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Worksheets

ES FinalB G10

Total questions: 125

Worksheet time: 1hrs 3mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What happens to ocean water that absorbs more of the gas carbon dioxide?

a)

It becomes more acidic.

b)

It reduces the number of jellyfish.

c)

It becomes more basic.

d)

It promotes more coral reef growth.

2.

Which of the following affects surface currents the LEAST?

a)

Earth's rotation

b)

major overall wind patterns

c)

salinity

d)

shape of ocean basins

3.

What major process was a source of water for Earth’s oceans?

a)

just meteors

b)

comets and meteors

c)

volcanic outgassing

d)

glaciers

4.

What is the difference between a brinicle and an evaporite?

a)

A brinicle is made of very cold and salty water, an evaporite is the salt formation left after water changes to the gas phase.

b)

A brinicle is made of very cold and salty water, an evaporite is the salt formation that evaporates into the air.

c)

A brinicle is a very dense and warm icicle of water in the arctic, and an evaporite is the salt formation left after water changes to the gas phase.

d)

A brinicle is a very dense and warm icicle of water in the arctic, and an evaporite is the salt formation that evaporates into the air.

5.

Which way do ocean gyres rotate in the Northern Hemisphere?

a)

they only move north

b)

they do not rotate

c)

counterclockwise

d)

clockwise

6.

What is the most common substance that is dissolved in ocean water?

a)

calcium

b)

magnesium

c)

chlorine

d)

argon

7.

Where might a richer ecosystem with more biomass, biodiversity, and better fishing be located?

a)

Near the Western shores of a continent that experiences upwelling

b)

Near the Eastern shores of a continent that experiences downwelling

c)

Near the Subtropical zones in locations of higher salinity

d)

Near the Poles in cold water

8.

What are the two major types of currents found in the ocean?

a)

salinity and density (deep)

b)

electrical and density (deep)

c)

surface and salinity

d)

surface and density (deep)

9.

When is the biggest tidal range over the course of a month?

a)

neap tide

b)

low tide

c)

spring tide

d)

high tide

10.

Which of the following would decrease the salinity of seawater?

a)

  seawater located near the mouth of a river

b)

low rates of precipitation

c)

increased evaporation

d)

heating seawater

11.

Which of the following factors would contribute to a BIGGER wave?

a)

the distance the wind blows is long

b)

the wind is slow and weak

c)

the distance the wind blows is short

d)

the wind blows for a short period of time

12.

What is a wave? 

a)

a disturbance that transfers energy through matter or space

b)

a type of energy

c)

a disturbance that must have matter to travel through

d)

a “V” shaped pattern

13.

Which of the following is a way that salt is removed from the ocean?

a)

water evaporates out of the ocean

b)

sediment is carried into the ocean via rivers

c)

sea creatures use the salt ions to build their shells

d)

salt from the soil is dissolved in water

14.

Which hemisphere is 80% ocean?

a)

Southern

b)

Northern

c)

Eastern

d)

Western

15.

What is true about gases dissolving in ocean water?

a)

Water that contains a lot of oxygen is called hypoxic.

b)

The carbon dioxide dissolved in the ocean does not affect the climate.

c)

Oxygen, nitrogen, and carbon dioxide gases can dissolve and they affect ocean properties.

d)

As depth increases, it is easier for oxygen to enter the water.

16.

Which statement about the oceans is false?

a)

Oceanographers study the ocean.

b)

All of Earth’s oceans are connected in one global ocean.

c)

Ocean water heats up and cools down more slowly than land.

d)

The biomass is small in the ocean compared to on land.

17.

Why would Earth be a very different planet without its oceans?

a)

All of the these describe how the Earth would be different without oceans.

b)

Oceans are an essential part of the water cycle.

c)

Oceans help to keep temperatures fairly constant worldwide.

d)

Oceans contain the majority of Earth’s biomass.

18.

Approximately how many high tides happen each day?

a)

3

b)

4

c)

2

d)

1

19.

