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WorksheetsBioscience TSA Practice - Domain 2
Total questions: 97
Worksheet time: 2hrs 37mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
What is an animal, plant, or microbe used to study a biological process referred to as?
a)
Model organism
b)
Experimental organism
c)
Experimental variation
d)
Model experiment
2.
Which example is NOT a common characteristic of model organisms used for lab research?
a)
Large size
b)
Short lifespan
c)
Easily available
d)
Easy to use
3.
After performing a gram stain, a gram negative bacteria will stain this color.
a)
Red
b)
Orange
c)
Yellow
d)
Purple
4.
When cleaning a glass pipette after working with bacteria, which should be done first?
a)
Rinse in 10% bleach solution
b)
Autoclave it
c)
Clean it with water
d)
Spray with soapy water and wipe down
5.
What is Plasmid DNA is composed of?
a)
A circular strand of autonomously replicating DNA.
b)
A linear strand of autonomously replicating DNA.
c)
A circular strand of chromosomal DNA.
d)
A linear strand of chromosomal DNA.
6.
Which of the following statements accurately describes the benefits of using prokaryotic organisms to produce protein?
a)
Simple cell system that can easily be manipulated and cheaply manufactured.
b)
Complex cell system that mimics human cells and can be cheaply manufactured.
c)
Simple cell system that mimics human cells and can be cheaply manufactured.
d)
Complex cell system that can be easily manipulated and cheaply manufactured.
7.
The process of centrifugation is based on which of the following assumption(s)?
a)
Separation of components of a mixture using force.
b)
Rapid movement of a solution causes insoluble components to form in a solution.
c)
Dissolving of soluble and insoluble components of a mixture using force.
d)
Rapid movement of a solution causes insoluble components to dissolve into a solution.
8.
The process of chromatography is based on which of the following assumption(s)?
a)
Each protein has unique characteristics (such as size and charge) that can be used to separate it from other proteins.
b)
Movement through a matrix causes a protein to adapt and separate from other proteins.
c)
All proteins have similar characteristics (such as size and charge) that can be modified to separate them from other proteins.
d)
Movement through a matrix enhances a protein’s structure to make separation faster.
9.
What does Gel electrophoresis use to sort protein?
a)
Size and charge of each protein.
b)
Size of the protein.
c)
Charge of the protein.
d)
Neither size nor charge is useful.
10.
What is the Elution process characterized by?
a)
The release of one substance (eluate) from a matrix by the addition of an eluent.
b)
The release of one substance (eluent) from a matrix by the addition of an eluate.
c)
The release of a substance (eluate) from a matrix by the addition of an enzyme.
d)
The release of a substance (eluent) from a matrix by the addition of an enzyme.
11.
What is the process Lysis characterized by?
a)
The disruption of the cell by destroying the cell membrane.
b)
The propagation of a cell by repairing the cell membrane.
c)
The disruption of a cell by destroying the nuclear membrane.
d)
The propagation of a cell by repairing the cell membrane.
12.
When running SDS-PAGE electrophoresis, the sample buffer composition (for example: denatured vs. non-denatured) determines what characteristics of protein structure?
a)
Minimizes the effects of secondary and tertiary structures to make the protein linear.
b)
Determines the primary structure of the amino acid chains.
c)
Determines the secondary structure of the alpha helix and beta sheets.
d)
Maximizes the effects of secondary and tertiary structures to make the protein LESS linear.
13.
Which procedure is essential to perform when making a streak plate?
a)
Flame the loop each time you streak a new quadrant on the plate.
b)
Move the inoculation loop back and forth 4 times in each quadrant.
c)
Leave the inoculation loop in the flame for at least two minutes.
d)
Only flame the loop once at the beginning before collecting a sample.
14.
Why are aseptic techniques like protective wear and bench cleaning important during media preparation?
a)
To avoid contamination of the media with living organisms or spores
b)
To keep the media hot enough to be easily poured into the Petri dishes
c)
To prevent dangerous mistakes when adding different chemicals
d)
To make sure that the media prepared has the right nutrient combination
15.
Which example is NOT a use of bacteriological media?
a)
Sterilize agar plates against the growth of mold.
b)
Provide the nutrients necessary for bacterial growth.
c)
Allow for the isolation of specific bacteria.
d)
Stimulate the growth of a large amount of bacteria in a short amount of time.
16.
Which of these ingredients of Nutrient Agar does not provide a source of energy and nutrition for microbes?
a)
Agar
b)
Peptone
c)
Beef Extract
d)
All of these provide energy and nutrition.
17.
