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Honors Unit 2 Atomic and Quantum Structure

Total questions: 78

Worksheet time: 39mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Who proposed the first scientific atomic theory based on evidence?
a)
John Dalton
b)
Democritus
c)
Aristotle
d)
Bohr
2.
Which scientist discovered the electron using cathode ray tubes?
a)
Rutherford
b)
Bohr
c)
Thomson
d)
Chadwick
3.
The nucleus of an atom was discovered during which experiment?
a)
Double slit experiment
b)
Gold foil experiment
c)
Photoelectric effect
d)
Cathode ray tube test
4.
What did Bohr’s model explain that Rutherford’s did not?
a)
Electron charge
b)
Proton location
c)
Energy levels and line spectra
d)
Neutron mass
5.
Which model introduced orbitals as probability zones?
a)
Bohr Model
b)
Plum Pudding Model
c)
Dalton Model
d)
Quantum Mechanical Model
6.
Which of the following are limitations of Dalton's atomic theory?
a)
All atoms of an element are identical in mass.
b)
Atoms are always in a fixed position and cannot move.
c)
Atoms cannot combine to form compounds.
d)
Atoms are not indivisible and can exist as isotopes.
e)
Atoms are the smallest units of matter.
7.
What major conclusion came from the gold foil experiment?
a)

Atoms are Dense Electric Fields

b)
Atoms have a small, dense nucleus.
c)
Electrons are located in the nucleus.
d)
Protons and neutrons are the same particles.
8.
Which scientist proposed quantized energy levels for electrons?
a)
Niels Bohr
b)
Albert Einstein
c)
Max Planck
d)
Erwin Schrödinger
9.
What evidence supports the quantum mechanical model over Bohr’s?
a)
Line spectra of hydrogen
b)
Electron diffraction and interference
c)
Mass of protons
d)
Discovery of neutrons
10.
Which of these models was the first to include electrons?
a)
Dalton Model
b)
Bohr Model
c)
Quantum Model
d)
Thomson’s Plum Pudding Model
11.
What is the relationship between wavelength and frequency in the electromagnetic spectrum?
a)
As wavelength increases, frequency increases
b)
They are not related
c)
As wavelength increases, frequency decreases
d)
They are always equal
12.
Which of the following types of radiation has the highest energy?
a)
Infrared
b)
Ultraviolet
c)
Microwave
d)
Gamma rays
13.

Which equation is used to calculate photon energy?

a)
E = mc^2
b)
E = hf
c)
E = kT
d)
E = p^2/2m
e)
E = 1/2 mv^2
14.
As energy of a photon increases, what happens to its wavelength?
a)
It increases
b)
It decreases
c)
It remains constant
d)
It becomes negative
15.
What kind of spectrum is produced by a heated gas?
a)
Continuous spectrum
b)
Absorption spectrum
c)
Emission line spectrum
d)
Ultraviolet spectrum
16.

What is the correct equation for the speed of light as it relates to wavelength and frequency?

a)
c = f / λ
b)
c = λ + f
c)
c = λ - f
d)
c = λ * f
17.
Which color of visible light has the longest wavelength?
a)
Blue
b)
Green
c)
Violet
d)
Red
18.

E = h × f : What does the h represent?

a)
Planck's constant
b)
Energy of a photon
c)
Frequency of light
d)
Einstein's equation
19.
Which of the following technologies rely on emission or absorption spectra?
a)
Flame photometry
b)
LED lighting
c)
MRI scanning
d)
Astronomical spectroscopy
e)
Solar panels
20.
Which part of the electromagnetic spectrum is responsible for sunburn?
a)
Visible light
b)
Microwave
c)
Ultraviolet (UV)
d)
X-ray
21.
Which quantum number describes the shape of an orbital?
a)
Principal (n)
b)
Angular momentum (l)
c)
Magnetic (m_l)
d)
Spin (m_s)
22.
How many different orientations can a p sublevel have?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
6
23.