Why is water called the universal solvent?

a)

It doesn’t dissolve very much.

b)

It is found everywhere on all planets everywhere.

c)

It dissolves a lot of substances.

d)

It solvates nonpolar compounds.

20.

What is the name for the deep currents that are driven by differences in salinity and temperature?

a)

salinhaline circulation

b)

salinthermo circulation

c)

thermohaline circulation

d)

thermomagnetic circulation

21.

Which term describes the vertical height of a wave?

a)

wavelength

b)

amplitude

c)

velocity

d)

frequency

22.

What are the main factors for the cause of tides?

a)

gravitation attraction of the Sun and Moon

b)

the salinity and density of ocean water

c)

thermohaline circulation

d)

the density of water

23.

What kind of tide is expected when the Moon is quarter phase, or perpendicular with the Earth and Sun?

a)

spring

b)

neap

c)

high

d)

fall

24.

Which of the following is NOT dissolved in the ocean?

a)

gases

b)

fish

c)

salt

d)

pollutants

25.

Which water mass would be the most dense?

a)

warmest, least salinity

b)

warmest, highest salinity

c)

coldest, highest salinity

d)

coldest, least salinity

26.

Which statement about seafloor exploration is true?

a)

Scientists have directly visited most of the seafloor.

b)

Scientists have explored most of the seafloor remotely.

c)

About half of the seafloor has been explored by ROVs.

d)

Vast regions of the seafloor have not yet been explored.

27.

Which of the following is NOT one of the main obstacles preventing humans from studying the depths of the ocean?

a)

absence of light

b)

cold temperatures

c)

high pressure

d)

lack of ability and interest

28.

What is the major physical characteristic used to separate the photic from the aphotic zone?

a)

salinity

b)

density

c)

volume

d)

light

29.

What fishing method involves a net that scrapes the ocean floor?

a)

bottom trawling

b)

line casting

c)

bottom feeding

d)

dredging

30.

Which organism would NOT be found in the aphotic zone?

a)

fish that eats nutrients that fall from the surface

b)

photosynthetic seaweed

c)

shark

d)

squid

31.

Which are a result of climate change and the ocean?

a)

changing weather patterns

b)

falling sea levels

c)

lower water temperatures

d)

higher salinity

32.

Why is the deep ocean a difficult environment for organisms to live in?

a)

extremely high salinity

b)

little to no light

c)

cold and changing temperatures

d)

all of these

33.

What is light created from a chemical reaction in an organism called?

a)

biological lighting

b)

 

bioluminescence

c)

night lighting

d)

ledinescence

34.

What is the name of the deep ocean floor? It is relatively flat and covered in sediment over the oceanic crust.

a)

benthic floor

b)

pelagic zone

c)

abyssal plain

d)

hydrothermal vent

35.

Which zone makes up the majority of the ocean?


a)

aphotic zone

b)

photic zone

c)

deep sea

d)

intertidal zone

36.

What is one adaptation that enables extremophiles to function in difficult environments?

a)

hydrothermal vents

b)

chemosynthesis

c)

water pressure

d)

photosynthesis

37.

Which of the following statements accurately describes marine invertebrates?

a)

They are animals with no spinal column.

b)

They can only be found in the photic zone.

c)

They are the most abundant life forms in the ocean.

d)

They are cold-blooded and have hard skulls.

38.

Which is true about zooplankton?

a)

engage in photosynthesis

b)

are plant-like plankton

c)

only found in the deep ocean

d)

eat phytoplankton

39.

Which is NOT a characteristic of the photic zone?

a)

Lack of sunlight.

b)

Goes down to a depth of 200m

c)

Found at the surface of the ocean

d)

Has sunlight.


40.

Which is true about resources in the oceans?

a)

They are both living and nonliving.

b)

They are scarce.

c)

They are virtually impossible to obtain.

d)

They are mostly at the surface.

41.