What would be the necessary amount of nutrient agar powder to prepare 250 mL of nutrient agar for lab use? The nutrient agar powder has a value of 40 g per 1 L of distilled water.
a)
10 g nutrient agar powder
b)
5 g nutrient agar powder
c)
15 g nutrient agar powder
d)
20 g nutrient agar powder
18.
Which example is the best description of a bacterial media?
a)
A combination of nutrients needed to grow a culture of bacteria for study
b)
A tool like an inoculation loop that can be used to transfer bacteria
c)
A piece of lab equipment that uses heat and pressure to sterilize things
d)
The space between the different colonies that grow on a plate of agar
19.
What are primary cells?
a)
Cells that are cultured directly from an organism.
b)
Cells that are cultured from bacteria.
c)
Cells that are cultured from dilution.
d)
Cells that are cultured directly from an environmental sample.
20.
Which example is the best description of a prokaryote?
a)
A multicellular organism that stores its DNA in a membrane-bound nucleus
b)
A unicellular organism that stores its RNA in a membrane-bound nucleus
c)
A unicellular organism that does not have a true nucleus to store its DNA
d)
A multicellular organism that does not have a true nucleus to store its DNA
21.
How is a recombinant plasmid different from a naturally occurring plasmid?
a)
Scientists make recombinant plasmids with foreign genes.
b)
Scientists find recombinant plasmids only in E. coli bacteria.
c)
Scientists use recombinant plasmids to probe for insect DNA.
d)
Scientists do not distinguish between recombinant vs. natural.
22.
What is transformation efficiency?
a)
How successful the transformation process was with bacteria incorporating a plasmid.
b)
How unsuccessful the transformation process was with pure bacteria growing in culture.
c)
The complete set of genes of an organism being incorporated into another organism.
d)
The process of taking genes and determining their sequence.
23.
What is the equipment utilized to filter out recombinant plasmids for later application?
a)
Mini-column
b)
Inoculation loop
c)
UV light
d)
LB broth
24.
Why are antibiotics utilized to determine if bacterial transformation was successful?
a)
The presence of antibiotic resistance means the plasmid was incorporated.
b)
The presence of antibiotics means the plasmid is not working properly.
c)
In order to control the growth of transformed bacteria.
d)
In order to prevent the growth of transformed bacteria.
25.
Which example is NOT a common animal cell line used in research?
a)
RU-942
b)
HeLa cells
c)
CHO cells
26.
Which type of storage temperature is best for preparing cells for long term storage?
a)
-80 °C
b)
-20 °C
c)
-4 °C
d)
-2 °C
27.
What do Plate ELISAs do rapidly that make them such a powerful immunological technique?
a)
Identify specific proteins of interest.
b)
Transfer proteins from polyacrylamide to nitrocellulose.
c)
Separate specific proteins using charge and size.
d)
Precipitate proteins to concentrate samples for use in protein assays.
28.
Where do the two phases of protein synthesis occur in a cell?
a)
Transcription occurs within the nucleus and translation occurs in the cytoplasm.
b)
Termination occurs in the nucleus and initiation occurs in the cytoplasm.
c)
Translation occurs within the nucleus and transcription occurs in the cytoplasm.
d)
Initiation occurs in the nucleus and termination occurs in the cytoplasm.
29.
Which of the following statements gives the correct order of the steps of protein synthesis?
a)
DNA to mRNA to tRNA to protein
b)
DNA to tRNA to mRNA to protein
c)
mRNA to tRNA to DNA to protein
d)
tRNA to mRNA to DNA to protein
30.
Why are antibodies referred to as specific?
a)
Each antibody has only one antigen that it will bind.
b)
All antibodies bind to all antigens.
c)
All antibodies are the same from species to species.
d)
Each antibody has many antigens that it will bind.
31.
What does specific immunity mean?
a)
Each antibody binds to a particular antigen.
b)
Each enzyme binds to a particular antibody.
c)
Each enzyme binds to a particular protein.
d)
Each antigen binds to a particular enzyme
32.
What is an ELISA used to detect the presence of?
a)
Antigens
b)
Viruses
c)
Bacteria
d)
Antibodies
33.
Protein precipitation has several advantages over other techniques including which of the following examples?
a)
A quick and simple method to concentrate a protein of interest.
b)
An expensive method to change the buffer a protein is dissolved in.
c)
A quick and complex method to concentrate a protein of interest.
d)
A complex method to change the buffer a protein is dissolved in.
34.