What are quantum numbers for Chlorine?

a)
n=3, l=1, m_l=1, m_s=-1/2
b)
n=4, l=2, m_l=1, m_s=+1/2
c)
n=3, l=1, m_l=0, m_s=+1/2
d)
n=2, l=0, m_l=0, m_s=-1/2
e)
n=1, l=0, m_l=0, m_s=+1/2
24.
The quantum number n = 3 corresponds to which energy level?
a)
Fourth energy level
b)
Second energy level
c)
First energy level
d)
Third energy level
25.

How many electrons can fit in the 3p sublevel?

(a)  

26.
Which principle states that electrons occupy the lowest energy orbitals available first?
a)
Pauli Exclusion Principle
b)
Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle
c)
Hund’s Rule
d)
Aufbau Principle
27.
Which rule requires that each orbital in a sublevel be singly occupied before pairing?
a)
Hund’s Rule
b)
Aufbau Principle
c)
Pauli Exclusion Principle
d)
Electron Shielding Rule
28.
The Pauli Exclusion Principle states that:
a)

Two electrons can occupy the same quantum state if they have different spins.

b)
All particles can occupy the same quantum state without restriction.
c)

Electrons can occupy the same quantum state if they are in different energy levels.

d)

No two Electrons can occupy the same quantum state simultaneously.

29.

Which two orbitals exist in the second energy level (n = 2)?

a)
2s
b)
2p
c)
2d
d)
1s
e)
2f
30.

How many orbitals are in the d sublevel?

(a)  

31.
What is the full electron configuration for oxygen (O)?
a)
1s² 2s² 2p³
b)
1s² 2s² 2p⁶
c)
1s² 2s² 2p²
d)
1s² 2s² 2p⁴
32.
Which element has the configuration [Ne] 3s2 3p5?
a)
Fluorine
b)
Chlorine
c)
Sulfur
d)
Phosphorus
33.
Which elements have a completely full outer s and p orbital shell?
a)
Neon
b)
Argon
c)
Fluorine
d)
Krypton
e)
Helium
34.
What orbital fills after 3p in the Aufbau sequence?
a)
4s
b)
5s
c)
4p
d)
3d
35.
Which configuration represents a magnesium ion (Mg²⁺)?
a)
1s2 2s2 2p6
b)
1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2
c)
1s2 2s2 2p5
d)
[Ne] 3s2
36.

Which element(s) is an exception to predicted configurations?

a)
Zinc (Zn)
b)
Gold (Au)
c)
Chromium (Cr) and Copper (Cu)
d)
Iron (Fe)
e)
Silver (Ag)
37.
Which orbital is removed first when forming a transition metal ion?
a)
3d
b)
4s
c)
3p
d)
2p
38.

How many valence electrons does sulfur have?

(a)  

39.

Identify the element: [Ar] 4s1 3d5

(a)  

40.
What causes an atom to emit light in the visible spectrum?
a)
Electrons absorbing energy and staying excited
b)
Electrons colliding with protons
c)
Electrons moving from higher to lower energy levels
d)
Protons jumping orbitals
41.
Each element has a unique emission spectrum because:
a)
They have the same number of neutrons
b)
They absorb all wavelengths
c)
Their electron configurations are different
d)
Their mass numbers are different
42.
What type of spectrum is produced by a hot gas under low pressure?
a)
Absorption spectrum
b)
Emission spectrum
c)
Continuous spectrum
d)
Blackbody spectrum
43.
Which equation would you use to calculate the energy of a photon?
a)
E = mc^2
b)
E = hf
c)
E = mv^2
d)
E = p^2/2m
44.
Which element is likely responsible for a green flame in a flame test?
a)
Sodium
b)
Copper
c)
Potassium
d)
Strontium
45.
Bohr's energy formula: ΔE = –2.178 × 10⁻¹⁸ × [(1/nf²) – (1/ni²)] is used to:
a)
Predict flame test colors
b)
Determine bond energy
c)
Calculate photon energy for hydrogen transitions
d)
Measure molar mass
46.