They are mostly at the surface.

a)

Plastic products that end up in the ocean

b)

Sewage and waste that is dumped into the ocean

c)

Fishing nets and lines that are cut loose into the ocean

d)

Large fish that die of natural causes

42.

Which accurately describes an invasive species?

a)

An organism whose population is under control

b)

An organism that has many natural predators

c)

A non-native species in an area

d)

A native species that attack other species

43.

Which type of pollution is caused by runoff from fertilizers and livestock waste?

a)

nutrient pollution

b)

noise pollution

c)

plastic pollution

d)

chemical pollution

44.

What do scientists use to measure ocean depth?

a)

SONAR

b)

submarines

c)

light

d)

divers

45.

Which is true of organisms in the intertidal zone?

a)

found in the neritic zone

b)

found between the high and low tide marks

c)

found in relatively stable conditions

d)

found in high-pressure areas

46.

What are the most valuable nonliving resources taken from the ocean floor?

a)

oil and natural gas

b)

manganese nodules

c)

 

fish

d)

medicines

47.

Where does the continental slope meet the abyssal plain?

a)

 

continental shelf

b)

active continental margin only

c)

volcanic island

d)

continental rise

48.

How deep can submarines typically dive?

a)

1000m

b)

 

750m

c)

500m

d)

250m

49.

Which organism forms the base of the ocean food web?

a)

phytoplankton

b)

zooplankton

c)

small invertebrates

d)

large whales

50.

Which of the following are in decline due to human disturbances?

a)

seagrass meadows

b)

coral reefs

c)

mangrove forests

d)

all of these

51.

What was the mission of the Apollo program?

a)

to launch a satellite into Earth’s orbit

b)

to send a human to Mars and back

c)

to explore the outer edges of the solar system

d)

to land a human on the Moon

52.

Use the image below to answer the following question.

Which of these waves has the highest frequency?

a)

B

b)

A

c)

D

d)

C

53.

Which type of electromagnetic radiation do the hottest stars primarily emit?

a)

visible light

b)

microwaves

c)

radio waves

d)

X rays and gamma rays

54.

Which statement is true of a reflecting telescope?

a)

It absorbs light from space.

b)

It collects radio waves.

c)

It uses lenses to bend light.

d)

It uses mirrors to focus light.

55.

What is the main reason that space telescopes can gather more information than telescopes on Earth’s surface?

a)

They only detect visible light.

b)

They are optical telescopes.

c)

They are farther from objects in space.

d)

They are above Earth's atmosphere.

56.

What country launched the first space station, Salyut 1, into orbit?

a)

Brazil

b)

the Soviet Union

c)

Japan

d)

USA

57.

What is wavelength?

a)

 

The distance from one crest to another crest.

b)

Is the same as the electromagnetic spectrum.

c)

The vertical distance from one crest to one trough.

d)

The same thing as the frequency of a wave.

58.

Which of Newton's laws can be clearly observed when applied to the lift-off of a rocket?

a)

The rocket only needs to be filled with fuel and ignited for it to lift off.

b)

Force equals mass multiplied by acceleration.

c)

An object in motion will remain in motion unless acted upon by a force.

d)

For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.

59.

Which planet has been studied using rovers?

a)

Jupiter

b)

Mars

c)

Mercury

d)

Venus

60.

Describe the location of visible light on the electromagnetic spectrum.

a)

It has wavelengths shorter than gamma waves.

b)

It is not on the electromagnetic spectrum.

c)

It is made of multiple colors of light in the middle of the spectrum.

d)

It is next to the radio waves.

61.

The Whirlpool Galaxy is about 23 million light-years from Earth. Which is true of the image of the galaxy we see through a telescope on Earth?

a)

The image is as it looks today.

b)

The image is as it was 23 million years ago.

c)

 

The image is as it will be 23 million years in the future.

d)

The image is as it was at the beginning of the universe.

62.

What type of satellites are used for GPS (Global Positioning System)?

a)

communication satellites

b)

navigational satellites

c)

imaging satellites

d)

the International Space Station

63.