Two important protein characteristics are hydrophobic or hydrophilic. Which definition best defines them?
a)
Hydrophilic dissolves in water and hydrophobic is repelled by water.
b)
Hydrophilic is repelled by anions and hydrophobic is attracted to cations.
c)
Hydrophilic is repelled by water and hydrophobic dissolves in water.
d)
Hydrophilic is repelled by cations and hydrophobic is attracted to anions.
35.
What is column chromatography is used for?
a)
Isolate proteins based on size, charge or other unique characteristics.
b)
Isolate carbohydrates based on size, charge or other unique characteristics.
c)
Isolate lipids based on size, charge or other unique characteristics.
d)
Isolate salts based on size, charge or other unique characteristics.
36.
Primary structure of a protein is determined by which of the following component(s)?
a)
Unique sequence of amino acids encoded in the DNA sequence for that protein.
b)
The unique folding or coiling of a polypeptide into a repeating configuration.
c)
The unique overall three-dimensional shape of a polypeptide.
d)
The unique aggregation of two or more polypeptide subunits.
37.
Proteins, and in turn, DNA, are powerful tools to determine species relatedness because protein and DNA:
a)
Track genetic changes more accurately than outward physical appearances.
b)
Are exactly the same for every protein in all species.
c)
Track the physical appearances more accurately than genetic changes.
d)
Randomly translated into proteins in each species.
38.
This term describes a test done in biotechnology to determine something about a substance.
a)
Assay
b)
Test
c)
Amstray
d)
Litmus test
39.
What is the purpose of a blank when doing spectroscopy?
a)
Zero the absorbance before test samples are measured
b)
Calculate maximum absorbance
c)
Zero the absorbance after test samples are measured
d)
Zero the transmittance after the test samples are measured.
40.
Which of the following is created prior to finding the concentration of an unknown protein solution?
a)
Standard curve
b)
Biuret Assay
c)
ELISA
d)
Gel electrophoresis
41.
Which of the following biological dyes can be used to detect protein?
a)
Coomassie Blue
b)
Sudan V
c)
Iodine
d)
Benedict’s solution
42.
A nucleotide in DNA consists of three parts to the basic unit. This includes a phosphate group, a nitrogenous base, and what other part?
a)
deoxyribose
b)
glucose
c)
ribose
d)
galactose
43.
If the DNA code is CGA, what would be the complementary mRNA strand?
a)
GCU
b)
GCT
c)
CGA
d)
AGC
44.
If the mRNA code is GCU, what would be the complementary amino acid?
a)
Alanine (Ala)
b)
Serine (Ser)
c)
Proline (Pro)
d)
Gluline (Glu)
45.
The central dogma of molecular biology is represented by which of the following sequences?
a)
DNA🡪RNA🡪protein
b)
Protein🡪RNA🡪DNA
c)
DNA🡪protein🡪RNA
d)
RNA🡪DNA🡪protein
46.
The strands of DNA run in opposite directions, which is also known by what term?
a)
antiparallel
b)
parallel
c)
perpendicular
d)
crooked
47.
The translation part of the central dogma of molecular biology is represented by which of the following sequence
a)
RNA🡪protein
b)
RNA🡪DNA
c)
protein🡪RNA
d)
DNA🡪protein
48.
What is an organism considered that has had its genetic material modified in favor of desired traits?
a)
Genetically modified
b)
DNA corrected
c)
Genetically corrected
d)
DNA enhanced
49.
What structure makes isolating DNA from a plant cell more challenging than an animal cell?
a)
Cell wall
b)
Cell membrane
c)
Chloroplasts
d)
Nuclear envelope
50.
What type of DNA is a small, circular piece of double stranded DNA that is found in bacteria and other microscopic organisms?
a)
pDNA
b)
gDNA
c)
mtDNA
d)
cpDNA
51.
What type of RNA is non-coding and is the primary of a cellular organelle that is involved in the manufacturing of proteins?
a)
rRNA
b)
mRNA
c)
tRNA
d)
cRNA
52.
Where does replication begin within the DNA of a cell?
a)
Origins of Replication
b)
Replication Fork
c)
Replication Initiating Site
d)
Initiator
53.
Which enzyme is responsible for catalyzing the covalent bonding DNA fragments together?
a)
DNA Ligase
b)
Helicase
c)
DNA Polymerase II
d)
Primase
54.
What is the purpose of a radioactive DNA probe?
a)
To identify a specific DNA fragment
b)
To bind DNA to the nylon membrane
c)
To cut DNA into fragments
d)
To make the DNA single-stranded
55.
What is the name of the process for DNA replication?
a)
Semiconservative
b)
Conservative
c)
Dispersive
d)
Parallel
56.