Which one of the following use spectroscopy in real life?

a)
History, literature, and philosophy.
b)
Engineering, architecture, and design.
c)
Physics, biology, and geology.
d)
Sports, entertainment, and fashion.
e)
Chemistry, astronomy, and medicine.
47.
Which transition emits more energy?
a)
n = 5 to n = 4
b)
n = 3 to n = 2
c)
n = 2 to n = 1
d)
n = 4 to n = 3
48.
What is the unit of photon energy in the equation E = h × f?
a)
joules
b)
newtons
c)
electronvolts
d)
watts
49.
What are the two possible values of electron spin?
a)
+1 or –1
b)
+½ or –½
c)
0 or 1
d)
+2 or –2
50.
What principle states that no two electrons can have the same set of quantum numbers?
a)
Pauli Exclusion Principle
b)
Hund's Rule
c)
Bohr Model of the Atom
d)
Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle
51.
What type of material is weakly repelled by a magnetic field?
a)
Ferromagnetic
b)
Paramagnetic
c)
Diamagnetic
d)
Superconductive
52.

Which one of the following is paramagnetic element? (hint, unpaired electrons)

a)
Iron (Fe)
b)
Lead (Pb)
c)
Zinc (Zn)
d)
Gold (Au)
e)
Copper (Cu)
53.
In orbital diagrams, how is spin represented?
a)
Circles and squares
b)
Dotted lines
c)
Up and down arrows
d)
Dashed boxes
54.
What principle explains magnetism as arising from spin alignment?
a)
Spin alignment principle
b)
Magnetic field alignment principle
c)
Electron alignment hypothesis
d)
Spin rotation theory
55.

In the Einstein–de Haas experiment, electron spin flips induce torque in a suspended magnet. Which of these real-life examples uses this principle?

a)
Electric motor operation
b)
Solar panel efficiency
c)
Thermal imaging technology
d)
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
56.
Spin is most directly connected to which property of electrons?
a)
Mass
b)
Energy level
c)
Charge
d)
Magnetism
57.
Materials with all electrons paired are:
a)
Paramagnetic materials
b)
Superconductors
c)
Conductors
d)
Diamagnetic materials
58.

What is the energy of a photon with a frequency of 6.000 × 10¹⁴ Hz?

(Speed of Light = 299 792 458 m / s) (J= kg·m²/s²) (Planck’s constant = 6.626 × 10⁻³⁴ J·s)

a)

2.532 × 10⁻¹⁹ J

b)

4.256 × 10⁻¹⁹ J

c)

1.034 × 10⁻¹⁸ J

d)
3.976 × 10⁻¹⁹ J
59.

Calculate the wavelength of a photon with energy 4.00 × 10⁻¹⁹ J.

(Speed of Light = 299 792 458 m / s) (J= kg·m²/s²) (Planck’s constant = 6.626 × 10⁻³⁴ J·s)

a)

3.06 × 10⁻¹⁵ m

b)

1.20 × 10⁻¹⁶ m

c)

1.65 × 10⁻¹⁵ m

d)

2.54 × 10⁻¹⁴ m

60.

A photon has a wavelength of 267 nm. What is its frequency (Hz)?

(Speed of Light = 299 792 458 m / s) (J= kg·m²/s²) (Planck’s constant = 6.626 × 10⁻³⁴ J·s)

a)
3.00 x 10^14 Hz
b)
5.00 x 10^15 Hz
c)
1.00 x 10^16 Hz
d)
1.12 x 10^15 Hz
61.

Use Bohr’s equation to calculate ΔE for an electron transition from n = 4 to n = 2.

ΔE = – (2.18 × 10⁻¹⁸ J)(1/n_f² – 1/nᵢ²)

a)
-2.18 × 10⁻¹⁸ J
b)
-1.03 × 10⁻¹⁹ J
c)
-8.36 × 10⁻¹⁹ J
d)
-4.09 × 10⁻¹⁹ J
62.
An electron drops from n = 3 to n = 1. Is energy emitted or absorbed?
a)
Emitted
b)
Absorbed
c)
Neither
d)
Converted to heat
63.
Which transition would emit a higher energy photon?
a)
n = 3 → n = 2
b)
n = 2 → n = 1
c)
n = 4 → n = 3
d)
n = 5 → n = 4
64.
Which color corresponds to the highest energy visible photon?
a)
Red
b)
Green
c)
Blue
d)
Violet
65.
Why do different elements emit different spectral lines?
a)
Different elements emit the same spectral lines due to their similar atomic masses.
b)