Which of the following was the first U.S. space station?

a)

Mir

b)

Salyut 1

c)

International Space Station

d)

Skylab

64.

What is the primary purpose of the International Space Station?

a)

International cooperation

b)

Scientific research

c)

Developing space technology

d)

Learning how to live in space

65.

Approximately how long does it take sunlight to get from the Sun to Earth?

a)

8 days

b)

8 minutes

c)

8 hours

d)

8 seconds

66.

Which part of the electromagnetic spectrum do optical telescopes use?

a)

visible light

b)

infrared rays

c)

gamma rays

d)

X-rays

67.

Which statement is false about space shuttles?

a)

The orbiter is part of a space shuttle that can be navigated like an airplane.

b)

The Challenger and Columbia were space shuttle disasters.

c)

All parts of the space shuttle are reusable.

d)

Space shuttles can haul cargo into space.

68.

What event started the Space Race between the USSR and the USA?

a)

 

Challenger Disaster

b)

the Apollo Mission

c)

Launch of Explorer 1

d)

Launch of Sputnik 1

69.

What type of telescope uses only lenses to bend light to make distant objects seem nearer and larger?

a)

reflecting telescope

b)

space telescope

c)

radio telescope

d)

refracting telescope

70.

Which best describes the use of imaging satellites?

a)

used for scientific research with human inhabitants

b)

used to study and make maps of the Moon and other planets

c)

used for navigation and GPS

d)

used to send signals for telephone and television

71.

Space satellites are used for which of the following?

a)

take detailed images of the Earth

b)

all of theses are uses of space satellites

c)

monitor climate change

d)

study the oceans, atmosphere, and other Earth Systems

72.

Which of the following is a benefit of radio telescopes?

a)

They can be linked together by a computer to collect more data on a single object.

b)

They are relatively small so they can be put in many different places.

c)

They are inexpensive and easy to use for amateur astronomers.

d)

They are best for putting into space above Earth’s atmosphere.

73.

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of artificial satellites?

a)

reduce the cost of space missions

b)

for navigation such as GPS

c)

sending signals to help with communication

d)

take pictures of Earth’s surfaces

74.

Which of the following space projects was the first case of the United States and Russia (formerly USSR) working together?

a)

Mir Space Station

b)

International Space Station

c)

Salyut 1

d)

Apollo Program

75.

What is thrust?

a)

the image produced by a refracting telescope

b)

the image produced by a reflecting telescope

c)

the movement of a satellite across the sky

d)

the force pushing a rocket

76.

What is the name of the accepted model of our solar system with the Sun at the center?

a)

heliocentric model

b)

geocentric model

c)

elliptical model

d)

Aristotelian model

77.

Which part of the Sun can get up to 15 million degrees Celsius?

a)

corona

b)

photosphere

c)

radiative zone

d)

core

78.

 When does an equinox occur?

a)

June 21 and December 21

b)

March 21 and September 21

c)

September 21 and December 21

d)

December 21 and March 21

79.

Which statement is true of all lunar eclipses?

a)

The Moon casts its shadow on Earth.

b)

Earth is between the Sun and the Moon.

c)

They can only be seen from a specific location on Earth.

d)

 

They occur only during the first or last quarter Moon.


80.

What is the outer part of the shadow of the Moon called?

a)

penumbra

b)

umbra

c)

lunar eclipse

d)

solar eclipse

81.

Which describes when the Moon’s phases are waning?

a)

first quarter to a full moon

b)

last quarter to a new moon

c)

first quarter to a new moon

d)

new moon to a full moon

82.

What kind of reaction powers the Sun?

a)

light reaction

b)

cheminuclear reaction

c)

chemical reaction

d)

nuclear reaction

83.

Which of the following best explains why it is warmer at the Equator than at the North Pole?

a)

The Equator has a larger area than the North Pole.

b)

The Equator is closer to the Sun than the North Pole.

c)

The Equator receives more direct sunlight than the North Pole.

d)

The Equator has more hours of daylight per year than the North Pole.