Which descriptor represents what the two strands are of a DNA molecule are in relation to each other?
a)
Antiparallel
b)
Opposed
c)
Parallel
d)
Perpendicular
57.
When it comes to a restriction site, how long is that location generally in DNA?
a)
4-6 nucleotides in length and symmetrical
b)
4-6 nucleotides in length and non-symmetrical
c)
3 nucleotides in length and non-symmetrical
d)
10 nucleotides in length and symmetrical
58.
Where in nature are restriction enzymes isolated from?
a)
Bacteria
b)
Viruses
c)
Animal
d)
Plants
59.
How is the gel of electrophoresis analyzed?
a)
By measuring the distance of bands moved during the process.
b)
By using enough primer to determine a template strand.
c)
By using DNA polymerase to help the gel conduct electricity.
d)
By making sure one band will survive the electricity.
60.
Why is a molecular weight ruler utilized during the analysis of a gel from electrophoresis?
a)
To compare to known sequence numbers of base pairs
b)
To utilize know chemical solutions for denaturation
c)
To measure the amount of primer used
d)
To visualize the results of the PCR process
61.
Why is DNA stain used during the gel electrophoresis process?
a)
To make the DNA visible for analysis
b)
To cut the DNA into fragments
c)
To concentrate the DNA for analysis
d)
To solubilize the DNA for analysis
62.
Why does the DNA move toward the cathode (positive electrode)
a)
because the phosphate groups carry a negative charge
b)
because the nitrogenous bases carry a positive charge
c)
because of gravitational forces
d)
because of pressure differences between the negative and positive electrodes
63.
What part of a DNA profile is analyzed and compared to determine genetic similarities or differences?
a)
Bands
b)
Wells
c)
Bars
d)
Sections
64.
What is determined when using a graph of distance migrated versus number of base pairs on semi-log graph paper?
a)
Size of unknown DNA fragment
b)
The identity of the nucleic acid
c)
The identity of the protein
d)
Size of the restriction enzyme
65.
What is another name for a DNA sample with known base sequence sizes used for comparison to determine band sizes?
a)
Molecular Weight Ruler
b)
Molecular Weight
c)
Standard Weight
d)
Standard Weight Ruler
66.
Why is electrophoresis used in combination with PCR?
a)
To help visualize the DNA samples from the PCR process.
b)
To make sure there are enough primers to bind the template strands.
c)
To have one for the DNA and RNA polymerases recognized.
d)
To make sure that at least one type will survive the electricity.
67.
What is a necessary piece of information to include in your conclusion of an experiment?
a)
Sources of error
b)
Sources of observation.
c)
Background information.
d)
Data table.
68.
What is one kind of the solution that is used to make a buffer for electrophoresis?
a)
TAE
b)
ACT
c)
LD
d)
MWR
69.
Where does lambda (λ) DNA come from?
a)
Virus
b)
Parasite
c)
Fungus
d)
Bacteria
70.
Why is an electrical current applied to the electrophoresis apparatus?
a)
To cause the DNA fragments to move down the gel
b)
To keep the gel warm
c)
To ensure that the DNA fragments are charged
d)
To cut the DNA into fragments
71.
How does increasing the voltage of electrophoresis change the movement of bands in the agarose?
a)
move fast
b)
move slower
c)
move backwards
d)
no change in movement
72.
How much Tris base is needed to make 500 mL of 2M Tris solution? (molecular weight=121.4 g/mol)
a)
121.14 g
b)
32.21 g
c)
60.57 g
d)
251.16 g
73.
What determines the pore size of agarose in gel electrophoresis?
a)
The percent agarose
b)
TAE buffer
c)
Voltage of the power supply
d)
Pre-running the gel under an electrical current before loading DNA
74.
What is a graph that has one axis that is logarithmic in scale and the other axis on the linear scale in order to adjust for large values?
a)
Semi-log graph
b)
Logarithmic graph
c)
Linear graph
d)
Log graph
75.
How much powdered agarose is needed to make a 3% gel with 100 mL of TAE buffer?
a)
3.0 g
b)
1.0 g
c)
2.0 g
d)
4.0 g
76.
What step is necessary directly after adding powdered agarose to the buffer solution?
a)
Apply heat until the liquid is clear.
b)
Calculate the amount of powdered agarose needed.
c)
Pouring liquid into prepared gel trays.
d)
All gel to harden at room temperature.
77.
What is the process of breaking down chemicals by using an electrical current passing through a solution??
a)
Electrolysis
b)
Electrophoresis
c)
DNA Extraction
d)
DNA Modification
78.
