNA
c)
rRNA
d)

DNA

157.

What brings the amino acids to the ribosome to assemble a protein?

a)
mRNA
b)
tRNA
c)
rRNA
d)

DNA

158.
What is being represented by the letter A in the image?
a)
Substrate
b)
Enzyme
c)
Product
d)
Complex
159.
What is being represented by the letter A in the image?
a)
Substrate
b)
Enzyme
c)
Product
d)
Complex
160.
What is being represented by the letter B in the image?
a)
Substrate
b)
Enzyme
c)
Substrate
d)
Product
161.
What is being represented by the letter B in the image?
a)
Substrate
b)
Enzyme
c)
Substrate
d)
Product
162.
If an enzyme becomes over heated what effect, if any, will the heat have on the enzymatic activity? 
a)
The enzyme will not store much chemical energy.
b)
The enzyme will not be able to catalyze reactions.
c)
The enzyme will lose its net electrical charge.
d)
The enzyme will lose stored genetic information.
163.
If an enzyme becomes over heated what effect, if any, will the heat have on the enzymatic activity? 
a)
The enzyme will not store much chemical energy.
b)
The enzyme will not be able to catalyze reactions.
c)
The enzyme will lose its net electrical charge.
d)
The enzyme will lose stored genetic information.
164.
Enzymes will make a reaction go _______ and use ______ energy.
a)
faster, less
b)
faster, more
c)
slower, less
d)
slower, more
165.
Cells can produce over one thousand different enzymes at a time.  Enzymes are critical to the metabolism of these cells, but why are so many different enzymes needed?
a)
Cells are completely unable to control what enzymes
they produce
b)
The variety of enzymes prevents their actions from being inhibited. 
c)
The active site of an enzyme can only bind to a specific substrate.
d)
The products of a reaction are always converted into new enzymes.
166.
What happens to an enzyme when it is denatured?
a)
Activation energy is lowered.
b)
It becomes stronger.
c)
It loses its shape.
d)
Activation energy is raised.
167.
Every enzyme has a optimal temperature and pH. True or False?
a)
True 
b)
False
168.
The "lock and key hypothesis" attempts to explain the mechanism of?
a)
Vacuole formation
b)
Pinocytosis
c)
Sharing of electrons
d)
Enzyme are specific to a substrate
169.
The "lock and key hypothesis" attempts to explain the mechanism of?
a)
Vacuole formation
b)
Pinocytosis
c)
Sharing of electrons
d)
Enzyme are specific to a substrate
170.
Any substance that is acted upon by an enzyme is called a(n)?
a)
Coenzyme
b)
Substrate
c)
Vitamin
d)
Polypeptide

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