84.

Which position of the Earth represents summer for the Northern hemisphere?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

85.

Which image shows the appearance of the Moon when a solar eclipse occurs?

a)

3

b)

2

c)

1

d)

4

86.

Which fact is FALSE about the Sun?

a)

The Sun’s mass makes up 99.8% of the entire mass of the Solar System.

b)

The Sun is mostly made of gas, the 4th phase of matter.

c)

New elements are made inside of stars, like the Sun.

d)

Solar Flares from the Sun can disrupt power or communications on Earth.

87.

Which of the following statements best describes one way that the Moon is different from Earth?

a)

The Moon is not solid.

b)

The Moon has almost no atmosphere.

c)

The Moon has no gravity.

d)

The Moon receives almost no solar light.

88.

 What shape describes Earth’s motion around the Sun?

a)

a perfect circle

b)

a straight line

c)

a nearly circular path

d)

an irregular path

89.

Which image depicts the relative position of the Sun, Earth, and Moon during a solar eclipse?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

90.

Why does Earth stay in orbit?

a)

the lunar cycle

b)

Earth's rotation

c)

the tilt of Earth on its axis

d)

the gravitational pull of the Sun

91.

 Imagine that you work for a satellite company. Which of the following would cause the most damage to your equipment, possibly?

a)

solar flare

b)

solar prominence

c)

sunspot

d)

broken magnetic field on the Sun

92.

What is the spinning of Earth on its axis called?


a)

rotation

b)

revolution

c)

gravity

d)

nuclear fusion

93.

 What term describes the day on which Earth’s rotation axis is the most toward or away from the Sun?

a)

solstice

b)

equinox

c)

waning phase

d)

waxing phase

94.

What is the Moon called when it is more than half-lit?

a)

harvest moon

b)

blue moon

c)

crescent

d)

gibbous moon

95.

Why does the same side of the moon always face Earth?

a)

because the Moon rotates on its axis once for every orbit it makes around Earth

b)

because the Earth’s gravity pulls on one side more

c)

because the Moon does not move

d)

both the Moon and Earth are always in the same position

96.

Suppose Earth was tilted much less on its axis. What effect would this have on the planet?

a)

Winters would be warmer.

b)

A day would be much longer.

c)

Eclipses would not take place.

d)

Tides would not occur as often.

97.

Which is NOT an effect of the motions of the Moon?

a)

solar eclipses

b)

the lunar cycle

c)

seasons on Earth

d)

high and low tide

98.

What causes the Moon to change phases?

a)

its small diameter

b)

its rotation on its axis

c)

its movement around Earth

99.

How long does it take for Earth to complete one revolution around the Sun?

a)

24 hours

b)

12 hours

c)

1 day

d)

365 days

100.

Why are solar eclipses rare?

a)

The Sun casts a big shadow.

b)

The Moon casts a small shadow.

c)

The Moon is far away.

d)

The Earth is stationary.

101.

When do comets form a glowing tail?

a)

when they combine with a meteor (falling star)

b)

when they are at the farthest point from the Sun

c)

when the Sun’s heat turns their ice into a gas

d)

comets always have a glowing tail

102.

Which planet in the solar system is the largest?

a)

Jupiter

b)

Saturn

c)

Neptune

d)

Uranus

103.

Which best describes small, rocky objects that orbit the Sun between Mars and Jupiter?

a)

comets

b)

asteroids

c)

meteorites

d)

meteors

104.

What do scientists think the solar system formed from?

a)

a nebula

b)

a black hole

c)

a star

d)

a galaxy

105.

Which color indicates a star with the highest temperature?

a)

red

b)

orange

c)

yellow

d)

blue

106.

AU stands for __________ and it is the distance between __________.

a)

astronomical units; Earth and the Sun

b)

astrology units; Earth and the nearest star outside our solar system

c)

astrology units; Earth and the Sun

d)

astronomical units; Earth and the nearest star outside our solar system

107.