Which of these is a common gel electrophoresis error?
a)
Overloading the well
b)
Cloudy bacteria sample
c)
Using aseptic technique
d)
Visible sample band separation
79.
How does the non-coding part of DNA contribute to an individual’s DNA profile?
a)
It is variable and is unique to individuals.
b)
It codes for protein and is unique to individuals.
c)
It is constant and is unique to individuals.
d)
It determines which genes are turned on in individuals.
80.
Sanger Sequencing uses what kind of chemicals in the process of DNA Sequencing?
a)
dideoxynucleotides
b)
nucleotides
c)
deoxynucleotides
d)
amino acids
81.
What is DNA in the genome that does not transcribe to RNA and translate to protein referred to as?
a)
Non-coding DNA
b)
Coding DNA
c)
Regulatory DNA
d)
Non-tandem DNA
82.
What is the final step of the Next Generation Sequencing Method?
a)
Data analysis
b)
DNA Sequencing
c)
Cluster Generation
d)
Library preparation
83.
Annealing occurs at what temperature?
a)
59oC
b)
37oC
c)
72oC
d)
92oC
84.
Denaturation occurs at what temperature?
a)
92oC
b)
37oC
c)
59oC
d)
72oC
85.
What is the process of amplifying segments of a DNA sequence?
a)
PCR
b)
Gel Electrophoresis
c)
Electropherograms
d)
Centrifuging
86.
What sequence of nucleotides attaches to the area to be replicated to indicate where nucleotides need to be added?
a)
Primers
b)
Origin of Replication
c)
Terminators
d)
Markers
87.
What is a method used to identify species using short sections of DNA from a specific gene or set of genes?
a)
DNA Barcoding
b)
RNA Barcoding
c)
PCR Barcoding
d)
GMO Barcoding
88.
What is the name of the polymerase that is used in many PCR reactions?
a)
GoTaq
b)
EDTA
c)
qGCR
d)
IgG
89.
What piece of equipment is a PCR performed in?
a)
Thermocycler
b)
Centrifuge
c)
Heat Bath
d)
Incubator
90.
Why are two types of primers necessary to run PCR?
a)
To mark the beginning and end of the nucleotide sequence of interest.
b)
To make sure there are enough primers to bind the template strands.
c)
To have one for the DNA and RNA polymerases to recognize.
d)
To make sure that at least one type will survive the extreme heat.
91.
What is a white paper in research?
a)
A research report on a topic that presents solutions to a problem
b)
A research report on a topic that presents observed problems.
c)
The title page of a thesis.
d)
The citation page of a thesis.
92.
Genes in plasmids can be turned on and off using inducer molecules. Which of the following would happen if an inducer is present?
a)
The inducer would bind to the repressor, removing it from the operator.
b)
The inducer would bind to RNA Polymerase, making it start transcription.
c)
The inducer would not bind to anything, because it prevents transcription.
d)
The inducer would not bind to the operon, but would bind to the nucleus.
93.
What is the name of the process in which a single gene can code for multiple proteins when rearranged and organized differently?
a)
Alternative Splicing
b)
Splicing
c)
Regulatory Protein
d)
Promoter
94.
What is the primary substance that must be present to cause the Lac operon to begin producing enzymes?
a)
Lactose
b)
Lactase
c)
Lactic Acid
d)
Lacirabinose
95.
What is the primary difference between a regular plasmid and a recombinant plasmid?
a)
Regular plasmids occur naturally while recombinant plasmids are created.
b)
Regular plasmids are created while recombinant plasmids occur naturally.
c)
Regular plasmids are found in most eukaryotes while recombinant plasmids are found in most prokaryotes.
d)
Regular plasmids are found in most prokaryotes while recombinant plasmids are found in most eukaryotes
96.
When selecting a restriction enzyme to create a recombinant plasmid, what should you consider?
a)
The restriction enzyme should cut the plasmid only once.
b)
The restriction enzyme should cut the plasmid twice.
c)
The restriction enzyme should cut the plasmid at least three times.
d)
The restriction enzyme should not cut the plasmid at all.
97.
Which statement about making recombinant plasmids is true?
a)
They should contain a gene for antibiotic resistance so transformed bacteria can be selected.
b)
They should NOT contain a gene for antibiotic resistance because transformed bacteria are weaker.
c)
They should NOT contain a gene for antibiotic resistance because transformation is too dangerous.
d)
They should contain a gene for antibiotic resistance so they will survive if they get into the real world.
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