Because of their unique electron configurations and the specific energy transitions of their electrons.

c)
All elements emit spectral lines in the same wavelength range regardless of their properties.
d)
Spectral lines are emitted only when elements are heated to extreme temperatures.
66.
What does the line spacing in a hydrogen spectrum represent?
a)
Electron mass
b)
Frequency of proton vibration
c)
Allowed energy level differences
d)
Nuclear distance
67.
Which of the following could best distinguish between sodium and potassium ions in a lab?
a)
Titration
b)
Flame test
c)
Distillation
d)
Evaporation
68.
LED lights emit color due to:
a)
Nuclear fusion
b)
Atomic fission
c)
Electron transitions in semiconductors
d)
Current passing through magnetic fields
69.
Which concept connects the periodic table to spectroscopy?
a)
Atomic mass
b)
Number of isotopes
c)
Electron configuration and energy levels
d)
Bond polarity
70.
In forensic analysis, why is chromatography often paired with spectral analysis?
a)
To improve melting points
b)
To balance molecular charge
c)
To separate and identify components by light absorption
d)
To sterilize samples
71.

Which phenomena can NOT be observed in both light and electrons?

a)
Wave-particle duality
b)
Interference patterns
c)
Quantization
d)
Boiling point elevation
e)
Spin alignment
72.

How does the octet rule relate to the stability of the crystal lattice in semiconductors?

a)
The octet rule leads to increased instability in semiconductor structures.
b)
The octet rule only applies to ionic compounds, not semiconductors.
c)
The octet rule is irrelevant to the stability of crystal lattices in semiconductors.
d)

By promoting covalent bonding through electron sharing, ensuring that atoms achieve a stable electron configuration.

73.

Why are elements such as Mg (magnesium) and Si (silicon) added during crystal formation in LEDs?

a)
Mg and Si are used to enhance color brightness in LEDs.
b)

Magnesium creates holes (p-type doping) and silicon provides electrons; together they set the band gap that controls LED color.

c)
Mg and Si are added to reduce the cost of LED production.
d)
Mg and Si are included to increase the weight of the LED components.
74.

What is meant by a band gap, and how does it determine the color of light emitted from an LED?

a)

Energy difference that corresponds to the wavelength of the emitted light.

b)
The band gap only determines the brightness of the LED.
c)
The band gap has no effect on the color of light emitted.
d)
The band gap is the physical size of the LED.
75.

What is the relationship between the energy of a photon (E = h f) and the band gap energy in an LED?

a)
The band gap energy is independent of the energy of a photon in an LED.
b)
The energy of a photon must equal the band gap energy for light emission in an LED.
c)
The energy of a photon is always greater than the band gap energy in an LED.
d)
The energy of a photon can be less than the band gap energy for light emission in an LED.
76.

Why does plotting photon energy (E) versus frequency (f) give an experimental value for Planck’s constant?

a)
The slope represents the speed of light.
b)
Photon energy is independent of frequency.
c)
Frequency is calculated from Planck's constant.
d)
Plotting photon energy versus frequency provides the slope, which is Planck's constant.
77.

What is the relationship between threshold voltage of an LED and the color (wavelength) of light it emits?

a)
Higher threshold voltages always result in red light.
b)

Higher voltages correspond to shorter wavelengths (blue/violet), and lower voltages correspond to longer wavelengths (red).

c)
All LEDs emit the same color regardless of threshold voltage.
d)
The threshold voltage has no effect on the color of light emitted.
78.

Suppose engineers want to design an LED that emits orange light (~600 nm). Explain how they would select semiconductor materials or dopants to achieve this emission, referencing the band gap concept.

(Challenge Question)

a)

Engineers would use materials with a band gap of 1.5 eV

b)
Dopants are not necessary for achieving specific light emissions in LEDs.
c)
Selecting materials with a band gap of 3.1 eV is ideal for orange light.
d)

Select semiconductor materials with a band gap of approximately 2.07 eV and may use dopants to adjust the band gap.