What are the atmospheres of the outer planets mostly composed of?

a)

gases like hydrogen and helium

b)

metals like iron and zinc

c)

layers of rocks

d)

layers of ice and dust

108.

Which describes stars in an open cluster?

a)

old

b)

densely packed

c)

blue

d)

millions of stars

109.

Which of the following best describes Pluto?

a)

planet

b)

dwarf planet

c)

comet

d)

asteroid

110.

What is the correct order of the inner planets starting at the Sun?

a)

Venus, Mercury, Mars, Earth

b)

Mars, Venus, Earth, Mercury

c)

Earth, Mercury, Venus, Mars

d)

Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars

111.

Which of the following statements describes a planet but not a dwarf planet?

a)

It has enough mass to form a spherical shape.

b)

It has cleared its orbit of smaller objects.

c)

It is not a moon of a larger planet.

d)

It orbits around a star.

112.

Which is true of the inner planets?

a)

all have several moons

b)

they are rocky and solid

c)

they are gaseous balls

d)

all have rings

113.

Which scenario below most likely describes the events in the formation of the solar system?

a)

A black hole forms, the black hole emits matter which forms planets, the planets begin to spin.

b)

A nebula contracts, the contracting nebula spins as it contracts, planets form from small dense areas within the nebula.

c)

A black hole begins to spin, a nebula spins out of the black hole, planets spin out of the nebula.

d)

Planets form, planets attract other matter which forms a nebula, the nebula contracts in the middle to make a star.

114.

What force is most likely responsible for a nebula contracting to form a solar system?

a)

gravity

b)

magnetic force

c)

electric force

d)

strong nuclear force

115.

The disk-shape caused by the spinning of the nebula explains what property of our solar system?

a)

All planets are found in the same plane.

b)

All planets have large masses.

c)

All planets have rings.

d)

All planets are made of gas.

116.

What is the temperature range of a yellow star?

a)

10,000 - 30,000 K

b)

7,500 - 10,000 K

c)

5,500 - 6,000 K

d)

3,500 - 5,000 K

117.

What is the difference between a meteor and a meteorite?

a)

A meteor burns up in the atmosphere but a meteorite never makes it to the atmosphere.

b)

A meteor burns up in the atmosphere but a meteorite makes it through the atmosphere and strikes Earth.

c)

A meteor burns in the atmosphere but a meteorite burns up in the Sun.

d)

A meteor strikes Earth but a meteorite strikes the Moon.

118.

Most of the asteroids of our solar system move around the Sun between the orbits of which planets?

a)

Jupiter and Saturn

b)

Venus and Earth

c)

Earth and Mars

d)

Mars and Jupiter

119.

Which is true about our solar system?

a)

more than 500 moons

b)

three dwarf planets

c)

nine planets

d)

many asteroids and small objects

120.

The force of gravity between objects depends on their _______ and ______.

a)

volume; their acceleration

b)

mass; the distance between them

c)

size; their gravitational potential energy

d)

density; kinetic energy

121.

What is a nebula?

a)

the material that was left over from the Big Bang

b)

a giant cloud of dust and gas

c)

a newly formed star

d)

a mixture of Sun and planets

122.

The largest star in the sky, Sirius A has a smaller companion star known as Sirius B.  What best describes Sirius A and Sirius B?

a)

binary stars

b)

open cluster

c)

globular clister

d)

galaxy

123.

The planets are all very far from the Sun, but they continue to orbit the star because ____.

a)

the Sun and the planets are very massive

b)

the Sun’s gravity increases with distance from it

c)

centrifugal forces continue to operate even when two objects are too far for gravity

d)

space has fibers that keep the planets orbiting the Sun

124.

How does the orbital radius of the outer planets compare to the inner planets?

a)

much larger

b)

equal in size

c)

slightly smaller

d)

much smaller

125.

Which statement is false about galaxies?

a)

made of millions to billions of stars

b)

can be spiral, elliptical, or irregular in shape

c)

the Milky Way is an example

d)

there is only one known galaxy